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• NHibernate Performance Optimization | Suggestions invited!!!

  - by user336749

  Hi, I’m facing an issue with NHibernate performance and can you please suggest me some optimizations? Below mentioned is a small summary of my application architecture I have a windows service which is listening to a messaging bus. On receiving a message the service creates an object out of which a property is the received xml snippet and saves the message to the DB (uses NH). There is a WPF UI with a readonly connection to the DB, and on refresh of the UI it displays the objects on the screen. While the UI does a refresh, it retrieves the xml and deserializes it , from which the object’s properties are derived and binded to the screen. For example assume an xml XXX is received by the service, it deserializes the xml , creates the book object and save it to the DB and a property/column is SCHEMA which contains the xml snippet. The UI while refreshed searches all book objects by ID and creates the book objects out of the xml which is being saved (yes, the xml is the constructor param). Now my issue is that the refresh takes more than 2 minutes to display say 50 book objects. I analyzed it using the NHibernate profiler, and found that the time spend within the DB is negligible, however time spent to create the entities is proportionally huge(10ms:1990 ms).I guess it’s due to the fairly huge size of xml snippet and it’s deserialization. My question is, how can I improve the performance. I dispose sessions after every refresh and is not lazy loading (please note that the time spend in DB is negligible). On every refresh it’s possible that all objects are updated by some downstream systems or maybe one of them are updated.Can I implement some sort of caching mechanism in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestions. Regards, -Mike

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• SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

  - by user1289508

  Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

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• LINQ - 'Could not translate expression' with previously used and proven query condition

  - by tomfumb

  I am fairly new to LINQ and can't get my head around some inconsistency in behaviour. Any knowledgeable input would be much appreciated. I see similar issues on SO and elsewhere but they don't seem to help. I have a very simple setup - a company table and an addresses table. Each company can have 0 or more addresses, and if 0 one must be specified as the main address. I'm trying to handle the cases where there are 0 addresses, using an outer join and altering the select statement accordingly. Please note I'm currently binding the output straight to a GridView so I would like to keep all processing within the query. The following DOES work IQueryable query = from comp in context.Companies join addr in context.Addresses on comp.CompanyID equals addr.CompanyID into outer // outer join companies to addresses table to include companies with no address from addr in outer.DefaultIfEmpty() where (addr.IsMain == null ? true : addr.IsMain) == true // if a company has no address ensure it is not ruled out by the IsMain condition - default to true if null select new { comp.CompanyID, comp.Name, AddressID = (addr.AddressID == null ? -1 : addr.AddressID), // use -1 to represent a company that has no addresses MainAddress = String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country) }; but this displays an empty address in the GridView as ", , ()" So I updated the MainAddress field to be MainAddress = (addr.AddressID == null ? "" : String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country)) and now I'm getting the Could not translate expression error and a bunch of spewey auto-generated code in the error which means very little to me. The condition I added to MainAddress is no different to the working condition on AddressID, so can anybody tell me what's going on here? Any help greatly appreciated.

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• Pickled my dictionary from ZODB but i got a less in size one?

  - by Someone Someoneelse

  I use ZODB and i want to copy my 'database_1.fs' file to another 'database_2.fs', so I opened the root dictionary of that 'database_1.fs' and I (pickle.dump) it in a text file. Then I (pickle.load) it in a dictionary-variable, in the end I update the root dictionary of the other 'database_2.fs' with the dictionary-variable. It works, but I wonder why the size of the 'database_1.fs' not equal to the size of the other 'database_2.fs'. They are still copies of each other. def openstorage(store): #opens the database data={} data['file']=filestorage data['db']=DB(data['file']) data['conn']=data['db'].open() data['root']=data['conn'].root() return data def getroot(dicty): return dicty['root'] def closestorage(dicty): #close the database after Saving transaction.commit() dicty['file'].close() dicty['db'].close() dicty['conn'].close() transaction.get().abort() then that's what i do:- import pickle loc1='G:\\database_1.fs' op1=openstorage(loc1) root1=getroot(op1) loc2='G:database_2.fs' op2=openstorage(loc2) root2=getroot(op2) >>> len(root1) 215 >>> len(root2) 0 pickle.dump( root1, open( "save.txt", "wb" )) item=pickle.load( open( "save.txt", "rb" ) ) #now item is a dictionary root2.update(item) closestorage(op1) closestorage(op2) #after I open both of the databases #I get the same keys in both databases #But `database_2.fs` is smaller that `database_2.fs` in size I mean. >>> len(root2)==len(root1)==215 #they have the same keys True Note: (1) there are persistent dictionaries and lists in the original database_1.fs (2) both of them have the same length and the same indexes.

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• How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

  - by Testifier

  If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

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• EXE stops working if containing folder is renamed. MSVCP90.dll

  - by John

  This popup comes up as soon as the app is started: The program can't start because MSVCP90.dll is missing from your computer. Before anyone says "install the VC++ runtimes", wait! If I rename the folder containing my .EXE then the app runs. If I rename it back, it breaks. The app has been running for weeks without any changes to my system/VS installation (2008 SP1), we suddenly spotted this error a few days ago. Lost as to why the name of the dir is causing issues... again this has not changed in months and all our resource paths are relative anyway, e.g "../someOtherDir/...." It doesn't just do this on my PC, we have the /bin dir (the one containing EXE) in SVN and suddenly everyone started seeing the same issue, even though the binaries themselves seem just fine. Is it possible some additional data got put into SVN and that's the cause? Since it's not just one PC, there must be something either in SVN or the EXE itself... Note this popup comes before our code even gets to run.

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• How to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers

  - by droidsites

  Doing a web site using spring mvc. I added a SignupController to handle all the sign up related requests. Once user signup I am adding that to a session using @Scope("session"). Below is the SignupController code, SignupController.java @Controller @Scope("session") public class SignupController { @Autowired SignupServiceInter signUpService; private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(SignupController.class); private String sessionUser; @RequestMapping("/SignupService") public ModelAndView signUp(@RequestParam("userid") String userId, @RequestParam("password") String password,@RequestParam("mailid") String emailId){ logger.debug(" userId:"+userId+"::Password::"+password+"::"); String signupResult; try { signUpService.registerUser(userId, password,emailId); sessionUser = userId; //adding the sign up user to the session return new ModelAndView("userHomePage","loginResult","Success"); //Navigate to user Home page if everything goes right } catch (UserExistsException e) { signupResult = e.toString(); return new ModelAndView("signUp","loginResult", signupResult); //Navigate to signUp page back if user does not exist } } } I am using "sessionUser" variable to store the signed up User Id. My understanding is that when I use @Scope("session") for the controller all the instance variables will added to HttpSession. So by that understanding I tried to access this "SessionUser" in userHomePage.jsp as, userHomepage.jsp Welcome to <%=session.getAttribute("sessionUser")%> But it throws null. So my question is how to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers. Note: My work around is that pass that signed User Id to jsp page through ModelAndView, but it seems passing the value like these among the pages takes me back to managing state among pages using QueryStrings days.

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• Union and order by

  - by David Lively

  Consider a table like tbl_ranks -------------------------------- family_id | item_id | view_count -------------------------------- 1 10 101 1 11 112 1 13 109 2 21 101 2 22 112 2 23 109 3 30 101 3 31 112 3 33 109 4 40 101 4 51 112 4 63 109 5 80 101 5 81 112 5 88 109 I need to generate a result set with the top two(2) rows for a subset of family ids (say, 1,2,3 and 4) ordered by view count. I'd like to do something like select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 1 order by view_count union all select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 2 order by view_count union all select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 3 order by view_count union all select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 4 order by view_count but, of course, order by isn't valid in a union all context in this manner. Any suggestions? I know I could run a set of 4 queries, store the results into a temp table and select the contents of that temp as the final result, but I'd rather avoid using a temp table if possible. Note: in the real app, the number of records per family id is indeterminate, and the view_counts are also not fixed as they appear in the above example.

