Search Results

Search found 13797 results on 552 pages for 'structured exception'.

Page 449/552 | < Previous Page | 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 | Next Page >

MSBuild script fails but produces no errors

- by Kate

I have a MSBuild script that I am executing through TeamCity. One of the tasks that is runs is from Xheo DeploxLX CodeVeil which obfuscates some DLLs. The task I am using is called VeilProject. I have run the CodeVeil Project through the interface manually and it works correctly, so I think I can safely assume that the actual obfuscate process is ok. This task used to take around 40 minutes and the rest of the MSBuild file executed perfectly and finished without errors. For some reason this task is now taking 1hr 20 minutes or so to execute. Once the VeilProject task is finished the output from the task says it completely successfully, however the MSBuild script fails at this point. I have a task directly after the VeilProject task and it does not get outputted. Using diagnostic output from MSBUild I can see the following: My questions are: Would it be possible that the MSBuild script has timed out? Once the task has completed it is after a certain timeout period so it just fails? Why would the build fail with no errors and no warnings? [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Finished. [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Saving exception map [05:49:21]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds [05:49:22]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Done. [05:49:51]: MSBuild output: Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds (TaskId:8) Done. (TaskId:8) Done executing task "VeilProject" -- FAILED. (TaskId:8) Done building target "Obfuscate" in project "AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" -- FAILED.: (TargetId:12) Done Building Project "C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" (All target(s)) -- FAILED. Project Performance Summary: 6535484 ms C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx 1 calls 6535484 ms All 1 calls Target Performance Summary: 156 ms PreClean 1 calls 266 ms SetBuildVersionNumber 1 calls 2406 ms CopyFiles 1 calls 6532391 ms Obfuscate 1 calls Task Performance Summary: 16 ms MakeDir 2 calls 31 ms TeamCitySetBuildNumber 1 calls 31 ms Message 1 calls 62 ms RemoveDir 2 calls 234 ms GetAssemblyIdentity 1 calls 2406 ms Copy 1 calls 6528047 ms VeilProject 1 calls Build FAILED. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) Time Elapsed 01:48:57.46 [05:49:52]: Process exit code: 1 [05:49:55]: Build finished

Read the article
.NET Remoting Connecting to Wrong Host

- by Dark Falcon

I have an application I wrote which has been running well for 4 years. Yesterday they moved all their servers around and installed about 60 pending Windows updates, and now it is broken. The application makes use of remoting to update some information on another server (10.0.5.230), but when I try to create my remote object, I get the following exception: Note that it is trying to connect to 127.0.0.1, not the proper server. The server (10.0.5.230) is listening on port 9091 as it should. This same error is happening on all three terminal servers where this application is installed. Here is the code which registers the remoted object: public static void RegisterClient() { string lServer; RegistryKey lKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\\Shoreline Teleworks\\ShoreWare Client"); if (lKey == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Could not find Shoretel Call Manager"); object lVal = lKey.GetValue("Server"); if (lVal == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Shoretel Call Manager did not specify a server name"); lServer = lVal.ToString(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["port"] = 0; string s = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); props["name"] = s; ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(new TcpClientChannel(props, null), false); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(UpdateClient), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(Playback), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); } Here is the code which calls the remoted object: UpdateClient lUpdater = new UpdateClient(Settings.CurrentSettings.Extension.ToString()); lUpdater.SetAgentState(false); I have verified that the following URI is passed to RegisterActivatedClientType: "tcp://10.0.5.230:9091/" Why does this application try to connect to the wrong server?

Read the article
Displaying Plist data into UItableview

- by Christien

I have a plist with Dictionary and numbers of strings per dictionary.show into the url below.and this list of items is in thousands in the plist. I need to display these plist data into the UItableview . How to do this? My Code: - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { // get paths from root direcory NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"p.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; self.mySections=[valueArray copy]; NSLog(@"value array %@",self.mySections); } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return [self.mySections count]; } -(NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { NSString *key = [[self.mySections objectAtIndex:section]objectForKey:@"pass"]; return [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", key]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 5; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleValue1 reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; } // Configure the cell... NSUInteger section = [indexPath section]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; cell.textLabel.text = [[self.mySections objectAtIndex:row] objectForKey:@"title"]; cell.detailTextLabel.text=[[self.mySections objectAtIndex:section] objectForKey:[allKeys objectAtIndex:1]]; return cell; } Error is 2012-12-17 16:21:07.372 Project[2076:11603] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '-[__NSCFArray objectAtIndex:]: index (4) beyond bounds (4)' * First throw call stack: (0x1703052 0x1523d0a 0x16aba78 0x16ab9e9 0x16fcc60 0x1d03a 0x391e0f 0x392589 0x37ddfd 0x38c851 0x337301 0x1704e72 0x277592d 0x277f827 0x2705fa7 0x2707ea6 0x2707580 0x16d79ce 0x166e670 0x163a4f6 0x1639db4 0x1639ccb 0x1505879 0x150593e 0x2f8a9b 0x2158 0x20b5) terminate called throwing an exceptionkill

Read the article
Redirecting to a Facelet is not working when extending FaceletViewHandler

- by Abel Morelos

I'm overriding the handleRenderResponse method defined in com.sun.facelets.FaceletViewHandler: protected void handleRenderException(FacesContext context, Exception ex) I'm overriding this method so I can redirect the user to a custom error page (which contain the desired look and feel and other stuff). This is the way I'm trying to String errorPage = "/error.xhtml"; String contextPath = context.getExternalContext().getRequestContextPath(); String errorPagePath = contextPath+errorPage; context.getExternalContext().redirect(errorPagePath); The previous code is what I'm using to perform the redirect to this custom error page. Anyway, when I perform the redirect I'm prompted with a download dialog (this is with Internet Explorer, in Firefox the page does not display properly or as I would expect). I tried changing "/error.xhtml" to "/error.jsf" but in that case I get a 404 error. Somehow I think that the XHTML file is not being handled to the Facelets ViewHandler after the redirect, if I open the downloaded xhtml file I can see that the EL expressions were not resolved and the the ui tags were not handled. I don't have problems with other pages in my application, only when doing the redirect programatically. Important data from my web.xml: facelets.VIEW_MAPPINGS is set to *.xhtml javax.faces.DEFAULT_SUFFIX is set to .xhtml servlet-mapping for the "Faces Servlet" is ".jsf" and "/faces/"

Read the article
JBoss Client-Cert Authentication: Hot to setup UsersRolesLoginModule in login-config.xml

- by sixtyfootersdude

I am looking that chapter 8 of the RedHat, JBoss documentation. I am trying to setup Certificate Authentication as described on this page . On the page it says that the login-config file should have this in it: <application-policy name="jmx-console"> <authentication> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.BaseCertLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="securityDomain">java:/jaas/jmx-console</module-option> </login-module> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="usersProperties">jmx-console-users.properties</module-option> <module-option name="rolesProperties">jmx-console-roles.properties</module-option> </login-module> </authentication> </application-policy> I think that the BaseCertLoginModule chekcs the clients server and the UsersRolesloginModule assigns the client to role (using the file jmx-console-roles.properties). However I am completely bewildered as to what should be in this file: jmx-console-users.properties. Normally that file stores user/password pairs (source) but when using client-cert I don't think that there should be passwords in there. Right now I am leaving that file empty but I am getting this exception: [org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule.initialize:135] Failed to load users/passwords/role files java.io.IOException: No properties file: users.properties or defaults: defaultUsers.properties found ... What should be in that file? Thanks.

Read the article
How do I update blackberry UI items from a thread?

- by Andrei T. Ursan

public class PlayText extends Thread { private int duration; private String text; private PlayerScreen playerscrn; public PlayText(String text, int duration) { this.duration = duration; this.text = text; this.playerscrn = (PlayerScreen)UiApplication.getUiApplication().getActiveScreen(); } public void run() { synchronized(UiApplication.getEventLock()) { try{ RichTextField text1player = new RichTextField(this.text, Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text1player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(this.duration); RichTextField text2player = new RichTextField("hahhaha", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text2player); playerscrn.invalidate(); Thread.sleep(1000); RichTextField text3player = new RichTextField("Done", Field.NON_FOCUSABLE); playerscrn.add(text3player); playerscrn.invalidate(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("I HAVE AN ERROR"); } } } } With the above code I'm trying to create a small text player. Instead to get all the text labels one by one, something like display text1player wait this.duration milliseconds display text2player wait 1000 milliseconds display text3player thread done. The screens waits this.duration + 1000 milliseconds and displays all the labels at once. I tried with a runnable and calling .invokeLater or .invokeAndWait but I still get the same behavior, and even if I get dirty like above using synchronized it still doesn't work. Does anyone know how I can display each label at a time? Thank you!

Read the article
Custom pager in my Gridview 1st time works, next doesn't :

- by gre3ns0ul

Hi guys, i'm with one strange problem. I am extending a control from a Gridview, and adding a dropdown to paging to the page i want. In my custom gridview i added a ITemplate than contains 4 image buttons and one dropdownlist (4 images - 1st, prev, next, last) (1 ddl - to page) and add him to my custom gridview.. I added a selectindexchange event to dropdown, to fire when a index is changed The problem is: The first time i load the page with my control it is really ok.. but when i change index, in debug i see to run constructor of control, creating footer template, and guess.. the method of indexchange isn't fired and returns an exception saying: Unable to cast object of type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.ImageButton' to type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.Table'. [InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.ImageButton' to type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.Table'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.PrepareControlHierarchy() +122 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer, Boolean renderPanel) +50 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Control.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +10 ... apreciate for the help, thanks

Read the article
Entity Framework Validation & usage

- by kmsellers

I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

Read the article
What is the scope of TRANSACTION in Sql server

- by Shantanu Gupta

I was creating a stored procedure and i got stuck in the writing methodology of me and my collegue. I am using SQL Server 2005 I was writing Stored procedure like this BEGIN TRAN BEGIN TRY INSERT INTO Tags.tblTopic (Topic, TopicCode, Description) VALUES(@Topic, @TopicCode, @Description) INSERT INTO Tags.tblSubjectTopic (SubjectId, TopicId) VALUES(@SubjectId, @@IDENTITY) COMMIT TRAN END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @Error VARCHAR(1000) SET @Error= 'ERROR NO : '+ERROR_NUMBER() + ', LINE NO : '+ ERROR_LINE() + ', ERROR MESSAGE : '+ERROR_MESSAGE() PRINT @Error ROLLBACK TRAN END CATCH And my collegue was writing it like the below one BEGIN TRY BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Tags.tblTopic (Topic, TopicCode, Description) VALUES(@Topic, @TopicCode, @Description) INSERT INTO Tags.tblSubjectTopic (SubjectId, TopicId) VALUES(@SubjectId, @@IDENTITY) COMMIT TRAN END TRY BEGIN CATCH DECLARE @Error VARCHAR(1000) SET @Error= 'ERROR NO : '+ERROR_NUMBER() + ', LINE NO : '+ ERROR_LINE() + ', ERROR MESSAGE : '+ERROR_MESSAGE() PRINT @Error ROLLBACK TRAN END CATCH Here the only difference that you will find is the position of writing Begin TRAN. According to me the methodology of my collegue should not work when an exception occurs i.e. Rollback should not get executed because TRAN does'nt have scope. But when i tried to run both the code, both was working in the same way. I am confused to know how does TRANSACTION works. Is it scope free or what ?

Read the article
C# reflection instantiation

- by NickLarsen

I am currently trying to create a generic instance factory for which takes an interface as the generic parameter (enforced in the constructor) and then lets you get instantiated objects which implement that interface from all types in all loaded assemblies. The current implementation is as follows: public class InstantiationFactory { protected Type Type { get; set; } public InstantiationFactory() { this.Type = typeof(T); if (!this.Type.IsInterface) { // is there a more descriptive exception to throw? throw new ArgumentException(/* Crafty message */); } } public IEnumerable GetLoadedTypes() { // this line of code found in other stack overflow questions var types = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies() .SelectMany(a = a.GetTypes()) .Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */); return types; } public IEnumerable GetImplementations(IEnumerable types) { var implementations = types.Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */ .Select(x = CreateInstance(x)); return implementations; } public IEnumerable GetLoadedImplementations() { var loadedTypes = GetLoadedTypes(); var implementations = GetImplementations(loadedTypes); return implementations; } private T CreateInstance(Type type) { T instance = default(T); var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes); if (/* valid to instantiate test */) { object constructed = constructor.Invoke(null); instance = (T)constructed; } return instance; } } It seems useful to me to have my CreateInstance(Type) function implemented as an extension method so I can reuse it later and simplify the code of my factory, but I can't figure out how to return a strongly typed value from that extension method. I realize I could just return an object: public static class TypeExtensions { public object CreateInstance(this Type type) { var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes); return /* valid to instantiate test */ ? constructor.Invoke(null) : null; } } Is it possible to have an extension method create a signature per instance of the type it extends? My perfect code would be this, which avoids having to cast the result of the call to CreateInstance(): Type type = typeof(MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType); MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType usable = type.CreateInstance();

Read the article
Explicit localization problem

- by X-Dev

when trying to translate the confirmation message to Norwegian i get the following error: Cannot have more than one binding on property 'OnClientClick' on 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton'. Ensure that this property is not bound through an implicit expression, for example, using meta:resourcekey. i use Explicit localization in the following manner: <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkMarkInvoiced" runat="server" OnClick="lnkMarkInvoiced_OnClick" OnClientClick="<%# Resources: lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick%>" Visible="False" CssClass="stdtext" meta:resourcekey="lnkMarkInvoicedResource" ></asp:LinkButton> here's the local resource file entry: <data name="lnkMarkInvoicedResource.OnClientClick" xml:space="preserve"> <value>return confirm('Er du sikker?');</value> if i remove the meta attribute i get the English text(default). how do i get the Norwegian text appearing without resorting to using the code behind? Update: removing the meta attribute prevents the exception from occurring but the original problem still exists. I can't get the Norwegian text to show. only the default English text shows. Another Update: I know this question is getting old but i still can't get the Norwegian text to display. If anyone has some tips please post a response.

Read the article
Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

- by Robert Cabri

I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

Read the article
.NET client getting "not well formed" XML response from Axis web service

- by Tex

I have a simple .NET app that makes a SOAP call to a third party Axis web service. When I trace the HTTP traffic, I see that the Request looks fine, however I'm getting an exception: "Response is not well-formed XML." The return object is null, as it seems the XML can't be deserialized. One question regarding the various namespace declarations inside the wsdl. Several of these declarations point to URLs / domains that no longer exist. Could this cause any problems? From the wsdl document: <wsdl:definitions targetNamespace="http://domaindoesntexist.com/" xmlns:apachesoap="http://xml.apache.org/xml-soap" xmlns:impl="http://domaindoesntexist.com/" xmlns:intf="http://domaindoesntexist.com/" xmlns:wsdl="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/" xmlns:wsdlsoap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/soap/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> A sample HTTP response with incriminating data removed: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 Content-Type: text/xml;charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Fri, 05 Jun 2009 13:54:59 GMT 7cb <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <someMethod xmlns="http://test.com/services/myservice/"> </someMethod> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> 0

Read the article
Is my method for avoiding dynamic_cast<> faster than dynamic_cast<> itself ?

- by ereOn

Hi, I was answering a question a few minutes ago and it raised to me another one: In one of my projects, I do some network message parsing. The messages are in the form of: [1 byte message type][2 bytes payload length][x bytes payload] The format and content of the payload are determined by the message type. I have a class hierarchy, based on a common class Message. To instanciate my messages, i have a static parsing method which gives back a Message* depending on the message type byte. Something like: Message* parse(const char* frame) { // This is sample code, in real life I obviously check that the buffer // is not NULL, and the size, and so on. switch(frame[0]) { case 0x01: return new FooMessage(); case 0x02: return new BarMessage(); } // Throw an exception here because the mesage type is unknown. } I sometimes need to access the methods of the subclasses. Since my network message handling must be fast, I decived to avoid dynamic_cast<> and I added a method to the base Message class that gives back the message type. Depending on this return value, I use a static_cast<> to the right child type instead. I did this mainly because I was told once that dynamic_cast<> was slow. However, I don't know exactly what it really does and how slow it is, thus, my method might be as just as slow (or slower) but far more complicated. What do you guys think of this design ? Is it common ? Is it really faster than using dynamic_cast<> ? Any detailed explanation of what happen under the hood when one use dynamic_cast<> is welcome !

Read the article
Shall this Regex do what I expect from it, that is, matching against "A1:B10,C3,D4:E1000"?

- by Will Marcouiller

I'm currently writing a library where I wish to allow the user to be able to specify spreadsheet cell(s) under four possible alternatives: A single cell: "A1"; Multiple contiguous cells: "A1:B10" Multiple separate cells: "A1,B6,I60,AA2" A mix of 2 and 3: "B2:B12,C13:C18,D4,E11000" Then, to validate whether the input respects these formats, I intended to use a regular expression to match against. I have consulted this article on Wikipedia: Regular Expression (Wikipedia) And I also found this related SO question: regex matching alpha character followed by 4 alphanumerics. Based on the information provided within the above-linked articles, I would try with this Regex: Default Readonly Property Cells(ByVal cellsAddresses As String) As ReadOnlyDictionary(Of String, ICell) Get Dim validAddresses As Regex = New Regex("A-Za-z0-9:,A-Za-z0-9") If (Not validAddresses.IsMatch(cellsAddresses)) then _ Throw New FormatException("cellsAddresses") // Proceed with getting the cells from the Interop here... End Get End Property Questions 1. Is my regular expression correct? If not, please help me understand what expression I could use. 2. What exception is more likely to be the more meaningful between a FormatException and an InvalidExpressionException? I hesitate here, since it is related to the format under which the property expect the cells to be input, aside, I'm using an (regular) expression to match against. Thank you kindly for your help and support! =)

Read the article
SS3: the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList'

- by Fraser

In Silverstripe 3, I'm trying to run some custom SQL and return the result for handling in my template: function getListings(){ $sqlQuery = new SQLQuery(); $sqlQuery->setFrom('ListingCategory_Listings'); $sqlQuery->selectField('*'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('Listing', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingID" = "Listing"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('SiteTree_Live', '"Listing"."ID" = "SiteTree_Live"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('ListingCategory', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingCategoryID" = "ListingCategory"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('File', '"ListingCategory"."IconID" = "File"."ID"'); $result = $sqlQuery->execute(); //return $result; //$dataObject = new DataList(); $dataObject = new ArrayList(); foreach($result as $row) { $dataObject->push(new ArrayData($row)); } return $dataObject; } However, this is giving me the error: Uncaught Exception: Object-__call(): the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList' What am I doing wrong here and how can I get the result of this query into my template?

Read the article
With NHibernate and Transaction do I rollback on commit failure or does it auto rollback on single c

- by mattcodes

I've built the following Dispose method for my Unit Of Work which essentially wraps the active NH session & transaction (transaction set as variable after opening session as to not be replaced if NH session gets new transaction after error) public void Dispose() { Func<ITransaction,bool> transactionStateOkayFunc = trans => trans != null && trans.IsActive && !trans.WasRolledBack; try { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(this.transaction)) { if (HasErrored) { transaction.Rollback(); } else { try { transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception) { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(transaction)) transaction.Rollback(); throw; } } } } finally { if(transaction != null) transaction.Dispose(); if(session.IsOpen) session.Close(); } I can't help feeling that code is a little bloated, will a transaction automatically rollback is a discrete Commit fails in the case of non-nested transactions? Will Commit or Rollback automatically Dipose the transaction? If not will Session.Close() automatically dispose the associated transaction?

Read the article
Intercepting hyperlinks in an embedded Word document

- by Ryan

Hello, I'm working on an app which uses embedded Word documents. We have a feature which allows them to insert a small clickable image into the doc - when the user clicks on it, we want the app to open another window based on some data specified by the user when the image was added. What the application does now is: When the image is inserted, the app creates a hyperlink for it and the data is used as the link destination The user ctrl+clicks on the image and the Word document the WindowSelectionChange event The app handles the WindowSelectionChange event and goes to open the specified window This approach worked fine with previous versions, when we had the 11.0 / Word 2003 interop dll's. We upgraded to 12.0/Word 2007 for the upcoming release, and in many cases the event is not firing when I click on the image - sometimes it does, sometimes it doesn't, and I'm descending into the cargo-cult world trying to figure out why - sometimes saving and re-opening the document works, sometimes killing the Word process and starting a new one fixes (or breaks) the feature. My guess is there's something going wrong with the WinSelChg event, but I'm not sure what. The usual process we have for applying the event handler is: try //remove the old one if any { ((Document)myAXFramerControl.ActiveDocument).Application.WindowSelectionChange -= new ApplicationEvents4_WindowSelectionChangeEventHandler(WSC_eventhandlerfunction); } catch{} ((Document)myAXFramerControl.ActiveDocument).Application.WindowSelectionChange += new ApplicationEvents4_WindowSelectionChangeEventHandler(WSC_eventhandlerfunction); Sometimes one or both of these will throw exceptions - usually a NullReferenceException when removing the handler. Adding the handler sometimes throws the "com object that has been separated from its underlying rcw cannot be used" exception, which I don't understand at all - my impression was that this only occurs when you, say, store a reference to the Word application or document and try to use it later. As it stands the WSC event handler is frequently never run; while I'm happy to fiddle with the app until it works once I can't really expect the same of the users who have been happily using this feature for a while now. Any ideas?

Read the article
How to authenticate my own provider( only for testing purposes)

- by user308806

Dear all Now, I wrote a new provider (ESMJCE provider), and I also write a simple application to test it, but I have some exceptions like that java.lang.SecurityException: JCE cannot authenticate the provider ESMJCE at javax.crypto.Cipher.getInstance(DashoA13*..) at javax.crypto.Cipher.getInstance(DashoA13*..) at testprovider.main(testprovider.java:27) Caused by: java.util.jar.JarException: Cannot parse file:/C:/Program%20Files/Java/jre1.6.0_02/lib/ext/abc.jar at javax.crypto.SunJCE_c.a(DashoA13*..) at javax.crypto.SunJCE_b.b(DashoA13*..) at javax.crypto.SunJCE_b.a(DashoA13*..) ... 3 more And here is my source code import java.security.Provider; import java.security.Security; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import esm.jce.provider.ESMProvider; public class testprovider { / @param args / public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ESMProvider esmprovider = new esm.jce.provider.ESMProvider(); Security.insertProviderAt(esmprovider,2); Provider[] temp = Security.getProviders(); for (int i= 0; i<temp.length; i++){ System.out.println("Providers: " temp[i].getName()); } try{ Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("DES", "ESMJCE"); System.out.println("Cipher: " cipher); int blockSize= cipher.getBlockSize(); System.out.println("blockSize= " + blockSize); }catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } } } Please help me solve this issue Thanks

Read the article
Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

- by Andrea

I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

Read the article
Jquery Show Fields depending on Select Menu value but on page load

- by Tim

Hello, This question refers to the question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/835259/jquery-show-hide-fields-depening-on-select-value <select id="viewSelector"> <option value="0">-- Select a View --</option> <option value="view1">view1</option> <option value="view2">view2</option> <option value="view3">view3</option> </select> <div id="view1">  </div> <div id="view2a">  </div> <div id="view2b">  </div> <div id="view3">  </div> $(document).ready(function() { $.viewMap = { '0' : $([]), 'view1' : $('#view1'), 'view2' : $('#view2a, #view2b'), 'view3' : $('#view3') }; $('#viewSelector').change(function() { // hide all $.each($.viewMap, function() { this.hide(); }); // show current $.viewMap[$(this).val()].show(); }); }); When I select the 2nd item in the menu it shows the corresponding field. The exception to this is when the on page load the select menu already has the 2nd menu item selected, the field does not show. As you may be able to tell, I am new to jquery and could definetly use some help with adjusting this code so that the selected item's field is shown on page load. Thanks, Tim

Read the article
How to play extracted wave file byte array in C#?

- by user261924

At the moment i have managed to separate the left and right channel of a WAVE file and have included the header in a byte[] array. My next step is to be about to play both channels. How can this be done? Here is a code snippet: byte[] song_left = new byte[fa.Length]; byte[] song_right = new byte[fa.Length]; int p = 0; for (int c = 0; c < 43; c++) { song_left[p] = header[c]; p++; } int q = 0; for (s = startByte; s < length; s = s + 3) { song_left[s] = sLeft[q]; q++; s++; song_left[s] = sLeft[q]; q++; } p = 0; for (int c = 0; c < 43; c++) { song_right[p] = header[c]; p++; } This part is reading the header and data from both the right and light channel and saving it to array sLeft[] and sRight[]. This part is working perfectly. Once I obtained the byte arrays, I did the following: System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\\left.wav", song_left); System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\\right.wav", song_right); Added a button to play the saved wave file: private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { spWave = new SoundPlayer("c:\\left.wav"); spWave.Play(); } Once I hit the play button, this error appers: An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in System.dll Additional information: The wave header is corrupt. Any ideas?

Read the article
JUnit: checking if a void method gets called

- by nkr1pt

I have a very simple filewatcher class which checks every 2 seconds if a file has changed and if so, the onChange method (void) is called. Is there an easy way to check ik the onChange method is getting called in a unit test? code: public class PropertyFileWatcher extends TimerTask { private long timeStamp; private File file; public PropertyFileWatcher(File file) { this.file = file; this.timeStamp = file.lastModified(); } public final void run() { long timeStamp = file.lastModified(); if (this.timeStamp != timeStamp) { this.timeStamp = timeStamp; onChange(file); } } protected void onChange(File file) { System.out.println("Property file has changed"); } } @Test public void testPropertyFileWatcher() throws Exception { File file = new File("testfile"); file.createNewFile(); PropertyFileWatcher propertyFileWatcher = new PropertyFileWatcher(file); Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(propertyFileWatcher, 2000); FileWriter fw = new FileWriter(file); fw.write("blah"); fw.close(); Thread.sleep(8000); // check if propertyFileWatcher.onChange was called file.delete(); }

Read the article
Setting a parameter as a list for an IN expression

- by perilandmishap

Whenever I try to set a list as a parameter for use in an IN expression I get an Illegal argument exception. Various posts on the internet seem to indicate that this is possible, but it's certainly not working for me. I'm using Glassfish V2.1 with Toplink. Has anyone else been able to get this to work, if so how? here's some example code: List<String> logins = em.createQuery("SELECT a.accountManager.loginName " + "FROM Account a " + "WHERE a.id IN (:ids)") .setParameter("ids",Arrays.asList(new Long(1000100), new Long(1000110))) .getResultList(); and the relevant part of the stack trace: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: You have attempted to set a value of type class java.util.Arrays$ArrayList for parameter accountIds with expected type of class java.lang.Long from query string SELECT a.accountManager.loginName FROM Account a WHERE a.id IN (:accountIds). at oracle.toplink.essentials.internal.ejb.cmp3.base.EJBQueryImpl.setParameterInternal(EJBQueryImpl.java:663) at oracle.toplink.essentials.internal.ejb.cmp3.EJBQueryImpl.setParameter(EJBQueryImpl.java:202) at com.corenap.newtDAO.ContactDaoBean.getNotificationAddresses(ContactDaoBean.java:437) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at com.sun.enterprise.security.application.EJBSecurityManager.runMethod(EJBSecurityManager.java:1011) at com.sun.enterprise.security.SecurityUtil.invoke(SecurityUtil.java:175) at com.sun.ejb.containers.BaseContainer.invokeTargetBeanMethod(BaseContainer.java:2920) at com.sun.ejb.containers.BaseContainer.intercept(BaseContainer.java:4011) at com.sun.ejb.containers.EJBObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(EJBObjectInvocationHandler.java:203) ... 67 more

Read the article
Delphi Client-Server Application using Firebird 2.5 embedded connection error

- by Japster

0 down vote favorite 1 share [fb] share [tw] I have got a lengthy question to ask. First of all Im still very new when it comes to Delphi programming and my experience has beem mostly developing small single user database applications using ADO and an Access database. I need to take the transition now to a client server application and this is where the problem starts. I decided to use Firebird 2.5 embeded as my database, as it is open source, and it is can be used with the interbase components in Delphi and that multiple clients can access the database simultanously. So I followed the interbase tutorial in Delphi. I managed to connect the client to the server and see the data in the example (While both are running on my pc), but when i tried to move the client to another pc, keeping the server on mine and running it to see if I can connect to the server it gave me the following error. Exception EIdSocketError in module clientDemo.exe at 0029DCAC. Socket Error # 10061 Connection refused. I understand that this might be because the host is defined as localhost in the client. But here is my first question. In the TSQLConncetion you can set die hostname under Driver-Hostname. The thing I want to know is how do you do this at run time, as I cannot get the property when I try and make an edit box to allow the user to enter the value and then set it via code like for example: SQLConncetion1.Driver.Hostname := edtHost.text; This cannot be done this way and the only way I see you can set the hostname is with the object inspector, but that is not available at runtime and I need to set the hostname on the client when the program is running the first time, so how do you set the hostname/IP address at runtime? Im using Delphi XE2 There is still a lot of questions to come especially when it comes to deployment, but I will take this piece by piece and I appreciate the advice.

Read the article

< Previous Page | 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 | Next Page >