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  • Testing for existence using SELECT WHERE HAVING and NOT HAVING in a grouped subset

    - by IanC
    I have data on which I need to count +1 if a particular condition exists or another condition doesn't exist. I'm using SQL Server 2008. I shred the following simplified sample XML into a temp table and validate it: <product type="1"> <param type="1"> <item mode="0" weight="1" /> </param> <param type="2"> <item mode="1" weight="1" /> <item mode="0" weight="0.1" /> </param> <param type="3"> <item mode="1" weight="0.75" /> <item mode="1" weight="0.25" /> </param> </product> The validation in concern is the following rule: For each product type, for each param type, mode may be 0 & (1 || 2). In other words, there may be a 0(s), but then 1s or 2s are required, or there may be only 1(s) or 2(s). There cannot be only 0s, and there cannot be 1s and 2s. The only part I haven't figured out is how to detect if there are only 0s. This seems like a "not having" problem. The validation code (for this part): WITH t1 AS ( SELECT SUM(t.ParamWeight) AS S, COUNT(1) AS C, t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode FROM @t AS t GROUP BY t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode ), ... UNION ALL SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 WHERE t1.Mode IN (1, 2) GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING COUNT(1) > 1 UNION ALL ... ) SELECT @C = COUNT(1) FROM t2 This will show if any mode 1s & 2s are mixed, but not if the group contains only a 0. I'm sure there is a simple solution, but it's evading me right now. EDIT: I thought of a "cheat" that works perfectly. I added the following to the above: SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (null || 1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING SUM(t1.Mode) = 0 However, I'd still like to know how to do this without cheating.

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • In Ruby, how does coerce() actually work?

    - by Jian Lin
    It is said that when we have a class Point and knows how to perform point * 3 like the following: class Point def initialize(x,y) @x, @y = x, y end def *(c) Point.new(@x * c, @y * c) end end point = Point.new(1,2) p point p point * 3 Output: #<Point:0x336094 @x=1, @y=2> #<Point:0x335fa4 @x=3, @y=6> but then, 3 * point is not understood: Point can't be coerced into Fixnum (TypeError) So we need to further define an instance method coerce: class Point def coerce(something) [self, something] end end p 3 * point Output: #<Point:0x3c45a88 @x=3, @y=6> So it is said that 3 * point is the same as 3.*(point) that is, the instance method * takes an argument point and invoke on the object 3. Now, since this method * doesn't know how to multiply a point, so point.coerce(3) will be called, and get back an array: [point, 3] and then * is once again applied to it, is that true? point * 3 which is the same as point.*(3) and now, this is understood and we now have a new Point object, as performed by the instance method * of the Point class. The question is: 1) who invokes point.coerce(3) ? Is it Ruby automatically, or is it some code inside of * method of Fixnum by catching an exception? Or is it by case statement that when it doesn't know one of the known types, then call coerce? 2) Does coerce always need to return an array of 2 elements? Can it be no array? Or can it be an array of 3 elements? 3) And is the rule that, the original operator (or method) * will then be invoked on element 0, with the argument of element 1? (element 0 and element 1 are the two elements in that array returned by coerce) Who does it? Is it done by Ruby or is it done by code in Fixnum? If it is done by code in Fixnum, then it is a "convention" that everybody follows when doing a coerce? So could it be the code in * of Fixnum do something like this: if (something.typeof? ...) else if ... # other type else if ... # other type else # if it is not a type I know array = something.coerce(self) return array[0].*(array[1]) end

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  • gcc, strict-aliasing, and casting through a union

    - by Joseph Quinsey
    About a year ago the following paragraph was added to the GCC Manual, version 4.3.4, regarding -fstrict-aliasing: Similarly, access by taking the address, casting the resulting pointer and dereferencing the result has undefined behavior [emphasis added], even if the cast uses a union type, e.g.: union a_union { int i; double d; }; int f() { double d = 3.0; return ((union a_union *)&d)->i; } Does anyone have an example to illustrate this undefined behavior? Note this question is not about what the C99 standard says, or does not say. It is about the actual functioning of gcc, and other existing compilers, today. My simple, naive, attempt fails. For example: #include <stdio.h> union a_union { int i; double d; }; int f1(void) { union a_union t; t.d = 3333333.0; return t.i; // gcc manual: 'type-punning is allowed, provided ...' } int f2(void) { double d = 3333333.0; return ((union a_union *)&d)->i; // gcc manual: 'undefined behavior' } int main(void) { printf("%d\n", f1()); printf("%d\n", f2()); return 0; } works fine, giving on CYGWIN: -2147483648 -2147483648 Also note that taking addresses is obviously wrong (or right, if you are trying to illustrate undefined behavior). For example, just as we know this is wrong: extern void foo(int *, double *); union a_union t; t.d = 3.0; foo(&t.i, &t.d); // UD behavior so is this wrong: extern void foo(int *, double *); double d = 3.0; foo(&((union a_union *)&d)->i, &d); // UD behavior For background discussion about this, see for example: http://www.open-std.org/jtc1/sc22/wg14/www/docs/n1422.pdf http://gcc.gnu.org/ml/gcc/2010-01/msg00013.html http://davmac.wordpress.com/2010/02/26/c99-revisited/ http://cellperformance.beyond3d.com/articles/2006/06/understanding-strict-aliasing.html http://stackoverflow.com/questions/98650/what-is-the-strict-aliasing-rule http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771023/c99-strict-aliasing-rules-in-c-gcc/2771041#2771041 The first link, draft minutes of an ISO meeting seven months ago, notes in section 4.16: Is there anybody that thinks the rules are clear enough? No one is really able to interpret tham.

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  • CoreData : App crashes when deleting last instance created

    - by Leo
    Hello, I have a 2 tabs application. In the first one, I'm creating objects of the "Sample" and "SampleList" entities. Each sampleList contains an ID and a set of samples. Each sample contains a date and temperature property. In the second tab, I'm displaying my data in a tableView. I implemented the - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath method in order to delete SampleLists. In my xcdatamodel the delete rule for my relationship between SampleList and Sample is Cascade. My problem is that when I try to delete SampleList I just created, the app crashes and I receive a EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. If I restart it, then I'm able to delete "old" sampleList without any problems. Earlier, I had the following problem : I couldn't display the the sampleLists I created since I launched the app, because it crashed too. I received also the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. Actually, it seemed that the date of the last sample created of the set was nil. If I am not releasing the NSDate I'm using to set the sample's date, I don't have this problem anymore... If anyone could help me to find out what could cause my troubles it would be great !! Here is the method I'm using to create new instances : SampleList *newSampleList = (SampleList *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"SampleList" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newSampleList setPatchID:patchID]; NSMutableSet *newSampleSet = [[NSMutableSet alloc] init]; NSCalendar *gregorian = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; for (int i = 0; i < [byteArray count]; i=i+4, sampleCount++) { NSDateComponents *comps = [[NSDateComponents alloc] init]; [comps setYear:year]; [comps setMonth:month]; [comps setDay:day]; [comps setHour:hours]; [comps setMinute:minutes]; NSDate *sampleDate = [gregorian dateFromComponents:comps]; Sample *newSample = (Sample *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Sample" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newSample setSampleDate:sampleDate]; [newSample setSampleTemperature:[NSNumber numberWithInt:temperature]]; [newSampleSet addObject:newSample]; [comps release]; //[sampleDate release]; } [newSampleList setSampleSet:newSampleSet]; // [newSampleSet release]; NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Could not Save the context !!"); } [gregorian release];

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  • multithreading with database

    - by Darsin
    I am looking out for a strategy to utilize multithreading (probably asynchronous delegates) to do a synchronous operation. I am new to multithreading so i will outline my scenario first. This synchronous operation right now is done for one set of data (portfolio) based on the the parameters provided. The (psudeo-code) implementation is given below: public DataSet DoTests(int fundId, DateTime portfolioDate) { // Get test results for the portfolio // Call the database adapter method, which in turn is a stored procedure, // which in turns runs a series of "rule" stored procs and fills a local temp table and returns it back. DataSet resultsDataSet = GetTestResults(fundId, portfolioDate); try { // Do some local processing on the results DoSomeProcessing(resultsDataSet); // Save the results in Test, TestResults and TestAllocations tables in a transaction. // Sets a global transaction which is provided to all the adapter methods called below // It is defined in the Base class StartTransaction("TestTransaction"); // Save Test and get a testId int testId = UpdateTest(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update testId in the other tables in the dataset UpdateTestId(resultsDataSet, testId); // Update TestResults UpdateTestResults(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update TestAllocations UpdateTestAllocations(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // It is defined in the base class CommitTransaction("TestTransaction"); } catch { RollbackTransaction("TestTransaction"); } return resultsDataSet; } Now the requirement is to do it for multiple set of data. One way would be to call the above DoTests() method in a loop and get the data. I would prefer doing it in parallel. But there are certain catches: StartTransaction() method creates a connection (and transaction) every time it is called. All the underlying database tables, procedures are the same for each call of DoTests(). (obviously). Thus my question are: Will using multithreading anyway improve performance? What are the chances of deadlock especially when new TestId's are being created and the Tests, TestResults and TestAllocations are being saved? How can these deadlocked be handled? Is there any other more efficient way of doing the above operation apart from looping over the DoTests() method repeatedly?

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  • Does the <script> tag position in HTML affects performance of the webpage?

    - by Rahul Joshi
    If the script tag is above or below the body in a HTML page, does it matter for the performance of a website? And what if used in between like this: <body> ..blah..blah.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> ... some text here too ... </body> Or is this better?: <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. </body> Or this one?: <body> ..blah..blah.. ..call above functions on some events like onclick,onfocus,etc.. <script language="JavaScript" src="JS_File_100_KiloBytes"> function f1() { .. some logic reqd. for manipulating contents in a webpage } </script> </body> Need not tell everything is again in the <html> tag!! How does it affect performance of webpage while loading? Does it really? Which one is the best, either out of these 3 or some other which you know? And one more thing, I googled a bit on this, from which I went here: Best Practices for Speeding Up Your Web Site and it suggests put scripts at the bottom, but traditionally many people put it in <head> tag which is above the <body> tag. I know it's NOT a rule but many prefer it that way. If you don't believe it, just view source of this page! And tell me what's the better style for best performance.

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  • .NET and C# Exceptions. What is it reasonable to catch.

    - by djna
    Disclaimer, I'm from a Java background. I don't do much C#. There's a great deal of transfer between the two worlds, but of course there are differences and one is in the way Exceptions tend to be thought about. I recently answered a C# question suggesting that under some circstances it's reasonable to do this: try { some work } catch (Exeption e) { commonExceptionHandler(); } (The reasons why are immaterial). I got a response that I don't quite understand: until .NET 4.0, it's very bad to catch Exception. It means you catch various low-level fatal errors and so disguise bugs. It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed, so even if the callExceptionReporter fuunction tries to log and quit, it may not even get to that point (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database). May I'm more confused than I realise, but I don't agree with some of that. Please would other folks comment. I understand that there are many low level Exceptions we don't want to swallow. My commonExceptionHandler() function could reasonably rethrow those. This seems consistent with this answer to a related question. Which does say "Depending on your context it can be acceptable to use catch(...), providing the exception is re-thrown." So I conclude using catch (Exception ) is not always evil, silently swallowing certain exceptions is. The phrase "Until .NET 4 it is very bad to Catch Exception" What changes in .NET 4? IS this a reference to AggregateException, which may give us some new things to do with exceptions we catch, but I don't think changes the fundamental "don't swallow" rule. The next phrase really bothers be. Can this be right? It also means that in the event of some kind of corruption that triggers such an exception, any open finally blocks on the stack will be executed (the finally blocks may throw again, or cause more corruption, or delete something important from the disk or database) My understanding is that if some low level code had lowLevelMethod() { try { lowestLevelMethod(); } finally { some really important stuff } } and in my code I call lowLevel(); try { lowLevel() } catch (Exception e) { exception handling and maybe rethrowing } Whether or not I catch Exception this has no effect whatever on the excution of the finally block. By the time we leave lowLevelMethod() the finally has already run. If the finally is going to do any of the bad things, such as corrupt my disk, then it will do so. My catching the Exception made no difference. If It reaches my Exception block I need to do the right thing, but I can't be the cause of dmis-executing finallys

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  • Python: How best to parse a simple grammar?

    - by Rosarch
    Ok, so I've asked a bunch of smaller questions about this project, but I still don't have much confidence in the designs I'm coming up with, so I'm going to ask a question on a broader scale. I am parsing pre-requisite descriptions for a course catalog. The descriptions almost always follow a certain form, which makes me think I can parse most of them. From the text, I would like to generate a graph of course pre-requisite relationships. (That part will be easy, after I have parsed the data.) Some sample inputs and outputs: "CS 2110" => ("CS", 2110) # 0 "CS 2110 and INFO 3300" => [("CS", 2110), ("INFO", 3300)] # 1 "CS 2110, INFO 3300" => [("CS", 2110), ("INFO", 3300)] # 1 "CS 2110, 3300, 3140" => [("CS", 2110), ("CS", 3300), ("CS", 3140)] # 1 "CS 2110 or INFO 3300" => [[("CS", 2110)], [("INFO", 3300)]] # 2 "MATH 2210, 2230, 2310, or 2940" => [[("MATH", 2210), ("MATH", 2230), ("MATH", 2310)], [("MATH", 2940)]] # 3 If the entire description is just a course, it is output directly. If the courses are conjoined ("and"), they are all output in the same list If the course are disjoined ("or"), they are in separate lists Here, we have both "and" and "or". One caveat that makes it easier: it appears that the nesting of "and"/"or" phrases is never greater than as shown in example 3. What is the best way to do this? I started with PLY, but I couldn't figure out how to resolve the reduce/reduce conflicts. The advantage of PLY is that it's easy to manipulate what each parse rule generates: def p_course(p): 'course : DEPT_CODE COURSE_NUMBER' p[0] = (p[1], int(p[2])) With PyParse, it's less clear how to modify the output of parseString(). I was considering building upon @Alex Martelli's idea of keeping state in an object and building up the output from that, but I'm not sure exactly how that is best done. def addCourse(self, str, location, tokens): self.result.append((tokens[0][0], tokens[0][1])) def makeCourseList(self, str, location, tokens): dept = tokens[0][0] new_tokens = [(dept, tokens[0][1])] new_tokens.extend((dept, tok) for tok in tokens[1:]) self.result.append(new_tokens) For instance, to handle "or" cases: def __init__(self): self.result = [] # ... self.statement = (course_data + Optional(OR_CONJ + course_data)).setParseAction(self.disjunctionCourses) def disjunctionCourses(self, str, location, tokens): if len(tokens) == 1: return tokens print "disjunction tokens: %s" % tokens How does disjunctionCourses() know which smaller phrases to disjoin? All it gets is tokens, but what's been parsed so far is stored in result, so how can the function tell which data in result corresponds to which elements of token? I guess I could search through the tokens, then find an element of result with the same data, but that feel convoluted... What's a better way to approach this problem?

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  • Trying to run multiple HTTP requests in parallel, but being limited by Windows (registry)

    - by Nailuj
    I'm developing an application (winforms C# .NET 4.0) where I access a lookup functionality from a 3rd party through a simple HTTP request. I call an url with a parameter, and in return I get a small string with the result of the lookup. Simple enough. The challenge is however, that I have to do lots of these lookups (a couple of thousands), and I would like to limit the time needed. Therefore I would like to run requests in parallel (say 10-20). I use a ThreadPool to do this, and the short version of my code looks like this: public void startAsyncLookup(Action<LookupResult> returnLookupResult) { this.returnLookupResult = returnLookupResult; foreach (string number in numbersToLookup) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(lookupNumber, number); } } public void lookupNumber(Object threadContext) { string numberToLookup = (string)threadContext; string url = @"http://some.url.com/?number=" + numberToLookup; WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Stream responseData = webClient.OpenRead(url); LookupResult lookupResult = parseLookupResult(responseData); returnLookupResult(lookupResult); } I fill up numbersToLookup (a List<String>) from another place, call startAsyncLookup and provide it with a call-back function returnLookupResult to return each result. This works, but I found that I'm not getting the throughput I want. Initially I thought it might be the 3rd party having a poor system on their end, but I excluded this by trying to run the same code from two different machines at the same time. Each of the two took as long as one did alone, so I could rule out that one. A colleague then tipped me that this might be a limitation in Windows. I googled a bit, and found amongst others this post saying that by default Windows limits the number of simultaneous request to the same web server to 4 for HTTP 1.0 and to 2 for HTTP 1.1 (for HTTP 1.1 this is actually according to the specification (RFC2068)). The same post referred to above also provided a way to increase these limits. By adding two registry values to [HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings] (MaxConnectionsPerServer and MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server), I could control this myself. So, I tried this (sat both to 20), restarted my computer, and tried to run my program again. Sadly though, it didn't seem to help any. I also kept an eye on the Resource Monitor (see screen shot) while running my batch lookup, and I noticed that my application (the one with the title blacked out) still only was using two TCP connections. So, the question is, why isn't this working? Is the post I linked to using the wrong registry values? Is this perhaps not possible to "hack" in Windows any longer (I'm on Windows 7)? Any ideas would be highly appreciated :) And just in case anyone should wonder, I have also tried with different settings for MaxThreads on ThreadPool (everyting from 10 to 100), and this didn't seem to affect my throughput at all, so the problem shouldn't be there either.

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • How would you implement this "WorkerChain" functionality in .NET?

    - by Dan Tao
    Sorry for the vague question title -- not sure how to encapsulate what I'm asking below succinctly. (If someone with editing privileges can think of a more descriptive title, feel free to change it.) The behavior I need is this. I am envisioning a worker class that accepts a single delegate task in its constructor (for simplicity, I would make it immutable -- no more tasks can be added after instantiation). I'll call this task T. The class should have a simple method, something like GetToWork, that will exhibit this behavior: If the worker is not currently running T, then it will start doing so right now. If the worker is currently running T, then once it is finished, it will start T again immediately. GetToWork can be called any number of times while the worker is running T; the simple rule is that, during any execution of T, if GetToWork was called at least once, T will run again upon completion (and then if GetToWork is called while T is running that time, it will repeat itself again, etc.). Now, this is pretty straightforward with a boolean switch. But this class needs to be thread-safe, by which I mean, steps 1 and 2 above need to comprise atomic operations (at least I think they do). There is an added layer of complexity. I have need of a "worker chain" class that will consist of many of these workers linked together. As soon as the first worker completes, it essentially calls GetToWork on the worker after it; meanwhile, if its own GetToWork has been called, it restarts itself as well. Logically calling GetToWork on the chain is essentially the same as calling GetToWork on the first worker in the chain (I would fully intend that the chain's workers not be publicly accessible). One way to imagine how this hypothetical "worker chain" would behave is by comparing it to a team in a relay race. Suppose there are four runners, W1 through W4, and let the chain be called C. If I call C.StartWork(), what should happen is this: If W1 is at his starting point (i.e., doing nothing), he will start running towards W2. If W1 is already running towards W2 (i.e., executing his task), then once he reaches W2, he will signal to W2 to get started, immediately return to his starting point and, since StartWork has been called, start running towards W2 again. When W1 reaches W2's starting point, he'll immediately return to his own starting point. If W2 is just sitting around, he'll start running immediately towards W3. If W2 is already off running towards W3, then W2 will simply go again once he's reached W3 and returned to his starting point. The above is probably a little convoluted and written out poorly. But hopefully you get the basic idea. Obviously, these workers will be running on their own threads. Also, I guess it's possible this functionality already exists somewhere? If that's the case, definitely let me know!

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  • BufferedReader no longer buffering after a while?

    - by BobTurbo
    Sorry I can't post code but I have a bufferedreader with 50000000 bytes set as the buffer size. It works as you would expect for half an hour, the HDD light flashing every two minutes or so, reading in the big chunk of data, and then going quiet again as the CPU processes it. But after about half an hour (this is a very big file), the HDD starts thrashing as if it is reading one byte at a time. It is still in the same loop and I think I checked free ram to rule out swapping (heap size is default). Probably won't get any helpful answers, but worth a try. OK I have changed heap size to 768mb and still nothing. There is plenty of free memory and java.exe is only using about 300mb. Now I have profiled it and heap stays at about 200MB, well below what is available. CPU stays at 50%. Yet the HDD starts thrashing like crazy. I have.. no idea. I am going to rewrite the whole thing in c#, that is my solution. Here is the code (it is just a throw-away script, not pretty): BufferedReader s = null; HashMap<String, Integer> allWords = new HashMap<String, Integer>(); HashSet<String> pageWords = new HashSet<String>(); long[] pageCount = new long[78592]; long pages = 0; Scanner wordFile = new Scanner(new BufferedReader(new FileReader("allWords.txt"))); while (wordFile.hasNext()) { allWords.put(wordFile.next(), Integer.parseInt(wordFile.next())); } s = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("wikipedia/enwiki-latest-pages-articles.xml"), 50000000); StringBuilder words = new StringBuilder(); String nextLine = null; while ((nextLine = s.readLine()) != null) { if (a.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (b.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (c.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (d.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { nextLine = s.readLine(); if (e.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { if (f.matcher(s.readLine()).matches()) { pageWords.addAll(Arrays.asList(words.toString().toLowerCase().split("[^a-zA-Z]"))); words.setLength(0); pages++; for (String word : pageWords) { if (allWords.containsKey(word)) { pageCount[allWords.get(word)]++; } else if (!word.isEmpty() && allWords.containsKey(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))) { pageCount[allWords.get(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))]++; } } pageWords.clear(); } } } else if (g.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } words.append(nextLine); words.append(" "); }

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  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

    - by jim
    I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • Copy constructor bug

    - by user168715
    I'm writing a simple nD-vector class, but am encountering a strange bug. I've stripped out the class to the bare minimum that still reproduces the bug: #include <iostream> using namespace std; template<unsigned int size> class nvector { public: nvector() {data_ = new double[size];} ~nvector() {delete[] data_;} template<unsigned int size2> nvector(const nvector<size2> &other) { data_ = new double[size]; int i=0; for(; i<size && i < size2; i++) data_[i] = other[i]; for(; i<size; i++) data_[i] = 0; } double &operator[](int i) {return data_[i];} const double&operator[](int i) const {return data_[i];} private: const nvector<size> &operator=(const nvector<size> &other); //Intentionally unimplemented for now double *data_; }; int main() { nvector<2> vector2d; vector2d[0] = 1; vector2d[1] = 2; nvector<3> vector3d(vector2d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << vector3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 nvector<3> other3d(vector3d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << other3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 } //Segfault??? On the surface this seems to work fine, and both tests print out the correct values. However, at the end of main the program crashes with a segfault, which I've traced to nvector's destructor. At first I thought the (incorrect) default assignment operator was somehow being called, which is why I added the (currently) unimplemented explicit assignment operator to rule this possibility out. So my copy constructor must be buggy, but I'm having one of those days where I'm staring at extremely simple code and just can't see it. Do you guys have any ideas?

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  • How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

    - by Chris
    I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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  • Technical non-terminating condition in a loop

    - by Snarfblam
    Most of us know that a loop should not have a non-terminating condition. For example, this C# loop has a non-terminating condition: any even value of i. This is an obvious logic error. void CountByTwosStartingAt(byte i) { // If i is even, it never exceeds 254 for(; i < 255; i += 2) { Console.WriteLine(i); } } Sometimes there are edge cases that are extremely unlikeley, but technically constitute non-exiting conditions (stack overflows and out-of-memory errors aside). Suppose you have a function that counts the number of sequential zeros in a stream: int CountZeros(Stream s) { int total = 0; while(s.ReadByte() == 0) total++; return total; } Now, suppose you feed it this thing: class InfiniteEmptyStream:Stream { // ... Other members ... public override int Read(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { Array.Clear(buffer, offset, count); // Output zeros return count; // Never returns -1 (end of stream) } } Or more realistically, maybe a stream that returns data from external hardware, which in certain cases might return lots of zeros (such as a game controller sitting on your desk). Either way we have an infinite loop. This particular non-terminating condition stands out, but sometimes they don't. A completely real-world example as in an app I'm writing. An endless stream of zeros will be deserialized into infinite "empty" objects (until the collection class or GC throws an exception because I've exceeded two billion items). But this would be a completely unexpected circumstance (considering my data source). How important is it to have absolutely no non-terminating conditions? How much does this affect "robustness?" Does it matter if they are only "theoretically" non-terminating (is it okay if an exception represents an implicit terminating condition)? Does it matter whether the app is commercial? If it is publicly distributed? Does it matter if the problematic code is in no way accessible through a public interface/API? Edit: One of the primary concerns I have is unforseen logic errors that can create the non-terminating condition. If, as a rule, you ensure there are no non-terminating conditions, you can identify or handle these logic errors more gracefully, but is it worth it? And when? This is a concern orthogonal to trust.

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  • Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

    - by Arne
    Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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  • Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

    - by Axeman
    In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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  • IE8 ignores absolute positioning and margin:auto

    - by tuff
    I have a lightbox-style div with scrolling content that I am trying to restrict to a reasonable size within the viewport. I also want this div to be horizontally centered. This is all easy in Fx/Chrome/IE9. My problem is that IE8 ignores the absolute positioning which I use to size the content, and the rule margin: 0 auto which I use to horizontally center the lightbox. 1) Why? 2) What are my options for workarounds? EDIT: The centering issue is fixed by setting text-align:center on the parent element, but I have no idea why that works since the element I want to center is not inline. Still stuck on the absolute positioning stuff. HTML: <div class="bg"> <div class="a"> <div class="aa">titlebar</div> <div class="b"> <!-- many lines of content here --> </div> </div> </div> CSS: body { overflow: hidden; height: 100%; margin: 0; padding: 0; } /* IE8 needs ruleset above */ .bg { background: #333; position: fixed; top: 0; right: 0; bottom: 0; left: 0; height: 100%; /* needed in IE8 or the bg will only be as tall as the lightbox */ } .a { background: #eee; border: 3px solid #000; height: 80%; max-height: 800px; min-height: 200px; margin: 0 auto; position: relative; width: 80%; min-width: 200px; max-width: 800px; } .aa { background: lightblue; height: 28px; line-height: 28px; text-align: center; } .b { background: coral; overflow: auto; padding: 20px; position: absolute; top: 30px; right: 0; bottom: 0; left: 0; } Here's a demo of the problem: http://jsbin.com/urikoj/1/edit

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  • Creating array from two arrays

    - by binoculars
    I'm having troubles trying to create a certain array. Basicly, I have an array like this: [0] => Array ( [id] => 12341241 [type] => "Blue" ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 52454235 [type] => "Blue" ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 848437437 [type] => "Blue" ) [3] => Array ( [id] => 387372723 [type] => "Blue" ) [4] => Array ( [id] => 73732623 [type] => "Blue" ) ... Next, I have an array like this: [0] => Array ( [id] => 34141 [type] => "Red" ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 253532 [type] => "Red" ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 94274 [type] => "Red" ) I want to construct an array, which is a combination of the two above, using this rule: after 3 Blues, there must be a Red: Blue1 Blue2 Blue3 Red1 Blue4 Blue5 Blue6 Red2 Blue7 Blue8 Blue9 Red3 Note that the their can be more Red's than Blue's, but also more Blue's than Red's. If the Red's run out, it should begin with the first one again. Example: let's say there are only two Red's: Blue1 Blue2 Blue3 Red1 Blue4 Blue5 Blue6 Red2 Blue7 Blue8 Blue9 Red1 ... ... If the Blue's run out, the Red's should append until they run out too. Example: let's say there are 5 Blue's, and 5 Red's: Blue1 Blue2 Blue3 Red1 Blue4 Blue5 Red2 Red3 Red4 Red5 Note: the arrays come from mysql-fetches. Maybe it's better to fetch them while building the new array? Anyway, the while-loops got to me, I can't figure it out... Any help is much appreciated!

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  • Is it thread safe to read a form controls value (but not change it) without using Invoke/BeginInvoke from another thread

    - by goku_da_master
    I know you can read a gui control from a worker thread without using Invoke/BeginInvoke because my app is doing it now. The cross thread exception error is not being thrown and my System.Timers.Timer thread is able to read gui control values just fine (unlike this guy: can a worker thread read a control in the GUI?) Question 1: Given the cardinal rule of threads, should I be using Invoke/BeginInvoke to read form control values? And does this make it more thread-safe? The background to this question stems from a problem my app is having. It seems to randomly corrupt form controls another thread is referencing. (see question 2) Question 2: I have a second thread that needs to update form control values so I Invoke/BeginInvoke to update those values. Well this same thread needs a reference to those controls so it can update them. It holds a list of these controls (say DataGridViewRow objects). Sometimes (not always), the DataGridViewRow reference gets "corrupt". What I mean by corrupt, is the reference is still valid, but some of the DataGridViewRow properties are null (ex: row.Cells). Is this caused by question 1 or can you give me any tips on why this might be happening? Here's some code (the last line has the problem): public partial class MyForm : Form { void Timer_Elapsed(object sender) { // we're on a new thread (this function gets called every few seconds) UpdateUiHelper updateUiHelper = new UpdateUiHelper(this); foreach (DataGridViewRow row in dataGridView1.Rows) { object[] values = GetValuesFromDb(); updateUiHelper.UpdateRowValues(row, values[0]); } // .. do other work here updateUiHelper.UpdateUi(); } } public class UpdateUiHelper { private readonly Form _form; private Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object> _rows; private delegate void RowDelegate(DataGridViewRow row); private readonly object _lockObject = new object(); public UpdateUiHelper(Form form) { _form = form; _rows = new Dictionary<DataGridViewRow, object>(); } public void UpdateRowValues(DataGridViewRow row, object value) { if (_rows.ContainsKey(row)) _rows[row] = value; else { lock (_lockObject) { _rows.Add(row, value); } } } public void UpdateUi() { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in _rows.Keys) { SetRowValueThreadSafe(row); } } private void SetRowValueThreadSafe(DataGridViewRow row) { if (_form.InvokeRequired) { _form.Invoke(new RowDelegate(SetRowValueThreadSafe), new object[] { row }); return; } // now we're on the UI thread object newValue = _rows[row]; row.Cells[0].Value = newValue; // randomly errors here with NullReferenceException, but row is never null! }

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