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• Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

  - by SCO

  I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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• Please help! Delegate returns null via Dipendency Injection.

  - by Raj Aththanayake

  Can someone please help? I use Google code’s Moq framework for mocking within my Unit Tests and Unity for Dependency Injection. In my Test class private Mock<ICustomerSearchService> CustomerSearchServiceMock = null; private CustomerService customerService = null; private void SetupMainData() { CustomerSearchServiceMock = new Mock<ICustomerSearchService>(); customerService = new CustomerService (); // CustomerSearchService is a property in CustomerService and dependency is configuered via Unity customerService.CustomerSearchService = CustomerSearchServiceMock.Object; Customer c = new Customer () { ID = "AT" }; CustomerSearchServiceMock.Setup(s => s.GetCustomer(EqualsCondition)).Returns(c); } [TestMethod] public void GetCustomerData_Test_Method() { SetupMainData() var customer = customerService.GetCustomerData("AT"); } public static bool EqualsCondition(Customer customer) { return customer.ID.Equals("AT"); } In my Test class CustomerService class public class CustomerService : ICustomerService { [Dependency] public ICustomerSearchService CustomerSearchService { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SomeObject> GetCustomerData(string custID) { I GET Null for customer ?????} var customer = CustomerSearchService.GetCustomer (c => c.ID.Equals(custID)); //Do more things } } When I debug the code I can see CustomerSearchService has a proxy object, but the customer returns as null. Any ideas? Or is there something missing here? Note: ICustomerSearchService I have implemented below method. Customer GetCustomer(Func<Customer, bool> predicate);

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• asp.net - updatepannel can't read innerHTML?

  - by omega

  In my asp.net page, I have a jquery sortable accordian (in an update panel) I use so that clients can re-arrange items. Then to save it, users would click a button (thats created from jquery) and it would traverse through the accoridion in the DOM, and write the info to a asp control textbox. Then invoke the click function of a asp button control, which then reads that information and saves the data. But now I decided to simplify this step, and use html agility pack in c#, so users click the asp button control (inside an update panel), and then it would get the innerHTML of the accordian. But the problem is, the html it's getting is not the reflecting the changes a user can make to the accordion (i.e. re arranging it), it the same as when the DOM was ready on page load... But note that, using javascript to write the innerHTML to a textbox, then from the c# function, I can read the up to date html from the accordian. Does anyone know why this is happening and how to get the up to data html from the accordian in c#?

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• While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

  - by Mahn

  I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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• Regular Expressions, avoiding HTML tags in PHP

  - by Jason Axelrod

  I have actually seen this question quite a bit here, but none of them are exactly what I want... Lets say I have the following phrase: Line 1 - This is a TEST phrase. Line 2 - This is a <img src="TEST" /> image. Line 3 - This is a <a href="somelink/TEST">TEST</a> link. Okay, simple right? I am trying the following code: $linkPin = '#(\b)TEST(\b)(?![^<]*>)#i'; $linkRpl = '$1<a href="newurl">TEST</a>$2'; $html = preg_replace($linkPin, $linkRpl, $html); As you can see, it takes the word TEST, and replaces it with a link to test. The regular expression I am using right now works good to avoid replacing the TEST in line 2, it also avoids replacing the TEST in the href of line 3. However, it still replaces the text encapsulated within the tag on line 3 and I end up with: Line 1 - This is a <a href="newurl">TEST</a> phrase. Line 2 - This is a <img src="TEST" /> image. Line 3 - This is a <a href="somelink/TEST"><a href="newurl">TEST</a></a> link. This I do not want as it creates bad code in line 3. I want to not only ignore matches inside of a tag, but also encapsulated by them. (remember to keep note of the / in line 2)

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• Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

  - by viatropos

  Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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• What's a good way to format AJAX responses? Or, using Django templating with AJAX

  - by synic

  In some of the code I'm working on, the author max AJAX calls to a Django view that returns JSON. Once the JSON is retrieved, it'll be injected into the page with a function that looks like this (note, this is a simplification, but I'm sure you know what I'm getting at here): function build_event_listing(events) { var html = ''; for(int i = 0; i < events.length; i++) { event = events[i]; html += "<h2>" + event.title + "</h2>\n"; html += "<p>" + event.description + "</p>"; html += "Click <a href='/event/view/" + event.id + "'>here<a> for more info."; } events_div.html(html); } I really don't like this approach. To change the look of each event listing, the designer would have to modify that ugly JS. I'd much rather make use of Django's templating system, but I'm wondering how I can do this? I had the idea of writing the view like this: def view_listings(req): events = models.Event.objects.all() html = [] for event in events: html.append( render_to_string('event/single_event.html', { 'event': event, }, context_instance=RequestContext(req)) return HttpResponse(''.join(html), mimetype='text/html') ... but it just seems like there should be a better way. Any ideas?

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• Implementing comparision operators via 'tuple' and 'tie', a good idea?

  - by Xeo

  (Note: tuple and tie can be taken from Boost or C++11.) When writing small structs with only two elements, I sometimes tend to choose a std::pair, as all important stuff is already done for that datatype, like operator< for strict-weak-ordering. The downsides though are the pretty much useless variable names. Even if I myself created that typedef, I won't remember 2 days later what first and what second exactly was, especially if they are both of the same type. This gets even worse for more than two members, as nesting pairs pretty much sucks. The other option for that is a tuple, either from Boost or C++11, but that doesn't really look any nicer and clearer. So I go back to writing the structs myself, including any needed comparision operators. Since especially the operator< can be quite cumbersome, I thought of circumventing this whole mess by just relying on the operations defined for tuple: Example of operator<, e.g. for strict-weak-ordering: bool operator<(MyStruct const& lhs, MyStruct const& rhs){ return std::tie(lhs.one_member, lhs.another, lhs.yet_more) < std::tie(rhs.one_member, rhs.another, rhs.yet_more); } (tie makes a tuple of T& references from the passed arguments.) Edit: The suggestion from @DeadMG to privately inherit from tuple isn't a bad one, but it got quite some drawbacks: If the operators are free-standing (possibly friends), I need to inherit publicly With casting, my functions / operators (operator= specifically) can be easily bypassed With the tie solution, I can leave out certain members if they don't matter for the ordering Are there any drawbacks in this implementation that I need to consider?

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• How can I quickly parse large (>10GB) files?

  - by Andrew

  Hi - I have to process text files 10-20GB in size of the format: field1 field2 field3 field4 field5 I would like to parse the data from each line of field2 into one of several files; the file this gets pushed into is determined line-by-line by the value in field4. There are 25 different possible values in field2 and hence 25 different files the data can get parsed into. I have tried using Perl (slow) and awk (faster but still slow) - does anyone have any suggestions or pointers toward alternative approaches? FYI here is the awk code I was trying to use; note I had to revert to going through the large file 25 times because I wasn't able to keep 25 files open at once in awk: chromosomes=(1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25) for chr in ${chromosomes[@]} do awk < my_in_file_here -v pat="$chr" '{if ($4 == pat) for (i = $2; i <= $2+52; i++) print i}' >> my_out_file_"$chr".query done

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• Retrieving the first picture with a HTML parser

  - by justin01

  Hey guys, (Not a native english speaker) I'm doing a personal project in PHP in which I use the Simple HTML Parser to parse the HTML of a given URL and retrieve the first image in a DIV that have a specific ID or class (maincontent, content, main, wrapper, etc. - it's all in an array) and ignore ads. The goal is to take this image and make a thumbnail with it, pretty much like on Digg and others. I thought everything was working fine until I tried my script with the website Snopes ("http://www.snopes.com/photos/animals/luckycoyote.asp" <- this page more exactly). The source of the first image it gets is: " graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg ". So far, to correct this problem I created a little function that gets the domain name of the given URL and insert it before the IMG's source attribute. So for sites like Snopes.com, it gives me: "http://www.snopes.com/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg" ... while the real URL for this image is "http://www.snopes.com*/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg*" (or, more precisely: " http://graphics1.snopes.com/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg " - note the subdomain here). So my main question is: how can I externally/dynamically retrieve the full URL address of an image ("absolute path") when I am only given the "relative path"? I'm pretty sure this is possible, since when I paste the link in Facebook's "What are you doing?" field for example, it gives me the correct path to the image while on the website, the source of the image is only (example) "image/photo/example.jpg". Thank you for your time.

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• jQuery: part of a function not executing

  - by SODA

  Hi. I have a tabbed setup on the page and I want to automatically make corresponding menu tab highlighted as well as corresponding content div show depending on # hash. Example: http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html -- no hash, opens 1st tab http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html#setup -- #setup, should open "Setup" tab As you can see it works for highlighting "Setup" tab. But content div does not change. The script is below: var tab_content_current = 1; switch (window.location.hash) { case '#activity': tab_content_current = 1; break; case '#friends': tab_content_current = 2; break; case '#photos': tab_content_current = 3; break; case '#videos': tab_content_current = 4; break; case '#setup': tab_content_current = 5; break; case '#forum': tab_content_current = 6; break; case '#blog': tab_content_current = 7; break; case '#comments': tab_content_current = 8; break; case '#favorites': tab_content_current = 9; break; case '#profile-comments': tab_content_current = 10; break; default: tab_content_current = 1; } if (tab_content_current != 1) { change_active_tab (tab_content_current); } function tabs_toggle (id) { if (id != tab_content_current) { change_active_tab (id); tab_content_current = id; } } function change_active_tab (id) { $j('.profile_tabs li').removeClass('active'); if (id < 8) $j('.profile_tab_'+id).addClass('active'); $j('.profile_content').hide(); $j('#profile_content_'+id).fadeIn(); } Note that it works when you actually click menu tabs. Any help to fix this problem would be greatly appreciated.

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• CSS - background-size: cover; not working in Firefox

  - by Jayant Bhawal

  body{ background-image: url("./content/site_data/bg.jpg"); background-size: cover; background-repeat: no-repeat; font-family: 'Lobster', cursive; } Check: http://demo.jayantbhawal.in on firefox browsers, NOT in widescreen mode. The code works on Chrome(Android + PC) and even the stock Android browser, but NOT Firefox(Android + PC). Is there any good alternative to it? Why is it not working anyways? Googled this issue a lot of times, but no one else seems to have this problem. Is it just me? In any case, how do I fix it? There are quite some questions on SO about it too, but none of them provide a legitimate solution, so can someone just tell me if they have background-size: cover; issues on firefox too? So basically tell me 3 things: 1. Why is it happening? 2. What is a good alternative to it? 3. Is this happening to you too? On Firefox browsers of course. Chrome Version 35.0.1916.114 m Firefox Version 29.0.1 Note: I may already be trying to fix it so at times you may see a totally weird page. Wait a bit and reload.

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• Code Golf: Connecting the dots

  - by ChristopheD

  Description: The input are multiple lines (terminated by a newline) which describe a 'field'. There are 'numbers' scattered across this field: the numbers always start at 1 they follow the ordering of the natural numbers: every 'next number' is incremented with 1 every number is surrounded by (at least) one whitespace on it's left and right Task: Draw lines between these numbers in their natural order (1 -> 2 -> 3 -> ...N) with the following characteristics: replace a number with a '+' character for horizontal lines: use '-' for vertical lines: use '|' going left and down or right and up: / going left and up or right and down: \ Important note: When drawing lines of type 4 and 5 you can assume that : (given points to connect with coordinates x1, y1 and x2, y2) distance(x1,x2) == distance(y1,y2). Have a look at the examples to see where you should 'attach' the lines. It is important to follow the order in which the dots are connected (newer lines can be drawn over older lines). Sample input 1 9 10 8 7 6 5 11 13 12 3 4 14 15 16 1 2 Sample output 1 /+ / | / | +/ +--+ | +\ | \ | \+ /+ | / | /+-------------+/ +---+ / | +--+ | + | +--------------------------+ Sample input 2 4 2 3 5 6 1 8 7 Sample output 2 /+ / | / | / | /+------------------+/ +--------+\ / \ +/ +--------------------------------------+ Winner: shortest solution (by code count). Input can be read via command line.

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• In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

  - by Irchi

  Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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• how to use q.js promises to work with multiple asynchronous operations

  - by kimsia

  Note: This question is also cross-posted in Q.js mailing list over here. i had a situation with multiple asynchronous operations and the answer I accepted pointed out that using Promises using a library such as q.js would be more beneficial. I am convinced to refactor my code to use Promises but because the code is pretty long, i have trimmed the irrelevant portions and exported the crucial parts into a separate repo. The repo is here and the most important file is this. The requirement is that I want pageSizes to be non-empty after traversing all the dragged'n dropped files. The problem is that the FileAPI operations inside getSizeSettingsFromPage function causes getSizeSettingsFromPage to be async. So I cannot place checkWhenReady(); like this. function traverseFiles() { for (var i=0, l=pages.length; i<l; i++) { getSizeSettingsFromPage(pages[i], calculateRatio); } checkWhenReady(); // this always returns 0. } This works, but it is not ideal. I prefer to call checkWhenReady just ONCE after all the pages have undergone this function calculateRatio successfully. function calculateRatio(width, height, filename) { // .... code pageSizes.add(filename, object); checkWhenReady(); // this works but it is not ideal. I prefer to call this method AFTER all the `pages` have undergone calculateRatio // ..... more code... } How do I refactor the code to make use of Promises in Q.js?

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• Reference an object, based on a variable with it's name in it

  - by James G

  I'm looking for a way to reference an object, based on a variable with it's name in it. I know I can do this for properties and sub properties: var req = {body: {jobID: 12}}; console.log(req.body.jobID); //12 var subProperty = "jobID"; console.log(req.body[subProperty ]); //12 var property = "body"; console.log(req[property][subProperty]); //12 is it possible for the object itself? var req = {body: {jobID: 12}}; var object = "req"; var property = "body"; var subProperty = "jobID"; console.log([object][property][subProperty]); //12 or console.log(this[object][property][subProperty]); //12 Note: I'm doing this in node.js not a browser. Here is an exert from the function: if(action.render){ res.render(action.render,renderData); }else if(action.redirect){ if(action.redirect.args){ var args = action.redirect.args; res.redirect(action.redirect.path+req[args[0]][args[1]]); }else{ res.redirect(action.redirect.path); } } I could work around it by changing it to this, but I was looking for something more dynamic. if(action.render){ res.render(action.render,renderData); }else if(action.redirect){ if(action.redirect.args){ var args = action.redirect.args; if(args[0]==="req"){ res.redirect(action.redirect.path+req[args[1]][args[2]]); }else if(args[0]==="rows"){ rows.redirect(action.redirect.path+rows[args[1]][args[2]]); } }else{ res.redirect(action.redirect.path); } }

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• Generic delegate instances

  - by Luc C

  I wonder if C# (or the underlying .NET framework) supports some kind of "generic delegate instances": that is a delegate instance that still has an unresolved type parameter, to be resolved at the time the delegate is invoked (not at the time the delegate is created). I suspect this isn't possible, but I'm asking it anyway... Here is an example of what I'd like to do, with some "???" inserted in places where the C# syntax seems to be unavailable for what I want. (Obviously this code doesn't compile) class Foo { public T Factory<T>(string name) { // implementation omitted } } class Test { public void TestMethod() { Foo foo = new Foo(); ??? magic = foo.Factory; // No type argument given here yet to Factory! // What would the '???' be here (other than 'var' :) )? string aString = magic<string>("name 1"); // type provided on call int anInt = magic<int>("name 2"); // another type provided on another call // Note the underlying calls work perfectly fine, these work, but i'd like to expose // the generic method as a delegate. string aString2 = foo.Factory<string>("name 1"); int anInt2 = foo.Factory<int>("name 2"); } } Is there a way to actually do something like this in C#? If not, is that a limitation in the language, or is it in the .NET framework?

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