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  • With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

    - by brahn
    I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

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  • Non distinct Unique ID in MySQL database table.

    - by Geoff
    First of, a simplified version: I am wondering if I can create a trigger to activate during INSERT (it's actually LOAD DATA INFILE) and NOT enter records for an RMA already in my table? I have a table that has no records that are unique. Some may be duplicates but there is one field that I can use to know if the data has been entered or not. For instance RMA Op Days --------------------- 213 Repair 0.10 213 Test 0.20 213 Repair 0.10 So I could do an index on the three columns together but as you see it's possible for an RMA to be in a step for the same amount of time twice so it's possible to have duplicate records. This data comes from a report that I cannot edit and this is all it provides. The key is that an RMA's data is only in the report once so if my database already has that RMA in it's records I want to skip the loading of that RMA's records from the report. By all means please let me know if that didn't make sense, I'll Explain as needed. I'm sure it's not uncommon but I couldn't find anything on the net.

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  • Preserving SCRIPT tags (and more) in CKEditor

    - by Jonathan Sampson
    Update: I'm thinking the solution to this problem is in CKEDITOR.config.protectedSource(), but my regular-expression experience is proving to be too juvenile to handle this issue. How would I go about exempting all tags that contain the 'preserved' class from being touched by CKEditor? Is it possible to create a block of code within the CKEditor that will not be touched by the editor itself, and will be maintained in its intended-state until explicitly changed by the user? I've been attempting to input javascript variables (bound in script tags) and a flash movie following, but CKEditor continues to rewrite my pasted code/markup, and in doing so breaking my code. I'm working with the following setup: <script type="text/javascript"> var editor = CKEDITOR.replace("content", { height : "500px", width : "680px", resize_maxWidth : "680px", resize_minWidth : "680px", toolbar : [ ['Source','-','Save','Preview'], ['Cut','Copy','Paste','PasteText','PasteFromWord','-','Print', 'SpellChecker', 'Scayt'], ['Undo','Redo','-','Find','Replace','-','SelectAll','RemoveFormat'], ['Bold','Italic','Underline','Strike','-','Subscript','Superscript'], ['NumberedList','BulletedList','-','Outdent','Indent','Blockquote'], ['JustifyLeft','JustifyCenter','JustifyRight','JustifyBlock'], ['Link','Unlink','Anchor'], ['Image','Table','HorizontalRule','SpecialChar'] ] }); CKFinder.SetupCKEditor( editor, "<?php print url::base(); ?>assets/ckfinder" ); </script> UPDATE: I suppose the most ideal solution would be to preserve the contents of any tag that contains class="preserve" enabling much more than the limited exclusives.

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  • Iphone - UIView not displayed

    - by Raphael Pinto
    Hi, I have a strange problem with a UIView : I want to show an Activity Indicator View that I created with Interface Builder to indicate long running activity. In the viewDidLoad function of my principal viewController I init the ActivityIndicator View like this : - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; appDelegate = (MyAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; load = [[ActivityIndicatorViewController alloc] init]; ... When I push a button it call this IBAction : - (IBAction)LaunchButtonPressed{ // Show the Activity indicator view. [self.view addSubview:load.view]; // eavy work [self StartWorking]; // Hide the loading view. [load.view removeFromSuperview]; } In the StartWorking function, I ask a request to an internet serveur and parse the XML file that it return me. The problem is that if I Call my StartWorking function, the application do not start by showing the Activity Indicator view but with the StartWorking function. Whereas if I remove the call to StartWorking function, the view is shown. Is someone able to explain me why? :s

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  • help with eclipse debugging /or/ subclassed SimpleAdapter not calling setViewImage()

    - by edzillion
    Hi I was following the method for asynchronously loading images into a listview as outlined in evan charlton's blog here. The problem I am having is that the setViewImage function is not being called by the system: @Override public void setViewImage(final ImageView image, final String value) { if (value != null && value.length() > 0 && image instanceof RemoteImageView) { RemoteImageView riv = (RemoteImageView) image; riv.setLocalURI(API.getCacheFileName(value)); riv.setRemoteURI(value); super.setViewImage(image, R.drawable.icon); } else { image.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } I have built his example code, and setViewImage is called fine - it seems to me that the code is functionally identical. Looking into the docs it says: First, if a SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder is available, setViewValue(android.view.View, Object, String) is invoked. If the returned value is true, binding has occured. If the returned value is false and the view to bind is a TextView, setViewText(TextView, String) is invoked. If the returned value is false and the view to bind is an ImageView, setViewImage(ImageView, int) or setViewImage(ImageView, String) is invoked. If no appropriate binding can be found, an IllegalStateException is thrown. I don't really understand how to debug (in eclipse) to find out how this process is occuring, advice on how to do so would be a help. Thanks.

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  • How to load a library that depends on another library, all from a jar file

    - by Philip
    I would like to ship my application as a self-contained jar file. The jar file should contain all the class files, as well as two shared libraries. One of these shared libraries is written for the JNI and is essentially an indirection to the other one (which is 100% C). I have first tried running my jar file without the libraries, but having them accessible through the LD_LIBRARY_PATH environment variable. That worked fine. I then put the JNI library into the jar file. I have read about loading libraries from jar files by copying them first to some temporary directory, and that worked well for me (note that the 100% C library was, I suppose, loaded as before). Now I want to put both libraries into the jar, but I don't understand how I can make sure that they will both be loaded. Sure I can copy them both to a temporary directory, but when I load the "indirection" one, it always gives me: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /tmp/.../libindirect.so: /libpure.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory I've tried to force the JVM to load the "100% C" library first by explicitely calling System.load(...) on its temporary file, but that didn't work better. I suspect the system is looking for it when resolving the links in libindirect.so but doesn't care about what the JVM loaded. Can anyone help me on that one? Thanks

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  • How can I add my desired links to be read using PHP Universal FeedParser

    - by lightingwrist
    Hello, I have been trying to use the PHP Universal FeedParser to read RSS feeds and display the output on my site. Problem is I am VERY green with this and although it seems very simple. the only link that is working is the link provided in the sample. When I try to add another address with the xml or rss.php extensions, I keep getting errors,the page is loading blank,or the designated area for the feeds is blank. In addition to this, how can I add multiple links to feeds in a syntactically correct manor and how can I limit the amount of feeds? Thank you Here it is: <?php require_once($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . '/includes/system/FeedParser.php'); $Parser = new FeedParser(); $Parser->parse("http://www.sitepoint.com/rss.php"); $channels = $Parser->getChannels(); $items = $Parser->getItems(); ?> and then: <div id="rss_feeder"> <h1 id="title"><a href="<?php echo $channels['LINK']; ?>"><?php echo $channels['TITLE']; ?></a></h1> <p id="description"><?php echo $channels['DESCRIPTION']; ?> </p> <?php foreach($items as $item): ?> <a class="feed-title" href="<?php echo $item['LINK']; ?>"><?php echo $item['TITLE']; ?></a> <p class="feed-description"><?php echo $item['DESCRIPTION']; ?></p> <?php endforeach;?> </div>

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  • .net user control event handler lost on postback

    - by user154008
    I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

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  • Correct use of Classloader (especially in Android)

    - by Sebi
    I read some documentations about classloaders, but im still not sure where and why they are needed. The Android API says: Loads classes and resources from a repository. One or more class loaders are installed at runtime. These are consulted whenever the runtime system needs a specific class that is not yet available in-memory. So if i understand this correct, there can be many classlaoders which are responsible for loading new classes. But how the system decides which to use? And in which situation should a developer instantiate a new classloader? In the Android API for Intent there is a method public void setExtrasClassLoader (ClassLoader loader) The description says: Sets the ClassLoader that will be used when unmarshalling any Parcelable values from the extras of this Intent. So can i define there a special classloader so that i can pass object with an Intent which are not defined in the receiving activity? An example: If activity A which is located in Project A (in Eclipse) defines an object which i want to send to Activity B in Project B using putExtra of the Intent object. If this object which is send over the Intent is not defined (source code in project B), then there is a NoClassDefFoundException. So can i use the method setExtraClassloader to avoid this exception? If yes, how can i decide which classloader object i have to pass? And how do I instantiate it correctly?

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  • How to mult-thread this?

    - by WilliamKF
    I wish to have two threads. The first thread1 occasionally calls the following pseudo function: void waitForThread2() { if (thread2 is not idle) { return; } notifyThread2IamReady(); while (thread2IsExclusive) { } } The second thread2 is forever in the following pseudo loop: for (;;) { Notify thread1 I am idle. while (!thread1IsReady()) { } Notify thread1 I am exclusive. Do some work while thread1 is blocked. Notify thread1 I am busy. Do some work in parallel with thread1. } What is the best way to write this such that both thread1 and thread2 are kept as busy as possible on a machine with multiple cores. I would like to avoid long delays between notification in one thread and detection by the other. I tried using pthread condition variables but found the delay between thread2 doing 'notify thread1 I am busy' and the loop in waitForThread2() on thear2IsExclusive() can be up to almost one second delay. I then tried using a volatile sig_atomic_t shared variable to control the same, but something is going wrong, so I must not be doing it correctly.

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  • Break a while loop without using If or Break

    - by Justin
    I need to create a program that uses while to find the volume of a cylinder. I need the while loop to break if the user inputs a negative value for the height. My code looks like this: double sentinel=1, h=1, v=0, r, count=0; // declares all variables needed final double PI=3.14159; boolean NotNegative=true; while(NotNegative){// && count==0){ // while both the height is positive AND the total times run is 0 System.out.print("Enter height (Use negative to exit): "); // has the user input the height h=Double.parseDouble(br.readLine()); sentinel=h; // save sentinel as the inputted height while(sentinel>0){ System.out.print("Enter radius: "); // have the user input the radius r=Double.parseDouble(br.readLine()); v=PI*(r*r)*h; // find the volume System.out.println("The volume is " + v); // print out the volume count++; // increase the count each time this runs NotNegative=true; sentinel=-1; } } Any help?

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  • ajax to php to curl and back..

    - by pfunc
    I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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  • Heroku: bash: bundle: command not found

    - by Space Monkey
    My heroku deployment is crashing with following errors. 2012-12-12T17:16:18+00:00 app[web.1]: bash: bundle: command not found 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: Process exited with status 127 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: State changed from starting to crashed The Heroku documentation for this error is to set PATH and GEM variables as described in https://devcenter.heroku.com/articles/changing-ruby-version-breaks-path I tried that, however that too is not helping. ? heroku config:add PATH=bin:vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/bin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/bin:/bin ? heroku config:add GEM_PATH=vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1 ? heroku run rake db:migrate Running rake db:migrate attached to terminal... up, run.7130 bash: bundle: command not found Next, I tried setting Ruby version in my Heroku app. This increased the slugsize. But app was still not up. Gemfile ruby "1.9.2" Pushed to Heroku -----> Using Ruby version: ruby-1.9.2 -----> Installing dependencies using Bundler version 1.2.2 heroku run "ruby -v" Running `ruby -v` attached to terminal... up, run.4483 ruby 1.9.2p320 (2012-04-20 revision 35421) [x86_64-linux] Can someone please advice

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  • connecting to MySQL using JDBC in eclipse

    - by Noona
    Hello, So I want to create a JDBC connection to MySQL server that is installed on my pc, here are the steps, I installed MySQL with the username and password "root", downloaded mysql-connector-java and from theere I coped the JAR "mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin" to "C:\Sun\SDK\jdk\jre\lib\ext", I then added it as an external JAR in my project in eclipse, now in my class I have this code: public void initialiseDatabase() { try { // Load the Driver class. Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); //Create the connection using the static getConnection method databaseConnection = DriverManager.getConnection (databaseUrl+databaseName, dbUserName, dbPassword); sqlStatement = databaseConnection.createStatement(); } catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (Exception e) {e.printStackTrace();} } (this is going to be psuedocode cause I am reading from a properties file and don't want the one helping me reading through long lines of code from main to figure out all the variables), where databaseUrl = "127.0.0.1" dbUserName = "root" dbPassword = "root" databaseName = "MySQL" //this one I am not sure of, do I need to create it or is it set inherenrly? now the MySQL server is up and running, but when I call the method initialiseDatabase the following exception is thrown: "java.sql.SQLException: No suitable driver found for rootroot at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at Proxy$JDBCConnection.initialiseDatabase(Proxy.java:721)" when line 721 is: sqlStatement = databaseConnection.createStatement(); Where have I gone wrong? thanks

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  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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  • Javascript force GC collection? / Forcefully free object?

    - by plash
    I have a js function for playing any given sound using the Audio interface (creating a new instance for every call). This works quite well, until about the 32nd call (sometimes less). This issue is directly related to the release of the Audio instance. I know this because I've allowed time for the GC in Chromium to run and it will allow me to play another 32 or so sounds again. Here's an example of what I'm doing: <html><head> <script language="javascript"> function playSound(url) { snd = new Audio(url); snd.play(); delete snd; snd = null; } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="playSound('blah.mp3');">Play sound</a> </body></html> I also have this, which works well for pages that have less than 32 playSound calls: var AudioPlayer = { cache: {}, play: function(url) { if (!AudioPlayer.cache[url]) AudioPlayer.cache[url] = new Audio(url); AudioPlayer.cache[url].play(); } }; But this will not work for what I want to do (dynamically replace a div with other content (from separate files), which have even more sounds on them - 1. memory usage would easily skyrocket, 2. many sounds will never play). I need a way to release the sound immediately. Is it possible to do this? I have found no free/close/unload method for the Audio interface. The pages will be viewed locally, so the constant loading of sounds is not a big factor at all (and most sounds are rather short).

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  • Quick MEF + SL4 question

    - by Tom Allen
    I'm working on an app in the Silverlight 4 RC and i'm taking the oppertunity to learn MEF for handling plugin controls. I've got it working in a pretty basic manor, but it's not exactly tidy and I know there is a better way of importing multiple xap's. Essentially, in the App.xaml of my host app, I've got the following telling MEF to load my xap's: AggregateCatalog catalog = new AggregateCatalog(); DeploymentCatalog c1 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInA.xap", UriKind.Relative)); DeploymentCatalog c2 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInB.xap", UriKind.Relative)); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c1); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c2); CompositionHost.Initialize(catalog); c1.DownloadAsync(); c2.DownloadAsync(); I'm sure I'm not using the AggregateCatalog fully here and I need to be able to load any xap's that might be in the directory, not just hardcoding Uri's obviously.... Also, in the MainPage.xaml.cs in the host I have the following collection which MEF puts the plugin's into: [ImportMany(AllowRecomposition = true)] public ObservableCollection<IPlugInApp> PlugIns { get; set; } Again, this works, but I'm pretty sure I'm using ImportMany incorrectly.... Finally, the MainPage.xaml.cs file implements IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and I have the following for handling the plugin's once loaded: public void OnImportsSatisfied() { sp.Children.Clear(); foreach (IPlugInApp plugIn in PlugIns) { if (plugIn != null) sp.Children.Add(plugIn.GetUserControl()); } } This works, but it seems filthy that it runs n times (n being the number of xap's to load). I'm having to call sp.Children.Clear() as if I don't, when loading the 2 plugin's, my stack panel is populated as follows: TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn B I'm clearly missing something here. Can anyone point out what I should be doing? Thanks!

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  • Load XML file on seperate thread, overwrite old , and save.

    - by Luis Tovar
    Hey everyone... so Im trying to figure out how to do this. I have bounced around alot of forums to try and find my answer, but no success. Either their process it too complicated for me to understand, or is just overkill. What I am trying to do is this. I have an XML file within my app. Its a 500k xml file that i dont want the user to have to wait on when loading. SO... I put it in my app which kills the load time, and makes the app available offline. What i want to do is, when the app loads, in the background (seperate thread) download the SAME xml file which MIGHT be updated with new data. Once the xml file is complete, i want to REPLACE the xml file that was used to load the file. Any suggestions or code hints would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Can PHP dissect its own syntax?

    - by Nathan Long
    Can PHP dissect its own syntax? For example, I'd like to write a function that takes in an input like $object->attribute and says to itself: OK, he's giving me $foo->bar, which means he must think that $foo is an object that has a property called bar. Before I try accessing bar and potentially get a 'Trying to get property of non-object' error, let me check whether $foo is even an object. The end goal is to echo a value if it is set, and fail silently if not. I want to avoid repetition like this: <input value="<? if(is_object($foo) && is_set($foo->bar)){ echo $foo->bar; }?> "/> ...and to avoid writing a function that does the above, but has to have the object and attribute passed in separately, like this: <input value="<? echoAttribute($foo,'bar') ?>" /> ...but to instead write something which: preserves the object-attribute syntax is flexible: can also handle array keys or regular variables Like this: <input value="<? echoIfSet($foo->bar); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($baz['buzz']); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($moo); ?> /> But this all depends on PHP being able to tell me "what kind of thing am I asking for when I say $object->attribute or $array[$key]", so that my function can handle each according to its own type. Is this possible?

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  • iPod library song path access

    - by Narendra Kumar
    I studied a lot but did not find any good answer. My problem is i am calculating beats per minute of song.I used Bass api for that, now problem is i am able to get bpm of a file which i have in my resource folder but i have to get bpm of all songs of iPod library. I am getting path of song from MPMediaItemPropertyAssetURL property of MpMediaItem but when passing this one in api api is saying stream cant load BASS_StreamCreateFile(). In my point of view i am not getting right path of song. How can we access valid path? Did any one access ipod library song with external api? Please help me . Thanks CODE IS THIS NSURL *assetURL = [song valueForProperty:MPMediaItemPropertyAssetURL]; NSString *respath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[assetURL absoluteString]]; BASS_SetConfig(BASS_CONFIG_IOS_MIXAUDIO, 0); // Disable mixing. To be called before BASS_Init. if (HIWORD(BASS_GetVersion()) != BASSVERSION) { NSLog(@"An incorrect version of BASS was loaded"); } // Initialize default device. if (!BASS_Init(-1, 44100, 0, NULL, NULL)) { //textView.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ CAN'T Load Stream",textView.text]; } DWORD chan1; if(!(chan1=BASS_StreamCreateFile(FALSE, [respath UTF8String], 0, 0, BASS_SAMPLE_LOOP))) { NSLog(@"Can't load stream!"); textView.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ not loading...",textView.text]; } mainStream=BASS_StreamCreateFile(FALSE, [respath cStringUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding], 0, 0, BASS_SAMPLE_FLOAT|BASS_STREAM_PRESCAN|BASS_STREAM_DECODE); float playBackDuration=BASS_ChannelBytes2Seconds(mainStream, BASS_ChannelGetLength(mainStream, BASS_POS_BYTE)); NSLog(@"Play back duration is %f",playBackDuration); HSTREAM bpmStream=BASS_StreamCreateFile(FALSE, [respath UTF8String], 0, 0, BASS_STREAM_PRESCAN|BASS_SAMPLE_FLOAT|BASS_STREAM_DECODE); //BASS_ChannelPlay(bpmStream,FALSE); BpmValue= BASS_FX_BPM_DecodeGet(bpmStream,0.0, playBackDuration, MAKELONG(45,256), BASS_FX_BPM_MULT2| BASS_FX_BPM_MULT2 | BASS_FX_FREESOURCE, (BPMPROCESSPROC*)proc); textView.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ %f",textView.text,BpmValue];

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  • Problem with TTWebController… alternative view controller template for UIWebView?

    - by prendio2
    I have a UIWebView with content populated from a Last.fm API call. This content contains links, many of which are handled by parsing info from the URL in: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)aWbView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType; …and passing that info on to appropraite view controllers. When I cannot handle a URL I would like to push a new view controller on the stack and load the webpage into a UIWebView there. The TTWebController in Three20 looks very promising since it has also implemented a navigation toolbar, loading indicators etc. Somewhat naively perhaps I thought I would be able to use this controller to display web content in my app, without implementing Three20 throughout the app. I followed the instructions on github to add Three20 to my project and added the following code to deal with URLs in shouldStartLoadWithRequest: TTWebController* browser = [[TTWebController alloc]init]; [browser openURL:@"http://three20.info"]; //initially test with this URL [self.navigationController pushViewController:navigator animated:YES]; This crashes my app however with the following notice: *** -[TTNavigator setParentViewController:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3d5db70 What else do I need to do to implement the TTWebController in my app? Or do you know of an alternative view controller template that I can use instead of the Three20 implementation?

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  • jquery touch punch - draggable on ipad

    - by dshuta
    i am starting to work with the jquery touch punch extensions in order to allow draggability on ipad, but i am getting tripped up right away. probably something terribly dumb on my part. the draggable example from the developer works fine on my ipad: http://furf.com/exp/touch-punch/draggable.html but not for me: http://danshuta.com/touchpunch/ this works fine in my desktop browser, but on the ipad it just focuses on the block and scrolls the entire page as i drag, as if it were just an image or other normal embedded object. as this is what happens normally with jquery/ui on ipad, this makes me think it is not loading or otherwise ignoring the "punch" code from my site (though if i host the jquery files on my site via the same path, those load and function fine in desktop browser). here's the entire code, very basic: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <title>Touchpunchtest</title> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.8.17/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.ui.touch-punch.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="draggybox" onclick="void(0)" style="width: 150px; height: 150px; background: green;"></div> <script>$('#draggybox').draggable();</script> </body> </html> what am i missing?!

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  • String Manipulation: Splitting Delimitted Data

    - by Milli Szabo
    I need to split some info from a asterisk delimitted data. Data Format: NAME*ADRESS LINE1*ADDRESS LINE2 Rules: 1. Name should be always present 2. Address Line 1 and 2 might not be 3. There should be always three asterisks. Samples: MR JONES A ORTEGA*ADDRESS 1*ADDRESS2* Name: MR JONES A ORTEGA Address Line1: ADDRESS 1 Address Line2: ADDRESS 2 A PAUL*ADDR1** Name: A PAUL Address Line1: ADDR1 Address Line2: Not Given My algo is: 1. Iterate through the characters in the line 2. Store all chars in a temp variables until first * is found. Reject the data if no char is found before first occurence of asterisk. If some chars found, use it as the name. 3. Same as step 2 for finding address line 1 and 2 except that this won't reject the data if no char is found My algo looks ugly. The code looks uglier. Spliting using //* doesn't work either since name can be replaced with address line 1 if the data was *Address 1*Address2. Any suggestion?

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  • jQuery and AJAX?

    - by Moshe
    I'm making a simple form which has 5 input elements for parts of an address. I use jQuery to build and send an AJAX request to a PHP file on my server. For some reason my jQuery is not properly able to read the values from my input elements. What could be wrong? Here is my jQuery: $('#submitButton').click(function(){ $('#BBRequestBox').html('<img src="images/loading.gif" />'); alert('Info: ' + $('#name').val() + ' ' + $('#street').val() + ' ' + $('#city').val() + ' ' + $('#state').val() + ' ' + $('#zip').val() + ' '); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "./bbrequest.php", data: {name: $('#name').val(), street: $('#street').val(), city: $('#city').val(), state: $('#state').val(), zip: $('#zip').val() }, success: function(msg){ $('#BBRequestBox').html('<p>' + msg + '</p>'); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ $('#BBRequestBox').html('<p> There\'s been an error: ' + errorThrown + '</p>'); } }); return false; }); Here is my HTML: <form action="#"> <label>Name:</label><input type="text" id="name" class="textbox"/> <label>Street:</label><input type="text" id="street" class="textbox" /> <label>City:</label><input type="text" id="city"class="textbox" /> <label>State:</label><input type="text" id="state" class="textbox"/> <label>Zip:</label><input type="text" id="zip" class="textbox" /> <input type="submit" value="Send Me a Bitachon Builder!" id="submitButton" /> </form>

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  • JSF 2.0 Dynamic Views

    - by Robe Eleckers
    Hello, I'm working on a web project which uses JSF 2.0, PrimeFaces and PrettyFaces as main frameworks / libraries. The pages have the following (common) structure: Header, Content, Footer. Header: The Header always contains the same menu. This menu is a custom component, which generates a recursive html <ul><li> list containing <a href="url"> html links, this is all rendered with a custom renderer. The link looks like 'domain.com/website/datatable.xhtml?ref=2'. Where the ref=2 used to load the correct content from the database. I use prettyfaces to store this request value in a backingbean. Question 1: Is it ok to render the <a href> links myself, or should I better add an HTMLCommandLink from my UIComponent and render that in the encodeBegin/End? Question 2: I think passing variables like this is not really the JSF 2.0 style, how to do this in a better way? Content: The content contains dynamic data. It can be a (primefaces) datatable, build with dynamic data from the database. It can also be a text page, also loaded from the database. Or a series of graphs. You got the point, it's dynamic. The content is based on the link pressed in the header menu. If the content is of type datatable, then I put the ref=2 variable to a DataTableBean (via prettyfaces), which then loads the correct datatable from the database. If the content is of type chart, I'll put it on the ChartBean. Question 3: Is this a normal setup? Ideally I would like to update my content via Ajax. I hope it's clear :)

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