Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'note'.

Page 447/566 | < Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >

  • Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

    - by SCO
    I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

    Read the article

  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

    Read the article

  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

    Read the article

  • Can a conforming C# compiler optimize away a local (but unused) variable if it is the only strong re

    - by stakx
    The title says it all, but let me explain: void Case_1() { var weakRef = new WeakReference(new object()); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. if (weakRef.IsAlive) ... } In this code example, I obviously have to plan for the possibility that the new'ed object is reclaimed by the garbage collector; therefore the if statement. (Note that I'm using weakRef for the sole purpose of checking if the new'ed object is still around.) void Case_2() { var unusedLocalVar = new object(); var weakRef = new WeakReference(unusedLocalVar); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. Debug.Assert(weakReferenceToUseless.IsAlive); } The main change in this code example from the previous one is that the new'ed object is strongly referenced by a local variable (unusedLocalVar). However, this variable is never used again after the weak reference (weakRef) has been created. Question: Is a conforming C# compiler allowed to optimize the first two lines of Case_2 into those of Case_1 if it sees that unusedLocalVar is only used in one place, namely as an argument to the WeakReference constructor? i.e. is there any possibility that the assertion in Case_2 could ever fail?

    Read the article

  • MYSQL inserting records form table A into tables B and C (linked by foreign key) depending on column values in table A

    - by Chez
    Hi All, Have been searching high and low for a simple solution to a mysql insert problem. The problem is as follows: I am putting together an organisational database consisting of departments and desks. A department may or may not have n number of desks. Both departments and desks have their own table linked by a foreign key in desks to the relevant record in departments (i.e. the pk). I have a temporary table which I use to place all new department data (n records long)...In this table n number of desk records for a department follow the department record directly below. In the TEMP table, if a column department_name has a value,it is a department, if it doesn't it will have a value for the column desk and therefore will be a desk which is related to the above department. As I said there maybe several desk records until you get to the next department record. Ok, so what I want to do is the following: Insert the departments into the departments table and its desks into the desks table , generating a foreign key in the desk record to the relevant departments id. In pseudo-ish code: for each record in TEMP table if Department INSERT the record into Departments get the id of the newly created Department record and store it somewhere else if Desk INSERT the desk into the desks table with the relevant departments id as the foreignkey note once again that all departments desks directly follow the department in the TEMP Table Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • JQuery - Element Selection

    - by user208662
    Hello, I'm relatively new to JQuery. I'm trying to understand how to select a child element. Currently, I have some HTML that is defined as follows: <div id="elem1"> <div class="display">Student 1</div> </div> <div id="elem2"> <div class="display">Student 2</div> </div> <div id="elem3"> <div class="display">Student 3</div> </div> When a user clicks a link, one of the elements (elem1, elem2, or elem3) is going to be passed to a function that is defined as follows: function getNodeDisplay(node) { // NOTE: This does not work as desired return $(node).(#".display").html(); } Unfortunately, this approach does not work. How do I get the HTML associated with an element that has a specific class or a given element? Thank you for your help!

    Read the article

  • .htaccess file on localhost throwing an error when using a Virtual Host config on my Localhost!!

    - by Chris
    I am trying to set-up my localhost development server. I have everything working but when I try to add an .htaccess it throws this error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, [no address given] and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. I dont know exactly why this is, this is pretty much the exact same setup as the other developers machine, but when using my .htaccess file I get that error. Here is my .htaccess file (NOTE: They are commented because I left my site with this setup. It only lets me view the index page. Without this .htaccess file, I can navigate.): Options -indexes RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /404 RewriteRule ^battery/([^/]+)$ /browser/product?sku=BATTERY+$1&type=battery RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/product([0-9]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&id=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)$ /browser/product.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3&id=$4 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/$ /browser/index.php [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php

    Read the article

  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

    - by Jed
    I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

    Read the article

  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

    Read the article

  • std::map keys in C++

    - by Soumava
    I have a requirement to create two different maps in C++. The Key is of type CHAR * and the Value is a pointer to a struct. I am filling 2 maps with these pairs, in separate iterations. After creating both maps I need find all such instances in which the value of the string referenced by the CHAR * are same. For this i am using the following code : typedef struct _STRUCTTYPE { .. } STRUCTTYPE, *PSTRUCTTYPE; typedef pair {CHAR *,PSTRUCTTYPE} kvpair; .. CHAR *xyz; PSTRUCTTYPE abc; after filling the information; Map.insert (kvpair(xyz,abc)); the above is repeated x times for the first map, and y times for the second map. after both are filled out; std::map {CHAR *, PSTRUCTTYPE} :: iterator Iter,findIter; for (Iter=iteratedMap-begin();Iter!=iteratedMap-end();mapIterator++) { char *key = Iter-first; printf("%s\n",key); findIter=otherMap-find(key); //printf("%u",findIter-second); if (findIter!=otherMap-end()) { printf("Match!\n"); } } The above code does not show any match, although the list of keys in both maps show obvious matches. My understanding is that the equals operator for CHAR * just equates the memory address of the pointers. My question is, what should i do to alter the equals operator for this type of key or could I use a different datatype for the string? *note : {} has been used instead of angle brackets as the content inside angle brackets was not showing up in the post.

    Read the article

  • Heapsort not working in Python for list of strings using heapq module

    - by VSN
    I was reading the python 2.7 documentation when I came across the heapq module. I was interested in the heapify() and the heappop() methods. So, I decided to write a simple heapsort program for integers: from heapq import heapify, heappop user_input = raw_input("Enter numbers to be sorted: ") data = map (int, user_input.split(",")) new_data = [] for i in range(len(data)): heapify(data) new_data.append(heappop(data)) print new_data This worked like a charm. To make it more interesting, I thought I would take away the integer conversion and leave it as a string. Logically, it should make no difference and the code should work as it did for integers: from heapq import heapify, heappop user_input = raw_input("Enter numbers to be sorted: ") data = user_input.split(",") new_data = [] for i in range(len(data)): heapify(data) print data new_data.append(heappop(data)) print new_data Note: I added a print statement in the for loop to see the heapified list. Here's the output when I ran the script: `$ python heapsort.py Enter numbers to be sorted: 4, 3, 1, 9, 6, 2 [' 1', ' 3', ' 2', ' 9', ' 6', '4'] [' 2', ' 3', '4', ' 9', ' 6'] [' 3', ' 6', '4', ' 9'] [' 6', ' 9', '4'] [' 9', '4'] ['4'] [' 1', ' 2', ' 3', ' 6', ' 9', '4']` The reasoning I applied was that since the strings are being compared, the tree should be the same if they were numbers. As is evident, the heapify didn't work correctly after the third iteration. Could someone help me figure out if I am missing something here? I'm running Python 2.4.5 on RedHat 3.4.6-9. Thanks, VSN

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

  • C++ Vector of vectors is messing with me

    - by xbonez
    If I put this code in a .cpp file and run it, it runs just fine: #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; typedef vector<int> row; typedef vector<row> myMatrix; void main() { //cout << endl << "test" << endl; myMatrix mat(2,2); mat[0][1] = 2; cout << endl << mat[0][1] << endl; } But, if I make a .h and a .cpp file with the .h file like this, it gives me boatloads of errors. #ifndef _grid_ #define _grid_ #include<iostream> #include<vector> #include<string> using namespace std; typedef vector<int> row; typedef vector<row> myMatrix; class grid { public: grid(); ~grid(); int getElement(unsigned int ri, unsigned int ci); bool setElement(unsigned int ri, unsigned int ci, unsigned int value); private: myMatrix sudoku_(9,9); }; #endif These are some of the errors I get: warning C4091: 'typedef ' : ignored on left of 'int' when no variable is declared error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int

    Read the article

  • Undefined test not working in javascript.

    - by James South
    I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

    Read the article

  • Browse for folder can't see camera device

    - by Robert Frank
    In Delphi 2010, I want to allow users to browse and select a folder. The folder is on a device (?) created by a DSLR: The folder is visible in the Windows Explorer as shown above. And, the folder is visible in a TOpenDialog, allowing them to browse into the folder and choose a file. Unfortunately, I have been unable to get either SHBrowseForFolder (code I found on the web but don't understand) or SelectDirectory to see the camera device or folder beneath it. (Side note: IMO, SelectDirectory is a far nicer UI, since the user can see the files in the folders while browsing.) I assume this has to do with the fact that the folder is in a device (?) created by the camera software. I've seen some tricks where you call TOpenDialog to browse for folders with '*.' and then ExtractFileDir on the result, but that's not robust or, IMO, a good UI. What I'm looking for is a "Browse for folder" that can see the same devices (including the camera device) the TOpenDialog & Windows Explorer can see. (Ideally, it would have the nice appearance like the one below!) Any suggestions? Image of a MS-Word's folder browsing in Win7. (I wonder if it looks this pretty in XP.)

    Read the article

  • How to style "form" field labels in Windows Phone 7?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    Is there any standards guidance on how to style field labels next to form fields in windows phone 7 silverlight applications? For example, let's say I have a StackPanel with the TextBlock label and a TextBox for data entry. Currently I am using the default TextBlock Margin included in the PhoneTextSubtleStyle ("12,0,12,0"), and using a Margin of "0,-12,0,0" to push the TextBox up closer to the label: <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="Name" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextSubtleStyle}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ItemName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="433" Margin="0,-12,0,0" /> </StackPanel> Note that the TextBox seems to have some internal padding of 12 pixels to the left and right, so that the TextBlock label and the TextBox control visually line up perfectly on the left. The problem is, I see existing apps with widely varying conventions for field label styling. Some do not do the negative margin adjustment, like I have above. Some don't. Some appear to override the label TextBlock Margin so that it is indented an additional 12 pixels on the left (i.e. "24,0,12,0" instead of the default "12,0,12,0"). Some apps put the labels to the left of the fields themselves (I hate that). Is there some standard design guidance on field labels in Windows Phone 7? I read through the design template PDF and could only determine that the field labels should be upper case on the first word (preferably only one word labels), and should NOT have a colon at the end. I didn't see anything with regards to margins or alignment between the label and the field.

    Read the article

  • Should .net comments start with a capital letter and end with a period?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Depending on the feedback I get, I might raise this "standard" with my colleagues. This might become a custom StyleCop rule. is there one written already? So, Stylecop already dictates this for summary, param, and return documentation tags. Do you think it makes sense to demand the same from comments? On related note: if a comment is already long, then should it be written as a proper sentence? For example (perhaps I tried too hard to illustrate a bad comment): //if exception quit vs. // If an exception occurred, then quit. If figured - most of the time, if one bothers to write a comment, then it might as well be informative. Consider these two samples: //if exception quit if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } and // If an exception occurred, then quit. if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } Arguably, one does not need a comment at all, but since one is provided, I would think that the second one is better. Please back up your opinion. Do you have a good reference for the art of commenting, particularly if it relates to .Net? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Emailing a fixed document through Outlook

    - by MoominTroll
    I've added functionality to an application that prints out a bunch of information to a FixedDOcument and sends this off to the printer. This works just fine, however the request is that there be an in application function that emails the document using OUtlook and its here that I come unstuck. I'd very much like to just reuse the class that makes the fixed document for printing to generate the text for email, but I'm struggling to do this. I've tried the following... Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application oApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application(); MailItem email = (MailItem)(oApp.CreateItem(OlItemType.olMailItem)); email.Recipients.Add("[email protected]"); email.Subject = "Hello"; email.Body = "TEST"; FixedDocument doc = CreateReport(); //make my fixed document //this doesn't work, and the parameters it takes suggest it never will email.Attachments.Add(doc, OlAttachmentType.olByValue, 1, null); email.Send(); I can't help but think I'm on completely the wrong tack here, but I don't really want to have to write a bunch of new text formatting (since email.Body only takes a string) when I've already got the content formatted how I want it. Note that the content is all textual, so I don't really care if it gets sent as an attachment or as text in the emails body. Ideally if its sent as an attachment it won't be saved anywhere permanently. Any pointers?

    Read the article

  • jquery problem in IE working fine in FF

    - by Bharanikumar
    function populate_customer_details(){ $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'populate_customer_details.php', data: { email : $('#txt_email_id').val() }, success : function(data){ if(data=="NOROWSFOUND"){ alert("Sorry, Email ID not exist in our database"); document.getElementById("txt_email_id").focus(); }else{ var val = explode_all_into_arr(data,"|=|"); document.getElementById("FirstName").value = val[0]; document.getElementById("LastName").value = val[1]; document.getElementById("mobilecountrycode").value = parseInt(val[2]); document.getElementById("MobileNo").value = val[3]; document.getElementById("homecountrycode").value = parseInt(val[4]); document.getElementById("HomeNo").value = val[5]; document.getElementById("PaxEmail").value = val[6]; document.getElementById("PaxEmailConf").value = val[6]; } }, }); } This is my snippet purpose is getting the customer details and populate into textfield and combo box , That is Firstname will append into Firstname text field , Secondname will append into Secondname text field , Same like mobilecountrycode (but this is dropdown combo), Some time combo selectedindex work fine, but some time not selecting the value , I am not sure what s problem in that... Nothing works in IE , Also showing object expected error in IE , i have ajax_common.js : in this i added above script , in the page top first i included the jquery.js , Then i include ajax_common.js file, But no idea why this problem. Regards (NOTE i included the jquery.js ) ,

    Read the article

  • jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

    - by AaronS
    I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

    Read the article

  • What the heck is the "Structure and Interpretation of Computer Programs" cover drawing about?

    - by Paul Reiners
    What the heck is the Structure and Interpretation of Computer Programs cover drawing about? I mean I know what "eval", "apply", and '?' all mean, but I'm having a hard time deciphering the rest of the picture. Who the heck is the maiden? Does she work for the wizard? Why the heck is she pointing at the table? Is she pointing at that little bowl-type thing? Or the books? Or the table in general? Is she trying to tell the wizard that he should apply some sort of Lisp wizardry to the table or the items on it? Or is she just telling him something prosaic, such as his food is getting cold? What the heck is the one leg on that table that looks like...a leg...with a foot at the end (as legs tend to have)? How does the table balance on one leg? (Or is that another leg in the shadows?) [Note: I'm waiting for a lengthy build to finish in case you were wondering.]

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

    - by user1855277
    I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

    Read the article

  • SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

    - by user1289508
    Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

    Read the article

  • issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

    - by ambertch
    I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >