Search Results

Search found 14311 results on 573 pages for 'stan note'.

Page 447/573 | < Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >

• Regular expression test can't decide between true and false (JavaScript)

  - by nw

  I get this behavior in both Chrome (Developer Tools) and Firefox (Firebug). Note the regex test returns alternating true/false values: > var re = /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi; undefined > re /.*?\\bbl.*\\bgr.*/gi > re.test("Blue-Green"); true > re.test("Blue-Green"); false > re.test("Blue-Green"); true > re.test("Blue-Green"); false However, testing the same regex as a literal: > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true > /.*?\bbl.*\bgr.*/gi.test("Blue-Green"); true I can't explain this and it's making debugging very difficult. Can anyone explain this behavior?

  Read the article

• AngularJS: Using Shared Service(with $resource) to share data between controllers, but how to define callback functions?

  - by shaunlim

  Note: I also posted this question on the AngularJS mailing list here: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/angular/UC8_pZsdn2U Hi All, I'm building my first AngularJS app and am not very familiar with Javascript to begin with so any guidance will be much appreciated :) My App has two controllers, ClientController and CountryController. In CountryController, I'm retrieving a list of countries from a CountryService that uses the $resource object. This works fine, but I want to be able to share the list of countries with the ClientController. After some research, I read that I should use the CountryService to store the data and inject that service into both controllers. This was the code I had before: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { return $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/client.json', {port: ':8080'}); }); CountryController: //Get list of countries //inherently async query using deferred promise $scope.countries = CountryService.query(function(result){ //preselected first entry as default $scope.selected.country = $scope.countries[0]; }); And after my changes, they look like this: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { var countryService = {}; var data; var resource = $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/country.json', {port: ':8080'}); var countries = function() { data = resource.query(); return data; } return { getCountries: function() { if(data) { console.log("returning cached data"); return data; } else { console.log("getting countries from server"); return countries(); } } }; }); CountryController: $scope.countries = CountryService.getCountries(function(result){ console.log("i need a callback function here..."); }); The problem is that I used to be able to use the callback function in $resource.query() to preselect a default selection, but now that I've moved the query() call to within my CountryService, I seemed to have lost what. What's the best way to go about solving this problem? Thanks for your help, Shaun

  Read the article

• Which CSS identifier is used for the selected tab in tabbed tables in browsers other than IE?

  - by David Navarre

  When you have a table on a form in Notes, you can choose to display only one row at a time (via the Special Table Row Display parameter on the Table Rows tab of the Table properties). In a Notes document displayed using Internet Explorer that contains such a table, a row is displayed with a cell for each "tab". The TD that serves as the tab for the selected "Notes table row" is assigned <td class="dominoSelTopTab">, while the other tabs get <td class="dominoTopTab">. However, when using other browsers, it's not nearly as simple. In Firefox, each "tab" ends up as a single-celled-single-row-table within the table with very little to identify it. <td><table border="1" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td><div align="center"><b>Tab 2</b></div></td></tr> </table></td> A non-selected tab would show as follows: <td><table border="1" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td><div align="center"><a name="1." href="/Projects/MyCSS.nsf/0c3b9489476440c085257a62006d97d6/d482a1767a4af77f85257a62006db064?OpenDocument&amp;TableRow=1.0#1." target="_self">Tab 1</a></div></td></tr> </table></td> So, the question is, how do I identify the selected tabs and the non-selected tabs when not using IE? Note: For those who are not Notes developers, the HTML is auto-generated from the visual design as laid out in the Notes designer client. I would replace it all with manual HTML, except there is so much of it that doing so would consume far too much time.

  Read the article

• Periodic GPU performance problem

  - by Peter Lillevold

  Hi folks! I have a WinForms application that uses XNA to animate 3D models in a control. The app have been doing just fine for months but recently I've started to experience periodic pauses in the animation. Setting out to investigate what is going on I have established these facts: It (currently) happens on my machine only Removing everything from my render loop does not improve the problem In 2. I didn't actually remove everything, I limited my loop to set the viewport on my GraphicsDevice and then do a GraphicsDevice.Present. Trying to dig further I fired up PIX to capture some statistics. Screenshots of two PIX runs can be viewed here (Run6) and here (Run14). Run6 is using my original render loop and Run14 is using the bare-bones Present loop. PIX tells me that the GPU is periodically doing something, and I assume this is causing the pauses. What could be the cause of this? Or how do I go about finding out what the GPU is actually doing? Note: I'm using XNA 3.1 on a Windows 7 x64 dual-core machine with 8GB RAM. Note2: also posted this question on the XNA Creators forums here.

  Read the article

• Can't delete record via the datacontext it was retrieved from

  - by Antilogic

  I just upgraded one of my application's methods to use compiled queries (not sure if this is relevant). Now I'm getting contradicting error messages when I run the code. This is my method: MyClass existing = Queries.MyStaticCompiledQuery(MyRequestScopedDataContext, param1, param2).SingleOrDefault(); if (existing != null) { MyRequestScopedDataContext.MyClasses.DeleteOnSubmit(existing); } When I run it I get this message: Cannot remove an entity that has not been attached. Note that the compiled query and the DeleteOnSubmit reference the same DataContext. Still I figured I'd humor the application and add an attach command before the DeleteOnSubmit, like so: MyClass existing = Queries.MyStaticCompiledQuery(MyRequestScopedDataContext, param1, param2).SingleOrDefault(); if (existing != null) { MyRequestScopedDataContext.MyClasses.Attach(existing); MyRequestScopedDataContext.MyClasses.DeleteOnSubmit(existing); } BUT... When I run this code, I get a completely different contradictory error message: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. I'm at a complete loss... Does anyone else have some insight as to why I can't delete a record via the same DataContext I retrieved it from?

  Read the article

• Where are possible locations of queueing/buffering delays in Linux multicast?

  - by Matt

  We make heavy use of multicasting messaging across many Linux servers on a LAN. We are seeing a lot of delays. We basically send an enormous number of small packages. We are more concerned with latency than throughput. The machines are all modern, multi-core (at least four, generally eight, 16 if you count hyperthreading) machines, always with a load of 2.0 or less, usually with a load less than 1.0. The networking hardware is also under 50% capacity. The delays we see look like queueing delays: the packets will quickly start increasing in latency, until it looks like they jam up, then return back to normal. The messaging structure is basically this: in the "sending thread", pull messages from a queue, add a timestamp (using gettimeofday()), then call send(). The receiving program receives the message, timestamps the receive time, and pushes it in a queue. In a separate thread, the queue is processed, analyzing the difference between sending and receiving timestamps. (Note that our internal queues are not part of the problem, since the timestamps are added outside of our internal queuing.) We don't really know where to start looking for an answer to this problem. We're not familiar with Linux internals. Our suspicion is that the kernel is queuing or buffering the packets, either on the send side or the receive side (or both). But we don't know how to track this down and trace it. For what it's worth, we're using CentOS 4.x (RHEL kernel 2.6.9).

  Read the article

• What are some arguments to support the position that the Dojo JavasScript library is secure, accessi

  - by LES2

  We have developed a small web application for a client. We decided on the Dojo framework to develop the app (requirements included were full i18n and a11y). Originally, the web app we developed was to be a "prototype", but we made the prototype production quality anyway, just in case. It turns out that the app we developed (or a variant of it) is going to production (many months hence), but it's so awesome that the enterprise architecture group is a little afraid. 508c compliant is a concern, as is security for this group. I now need to justify the use of Dojo to this architecture group, explicitly making the case that Dojo does not pose a security risk and that Dojo will not hurt accessibility (and that Dojo is there to help meet core requirements). Note: the web app currently requires JavaScript to be turned on and a stylesheet to work. We use a relatively minor subset of Dojo: of course, dojo core, and dijit.form.Form, ValidationTextBox and a few others. We do use dojox.grid.DataGrid (but no drag N drop or editable cells, which are not fully a11y). I have done some research of my own, of course, but I any information or advice you have would be most helpful. Regards, LES2

  Read the article

• Create lambda action from function expression

  - by Martin Robins

  It is relatively easy to create a lambda function that will return the value of a property from an object, even including deep properties... Func<Category, string> getCategoryName = new Func<Category, string>(c => c.Name); and this can be called as follows... string categoryName = getCategoryName(this.category); But, given only the resulting function above (or the expression originally used to create the function), can anybody provide an easy way to create the opposing action... Action<Category, string> setCategoryName = new Action<Category, string>((c, s) => c.Name = s); ...that will enable the same property value to be set as follows? setCategoryName(this.category, ""); Note that I am looking for a way to create the action programatically from the function or expression - I hope that I have shown that I already know how to create it manually. I am open to answers that work in both .net 3.5 and 4.0. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How is the C++ synthesized move constructor affected by volatile and virtual members?

  - by user1827766

  Look at the following code: struct node { node(); //node(const node&); //#1 //node(node&&); //#2 virtual //#3 ~node (); node* volatile //#4 next; }; main() { node m(node()); //#5 node n=node(); //#6 } When compiled with gcc-4.6.1 it produces the following error: g++ -g --std=c++0x -c -o node.o node.cc node.cc: In constructor node::node(node&&): node.cc:3:8: error: expression node::next has side-effects node.cc: In function int main(): node.cc:18:14: note: synthesized method node::node(node&&) first required here As I understand the compiler fails to create default move or copy constructor on line #6, if I uncomment either line #1 or #2 it compiles fine, that is clear. The code compiles fine without c++0x option, so the error is related to default move constructor. However, what in the node class prevents default move constructor to be created? If I comment any of the lines #3 or #4 (i.e. make the destructor non-virtual or make data member non-volatile) it compiles again, so is it the combination of these two makes it not to compile? Another puzzle, line #5 does not cause an compilation error, what is different from line #6? Is it all specific for gcc? or gcc-4.6.1?

  Read the article

• Getting the value of an input inside a td for each row with jQuery

  - by Anne

  I am still having so many problems with this: function padTitles() { $('tr').each(function () { var tds = $(this).find('input'), text = tds.filter('[id^="TempRowKey_"]').val(), tdToPad = tds.filter('[id^="title_"]'), pad; if (/0\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 10; else if (/\.0$/.test(text)) pad = 35; else pad = 60; tdToPad.css('paddingLeft', pad); }); } Note: here is what I was using before. This worked when the value was not inside an input: var tds = $(this).find('td'), text = tds.filter('[id^="refKey_"]').text(), It is supposed to get the Value of the Inputs with id's that start with TempRowKey_ and then use these for padding. But the code does nothing. Here is my HTML: <tr id="row_1"> <td id="tempRowKey_1" > <input type="text" size="10" value="1.0.0" class="updatable" id="TempRowKey_1"> </td> <td id="title_1"> <input id="Title_1" class="updatable" type="text" value="zxxx" size="100" name="item.Title"> </td>. <td ... </tr> Is there some way I can test this. I can't get access to anything inside the jQuery block?

  Read the article

• Access-specifiers are not foolproof?

  - by Nawaz

  If I've a class like this, class Sample { private: int X; }; Then we cannot access X from outside, so this is illegal, Sample s; s.X = 10; // error - private access But we can make it accessible without editing the class! All we need to do is this, #define private public //note this define! class Sample { private: int X; }; //outside code Sample s; s.X = 10; //no error! Working code at ideone : http://www.ideone.com/FaGpZ That means, we can change the access-specifiers by defining such macros just before the class definition, or before #include <headerfile.h>, #define public private //make public private //or #define protected private //make protected private //or #define so on Isn't it a problem with C++ (Macros/access-specifiers/whatever)? Anyway, the point of this topic is: Using macros, we can easily violate encapsulation. Access-specifiers are not foolproof! Am I right?

  Read the article

• IE6: Height "1em minus 1px"

  - by chris_l

  I need a div with a height of exactly 1em minus 1px. This can be achieved in most browsers like this: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <style type="text/css"> .helper { /* background-color: black; */ position: absolute; top: 5em; left: 5em; width: 2em; height: 1em; } .target { background-color: #89f; position: absolute; top: 0; bottom: 1px; width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="helper"> <div class="target"></div> </div> </body> </html> The "target" div has the desired height. The problem is, that this doesn't work in IE6, because it ignores the bottom attribute, when top is set (a well known problem). Is there a workaround for IE6 (maybe with multiple nested divs, with borders/paddings/margins/whatever), or will JavaScript be the only solution? Please note, that I can't use Quirks Mode.

  Read the article

• Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

  - by Mike Monkiewicz

  So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• How to post only a specific ASCX partial instead of the whole page

  - by Hallaghan

  I've got an ASPX page rendering a search ascx page which in turn will fill a grid on the main ASPX page. Aside that, I've also got an ascx page which uploads files, like this: <form method="post" action="<%= Url.Action("UploadFile") %>" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <fieldset> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <%=Html.ButtonSubmit("Upload") %> </fieldset></form> Here's the problem: imagine I have searched for a single entry to be displayed on the grid. The grid displays this single entry and after wards, I upload a file and press the button "Upload". The whole page gets posted and the content in the grid is lost, now displaying all the results available. What could I do to prevent this from happening, maintaining the grid state (we're not using ViewState) or otherwise not posting back the whole page but only the ascx with the file upload? Note: I'm new to MVC.

  Read the article

• ActiveRecord Validations for Models with has_many, belongs_to associations and STI

  - by keruilin

  I have four models: User Award Badge GameWeek The associations are as follows: User has many awards. Award belongs to user. Badge has many awards. Award belongs to badge. User has many game_weeks. GameWeek belongs to user. GameWeek has many awards. Award belongs to game_week. Thus, user_id, badge_id and game_week_id are foreign keys in awards table. Badge implements an STI model. Let's just say it has the following subclasses: BadgeA and BadgeB. Some rules to note: The game_week_id fk can be nil for BadgeA, but can't be nil for BadgeB. Here are my questions: For BadgeA, how do I write a validation that it can only be awarded one time? That is, the user can't have more than one -- ever. For BadgeB, how do I write a validation that it can only be awarded one time per game week?

  Read the article

• How to transform a production to LL(1) grammar for a list separated by a semicolon?

  - by Subb

  Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

  Read the article

• Adding li element only if it not already there?

  - by Legend

  I am constructing an <li> element like this: var element = $("<li></li>") .html(mHTML) .attr('id', "elemid"); I am trying to add this element to a <ul> element only if it doesn't already exist. Any ideas on how to do this? Am I supposed to use contains() to see if the ul element contain the html and then decide? For instance, <ul id="elemul"> <li id="elemli1">Element 1</li> <li id="elemli2">Element 2</li> <li id="elemli3">Element 3</li> </ul> If I try adding Element 1, it should not add it. What should I do if its a longer string (not really long but about 150 characters). Note: I cannot rely on IDs to determine the uniqueness. i.e. I might end up forming something like: <li id="elemli3">Element 1</li> Do I go about using hashmaps?

  Read the article

• Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

  - by Avatar_Squadron

  Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

  Read the article

• What are the interets of synthetic methods?

  - by romaintaz

  Problem One friend suggested an interesting problem. Given the following code: public class OuterClass { private String message = "Hello World"; private class InnerClass { private String getMessage() { return message; } } } From an external class, how may I print the message variable content? Of course, changing the accessibility of methods or fields is not allowed. (the source here, but it is a french blog) Solution The code to solve this problem is the following: try { Method m = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethod("access$000", OuterClass.class); OuterClass outerClass = new OuterClass(); System.out.println(m.invoke(outerClass, outerClass)); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Note that the access$000 method name is not really standard (even if this format is the one that is strongly recommanded), and some JVM will name this method access$0. Thus, a better solution is to check for synthetic methods: Method method = null; int i = 0; while ((method == null) && (i < OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods().length)) { if (OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i].isSynthetic()) { method = OuterClass.class.getDeclaredMethods()[i]; } i++; } if (method != null) { try { System.out.println(method.invoke(null, new OuterClass())); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } So the interesting point in this problem is to highlight the use of synthetic methods. With these methods, I can access a private field as it was done in the solution. Of course, I need to use reflection, and I think that the use of this kind of thing can be quite dangerous... Question What is the interest - for me, as a developer - of a synthetic method? What can be a good situation where using the synthetic can be useful?

  Read the article

• Android newbie installing Eclipse, having issues....

  - by Jeff

  I am a web developer, new to app development and Java/Android. I am about to follow some tutorials to get started learning but I'm running into a wall. The Android dev site says the recommended way to build Android apps is in Java using the Eclipse plug in. So I downloaded Eclipse Classic and unzipped it on to get this error: "A Java Runtime Environment (JRE) or Java Development Kit (JDK) must be available in order to run Eclipse. No Java virtual machine was found after searching the following locations: /Users//Desktop/eclipse/Eclipse.app/Contents/MacOS/jre/bin/java java in your current PATH" Any idea what the issue is and how I can fix it? Again, newbie to java, jre, android, so I apologize if this question has already been asked. In my research I've discovered that most of the posts or solutions I've found are tough for me to follow. There's always a few unclear items that are probably prohibiting me from getting the answer I need. So I'm hoping someone can walk me through installing or configuring whatever I need to regarding Java so I can continue installing Eclipse and begin learning. I should probably note that I'm on Mac OSX 10.6.6 Snow Leopard. Please let me know if you need any other info. Thanks so much in advance for any and all help!!!

  Read the article

• thrust::unique_by_key eating up last element

  - by Programmer

  Please consider the below simple code: thrust::device_vector<int> positions(6); thrust::sequence(positions.begin(), positions.end()); thrust::pair<thrust::device_vector<int>::iterator, thrust::device_vector<int>::iterator > end; //copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc contains: 0,1,1,1,1,3 end.first = copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc.begin(); end.second = positions.begin(); for(int i =0 ; i < numDocs; i++){ end= thrust::unique_by_key(end.first, end.first + 3,end.second); } int length = end.first - copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc.begin() ; cout<<"the value of end -s is: "<<length; for(int i =0 ; i< length ; i++){ cout<<copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc[i]; } I expected the output to be 0,1,1,3 of this code; however, the output is 0,1,1. Can anyone let me know what I am missing? Note: the contents of copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc is 0,1,1,1,1,3 . Also the type of copyListOfNgramCounteachdoc is thrust::device_vector<int>.

  Read the article

• typedef a functions prototype

  - by bitmask

  I have a series of functions with the same prototype, say int func1(int a, int b) { // ... } int func2(int a, int b) { // ... } // ... Now, I want to simplify their definition and declaration. Of course I could use a macro like that: #define SP_FUNC(name) int name(int a, int b) But I'd like to keep it in C, so I tried to use the storage specifier typedef for this: typedef int SpFunc(int a, int b); This seems to work fine for the declaration: SpFunc func1; // compiles but not for the definition: SpFunc func1 { // ... } which gives me the following error: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '{' token Is there a way to do this correctly or is it impossible? To my understanding of C this should work, but it doesn't. Why? Note, gcc understands what I am trying to do, because, if I write SpFunc func1 = { /* ... */ } it tells me error: function 'func1' is initialized like a variable Which means that gcc understands that SpFunc is a function type.

  Read the article

• PHP: Extract direct sub directory from path string

  - by Nebs

  I need to extract the name of the direct sub directory from a full path string. For example, say we have: $str = "dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4/filename.ext"; $dir = "dir1/dir2"; Then the name of the sub-directory in the $str path relative to $dir would be "dir3". Note that $dir never has '/' at the ends. So the function should be: $subdir = getsubdir($str,$dir); echo $subdir; // Outputs "dir3" If $dir="dir1" then the output would be "dir2". If $dir="dir1/dir2/dir3/dir4" then the output would be "" (empty). If $dir="" then the output would be "dir1". Etc.. Currently this is what I have, and it works (as far as I've tested it). I'm just wondering if there's a simpler way since I find I'm using a lot of string functions. Maybe there's some magic regexp to do this in one line? (I'm not too good with regexp unfortunately). function getsubdir($str,$dir) { // Remove the filename $str = dirname($str); // Remove the $dir if(!empty($dir)){ $str = str_replace($dir,"",$str); } // Remove the leading '/' if there is one $si = stripos($str,"/"); if($si == 0){ $str = substr($str,1); } // Remove everything after the subdir (if there is anything) $lastpart = strchr($str,"/"); $str = str_replace($lastpart,"",$str); return $str; } As you can see, it's a little hacky in order to handle some odd cases (no '/' in input, empty input, etc). I hope all that made sense. Any help/suggestions are welcome.

  Read the article

• Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

  - by Pazinio

  I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Should a programmer have mastery over C++

  - by Yogendra

  I was wondering if it is necessary for programmers to have expertise on at least 1 programming language? Programming languages like C#, java, VB.Net etc change every year or two. Should a programmer have mastery over C++, which is a stable language and rarely undergoes changes? I am a C# developer and using it for about 7 years now, I still don't have mastery on it. EDIT I think my question is being misunderstood. I am not against changes or evolution. I love the new features and abstraction provided by languages such as C#, VB, Java. And I keep waiting for new features if it makes a programmers life easy. But this fact also make this languages very difficult to master. They are continuously evolving. Languages like C++ have slow evolution cycle. So given this scenario, Is it helpful to be master of C++? This is what my original question meant. Note:- Based on the answers by friends below, I have understood that languages and framework are tools for expressing the concepts. Also it might be a good idea to express the concepts in different programming languages.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >