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  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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  • Value objects in DDD - Why immutable?

    - by Hobbes
    I don't get why value objects in DDD should be immutable, nor do I see how this is easily done. (I'm focusing on C# and Entity Framework, if that matters.) For example, let's consider the classic Address value object. If you needed to change "123 Main St" to "123 Main Street", why should I need to construct a whole new object instead of saying myCustomer.Address.AddressLine1 = "123 Main Street"? (Even if Entity Framework supported structs, this would still be a problem, wouldn't it?) I understand (I think) the idea that value objects don't have an identity and are part of a domain object, but can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing? EDIT: My final question here really should be "Can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing as applied to Value Objects?" Sorry for the confusion! EDIT: To clairfy, I am not asking about CLR value types (vs reference types). I'm asking about the higher level DDD concept of Value Objects. For example, here is a hack-ish way to implement immutable value types for Entity Framework: http://rogeralsing.com/2009/05/21/entity-framework-4-immutable-value-objects. Basically, he just makes all setters private. Why go through the trouble of doing this?

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + SQL Server

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My MERGE statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My MERGE Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am I doing wrong ?

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • JS: capture a static snapshot of an object at a point in time with a method

    - by Barney
    I have a JS object I use to store DOM info for easy reference in an elaborate GUI. It starts like this: var dom = { m:{ old:{}, page:{x:0,y:0}, view:{x:0,y:0}, update:function(){ this.old = this; this.page.x = $(window).width(); this.page.y = $(window).height(); this.view.x = $(document).width(); this.view.y = window.innerHeight || $(window).height(); } I call the function on window resize: $(window).resize(function(){dom.m.update()}); The problem is with dom.m.old. I would have thought that by calling it in the dom.m.update() method before the new values for the other properties are assigned, at any point in time dom.m.old would contain a snapshot of the dom.m object as of the last update – but instead, it's always identical to dom.m. I've just got a pointless recursion method. Why isn't this working? How can I get a static snapshot of the object that won't update without being specifically told to? Comments explaining how I shouldn't even want to be doing anything remotely like this in the first place are very welcome :)

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  • new Facebook Like button for Blogger

    - by David
    I want to add the new facebook like button to my blogger website. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like I have to pass the url to the blog posts in the iframe src tag. I can get the blogger posts url from <data:post.url/> but I can't put that in a src string because Bloggers template system is weird. I want to do this:<iframe allowTransparency='true' frameborder='0' scrolling='no' src='http://www.facebook.com/plugins/like.php?href=<data:post.url/>&amp;layout=standard&amp;show-faces=true&amp;width=450&amp;action=like&amp;colorscheme=light' style='border:none; overflow:hidden; width:450px; height:px'/>but blogger complains: "Your template could not be parsed as it is not well-formed. Please make sure all XML elements are closed properly. XML error message: The value of attribute "src" associated with an element type "null" must not contain the '<' character." Anybody have this working yet?

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  • Passing data structures to different threads

    - by Robb
    I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

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  • Embedded Jetty resourceBase classpath URL

    - by drewzilla
    I'm embedding Jetty in a Spring based application. I configure my Jetty server in a Spring context file. The specific part of the configuration I'm having trouble with is this: <bean class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <property name="contextPath" value="/" /> <property name="resourceBase" value="????????" /> <property name="parentLoaderPriority" value="true" /> </bean> If you see above, where I've put the ????????, I ideally want the resourceBase to reference a folder on my classpath. I'm deploying my application in a single executable JAR file and have a folder config/web/WEB-INF on my classpath. Jetty seems to be able to handle URLs defined in the resourceBase (e.g. jar:file:/myapp.jar!/config/web) but it doesn't seem to support classpath URLs. I get an IllegalArgumentException if I define something like classpath:config/web. This is a real pain for me. Does anyone know of anyway to achieve this functionality? Thanks, Andrew

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  • Super simple CSS tooltip in a table, why is it not displaying and can I make it work?

    - by Kyle Sevenoaks
    Hi, I have been trying to implement many different tooltips on this page for my client, he's adamant that we have a picture of the product show up when you hover over the product name in the order page. I decided to use the super simple CSS tooltip, it's very easy to implement and does exactly what we want. It works on a dynamic page, the others I tried didn't. I have made an example here: CSS tooltip in table example. This page used to be displayed using divs, I have since changed it to a table, as it's tabular data and easier to work with. It worked fine when it used divs, now it's in a table, it won't display the span on hover. My questions are: Why is it not working? How can I make it work? If not, does anyone know another super easy to implement tooltip that can work properly on a dynamic page? Here's the DIV tooltip for reference: DIV display tooltip. Edit: Just noticed it kinda half works in IE8. Thanks.

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  • How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

    - by Bungle
    Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

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  • JavaScript: Achieving precise animation end values?

    - by bobthabuilda
    I'm currently trying to write my own JavaScript library. I'm in the middle of writing an animation callback, but I'm having trouble getting precise end values, especially when animation duration times are smaller. Right now, I'm only targeting positional animation (left, top, right, bottom). When my animations complete, they end up having an error margin of 5px~ on faster animations, and 0.5px~ on animations 1000+ ms or greater. Here's the bulk of the callback, with notes following. var current = parseFloat( this[0].style[prop] || 0 ) // If our target value is greater than the current , gt = !!( value > current ) , delta = ( Math.abs(current - value) / (duration / 13) ) * (gt ? 1 : -1) , elem = this[0] , anim = setInterval( function(){ elem.style[prop] = ( current + delta ) + 'px'; current = parseFloat( elem.style[prop] ); if ( gt && current >= value || !gt && current <= value ) clearInterval( anim ); }, 13 ); this[0] and elem both reference the target DOM element. prop references the property to animate, left, top, bottom, right, etc. current is the current value of the DOM element's property. value is the desired value to animate to. duration is the specified duration (in ms) that the animation should last. 13 is the setInterval delay (which should roughly be the absolute minimal for all browsers). gt is a var that is true if value exceeds the initial current, else it is false. How can I resolve the error margin?

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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  • Retrieve property from classpath inside POM

    - by Jeroen
    For my current project I want to integrate a maven plug-in for database migrations. For this plug-in to work, however, I have to obtain the database settings inside my POM. My database settings are currently placed inside a hibernate.properties file, positioned in a directory that is marked as maven resource. For a variety of reasons I do not want to duplicate my database configurations in both the pom and hibernate.properties. I'm aware that maven offers a "filtering" ability which makes it possible to specify the database settings as property inside my POM, and reference them inside my hibernate.properties as ${property_name}. But as I'm using multiple maven profiles, with different property resources, this is not a suitable solution. Instead I'd like my database configurations to be loaded from a property file inside my classpath (e.g. classpath:hibernate.properties), and use these properties in my migration plug-in configuration. I have already tried the org.codehaus.mojo » properties-maven-plugin, but this plug-in only accepts absolute locations. Is there a plug-in which can scan all my maven resources for a certain property?

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  • C# System.Xml.Serialization Self-nested elements

    - by Jake
    Hi, I am trying to deserialize <graph> <node> <node> <node></node> </node> </node> <node> <node> <node></node> </node> </node> </graph> with [XmlRoot("graph")] class graph { List<node> _children = new List<node>(); [XmlElement("node")] public Node[] node { get { return _children.ToArray(); } set { foreach(node n in value) children.add(n) } }; } class node { List<node> _children = new List<node>(); [XmlElement("node")] public Node[] node { get { return _children.ToArray(); } set { foreach(node n in value) children.add(n) } }; } but it keeps saying object not created, null reference encountered when trying to set children nodes. What is wrong above? Thanks in advance~

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  • Help understanding .NET delegates, events, and eventhandlers

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, In the last couple of days I asked a couple of questions about delegates HERE and HERE. I confess...I don't really understand delegates. And I REALLY REALLY REALLY want to understand and master them. (I can define them--type safe function pointers--but since I have little experience with C type languages it is not really helpful.) Can anyone recommend some online resource(s) that will explain delegates in a way that presumes nothing? This is one of those moments where I suspect that VB actually handicaps me because it does some wiring for me behind the scenes. The ideal resource would just explain what delegates are, without reference to anything else like (events and eventhandlers), would show me how all everything is wired up, explain (as I just learned) that delegates are types and what makes them unique as a type (perhaps using a little ildasm magic)). That foundation would then expand to explain how delegates are related to events and eventhandlers which would need a pretty good explanation in there own right. Finally this resource could tie it all together using real examples and explain what wiring DOES happen automatically by the compiler, how to use them, etc. And, oh yeah, when you should and should not use delegates, in other words, downsides and alternatives to using delegates. What say ye? Can any of you point me to resource(s) that can help me begin my journey to mastery? EDIT One last thing. The ideal resource will explain how you can and cannot use delegates in an interface declaration. That is something that really tripped me up. Thanks for your help. Seth

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  • JDO difficulties in retrieving persistent vector

    - by Michael Omer
    I know there are already some posts regarding this subject, but although I tried using them as a reference, I am still stuck. I have a persistent class as follows: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObject implements IMySerializable{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) protected Key m_databaseKey; @NotPersistent private final static int END_GAME_VAR = -1000; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") protected GameObjectSet m_set; @Persistent protected int m_databaseType = IDatabaseAccess.TYPE_NONE; where GameObjectSet is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) @FetchGroup(name = "mySet", members = {@Persistent(name = "m_set")}) public class GameObjectSet { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private Vector<GameObjectSetPair> m_set; and GameObjectSetPair is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObjectSetPair { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private String key; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") private GameObjectVar value; When I try to fetch the entire structure by fetching the GameObject, the set doesn't have any elements (they are all null) I tried adding the fetching group to the PM, but to no avail. This is my fetching code Vector<GameObject> ret = new Vector<GameObject>(); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); pm.getFetchPlan().setMaxFetchDepth(-1); pm.getFetchPlan().addGroup("mySet"); Query myQuery = pm.newQuery(GameObject.class); myQuery.setFilter("m_databaseType == objectType"); myQuery.declareParameters("int objectType"); try { List<GameObject> res = (List<GameObject>)myQuery.execute(objectType); ret = new Vector<GameObject>(res); for (int i = 0; i < ret.size(); i++) { ret.elementAt(i).getSet(); ret.elementAt(i).getSet().touchSet(); } } catch (Exception e) { } finally { pm.close(); } Does anyone have any idea? Thanks Mike

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  • Use AJAX to reload captcha

    - by arik-so
    Hello! This question may have been asked already - but unfortunately, I could not find any satisfactory answers. I will just ask it for my concrete case and ask the admins not to delete the question for at least a few days so I can try it out... I have a page. It uses a captcha. Like so: <?php session_start(); // the captcha saves the md5 into the session ?> <img src="captcha.php" onclick="this.src = this.src" /> That was my first code. It did not work, because the browser condsidered it useless to reload an image if the source is the same. My current solution is to pass a get parameter: onclick="this.src = 'captcha.php?randomNumber='+ranNum" The JavaScript variable var ranNum is generated randomly every time the onclick event fires. It works fine, still, I don't like the possibility, if the - though improbable - case of two numbers being the same twice in a row. Although the random number varies between -50,000 and 50,000 - I still do not like it. And I don't think the method is right. I would like to know the 'righter' method, by means of AJAX. I know it's possible. I hope you know how it's possible ^^ In that case, please show me. Thanks in advance! By the way - if I spell cap(t)cha differently, never mind, the reference to the PHP file is right in my code: I use randomImage.php

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  • How to run the HelloWorld ODE from the browser?

    - by tikky
    I develop a simple hello world project by using Eclipse IDE. I can run it from the IDE (Web Services - Test with Web Services Explorer). From that it work perfectly, but if I try to access the http://localhost:8080/ode/processes/HelloWorld/ It gives some exceptions. org.apache.axis2.AxisFault: The endpoint reference (EPR) for the Operation not found is /ode/processes/HelloWorld/ and the WSA Action = null at org.apache.axis2.engine.DispatchPhase.checkPostConditions(DispatchPhase.java:86) at org.apache.axis2.engine.Phase.invoke(Phase.java:308) at org.apache.axis2.engine.AxisEngine.invoke(AxisEngine.java:212) at org.apache.axis2.engine.AxisEngine.receive(AxisEngine.java:132) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.util.RESTUtil.invokeAxisEngine(RESTUtil.java:125) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.util.RESTUtil.processURLRequest(RESTUtil.java:119) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.AxisServlet$RestRequestProcessor.processURLRequest(AxisServlet.java:799) at org.apache.axis2.transport.http.AxisServlet.doGet(AxisServlet.java:242) at org.apache.ode.axis2.hooks.ODEAxisServlet.doGet(ODEAxisServlet.java:62) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:286) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:845) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:447) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:729) What may be the issue and how to develop it as, input values through the web browser and get the output from it. Thank you.

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  • specifying multiple URLs with cURL/PHP using square brackets

    - by Raj Gundu
    I have a large array of URLS similar to this: $nodes = array( 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=1&sortOn=sellprice', 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=2&sortOn=sellprice', 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=3&sortOn=sellprice' ); The cURL manual states here (http://curl.haxx.se/docs/manpage.html) that i can use square brackets '[]' to specify multiple urls. Used in the above example this would be similar to this: 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=[1-3]&sortOn=sellprice' So far i have been unable to reference this correctly. This is the complete code segment I'm currently trying to utilize this with: $nodes = array( 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=1&sortOn=sellprice', 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=2&sortOn=sellprice', 'http://www.example.com/product.php?page=3&sortOn=sellprice' ); $node_count = count($nodes); $curl_arr = array(); $master = curl_multi_init(); for($i = 0; $i < $node_count; $i++) { $url =$nodes[$i]; $curl_arr[$i] = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($curl_arr[$i], CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_multi_add_handle($master, $curl_arr[$i]); } do { curl_multi_exec($master,$running); } while($running > 0); echo "results: "; for($i = 0; $i < $node_count; $i++) { $results = curl_multi_getcontent ( $curl_arr[$i] ); echo( $i . "\n" . $results . "\n"); echo 'done'; I can't seem to find any more documentation on this. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with using malloc in link lists (urgent ! help please)

    - by Abhinav
    I've been working on this program for five months now. Its a real time application of a sensor network. I create several link lists during the life of the program and Im using malloc for creating a new node in the link. What happens is that the program suddenly stops or goes crazy and restarts. Im using AVR and the microcontroller is ATMEGA 1281. After a lot of debugging I figured out that that the malloc is causing the problem. I do not free the memory after exiting the function that creates a new link so Im guessing that this is eventually causing the heap memory to overflow or something like that. Now if I use the free() function to deallocate the memory at the end of the function using malloc, the program just gets stuck when the control reaches free(). Is this because the memory becomes too clustered after calling free() ? I also create reference tables for example if 'head' is a new link list and I create another list called current and make it equal to head. table *head; table *current = head; After the end of the function if I use free free(current); current = NULL: Then the program gets stuck here. I dont know what to do. What am I doing wrong? Is there a way to increase the size of the heap memory Please help...

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  • Cookie add in the Global.asax warning in application log

    - by Ioxp
    In my Global.ASAX file i have the following: System.Web.HttpCookie isAccess = new System.Web.HttpCookie("IsAccess"); isAccess.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1); isAccess.Value = ""; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(isAccess); So every time this method this is logged in the application events as a warning: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 5/25/2010 12:23:20 PM Event time (UTC): 5/25/2010 4:23:20 PM Event ID: c515e27a28474eab8d99720c3f5a8e90 Event sequence: 4148 Event occurrence: 332 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2100509645/Root-1-129192259222289896 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: <PathRemoved>\www\ Machine name: TIPPER Process information: Process ID: 6936 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: NullReferenceException Exception message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Request information: Request URL: Request path: User host address: User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at ASP.global_asax.Session_End(Object sender, EventArgs e) in <PathRemoved>\Global.asax:line 113 Any idea why this code would cause this error?

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  • Backreferences syntax in replacement strings (why dollar sign?)

    - by polygenelubricants
    In Java, and it seems in a few other languages, backreferences in the pattern is preceded by a slash (e.g. \1, \2, \3, etc), but in a replacement string it's preceded by a dollar sign (e.g. $1, $2, $3, and also $0). Here's a snippet to illustrate: System.out.println( "left-right".replaceAll("(.*)-(.*)", "\\2-\\1") // WRONG!!! ); // prints "2-1" System.out.println( "left-right".replaceAll("(.*)-(.*)", "$2-$1") // CORRECT! ); // prints "right-left" System.out.println( "You want million dollar?!?".replaceAll("(\\w*) dollar", "US\\$ $1") ); // prints "You want US$ million?!?" System.out.println( "You want million dollar?!?".replaceAll("(\\w*) dollar", "US$ \\1") ); // throws IllegalArgumentException: Illegal group reference Questions: Is the use of $ for backreferences in replacement strings unique to Java? If not, what language started it? What flavors use it and what don't? Why is this a good idea? Why not stick to the same pattern syntax? Wouldn't that lead to a more cohesive and an easier to learn language? Wouldn't the syntax be more streamlined if statements 1 and 4 in the above were the "correct" ones instead of 2 and 3?

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  • spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

    - by mdma
    I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

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  • Create xml document in java applet.

    - by zproxy
    If I try to create a new xml document in a java applet by this code: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.4.2/docs/api/javax/xml/parsers/DocumentBuilderFactory.html#newInstance() DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); I will get this error: Java Plug-in 1.6.0_19 Using JRE version 1.6.0_19-b04 Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM javax.xml.parsers.FactoryConfigurationError: Provider <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> not found at javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(Unknown Source) I do not care about DTD's. Why is it looking for it? How am I supposed to create a xml document in java applets? How can I make it work? The enclosing html document looks like this: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Loading...</title> </head> Can some comment this thread? The problem was with the entity resolver, which points to the w3c.org web site. The access to the reference DTDs on this site has been restricted for application use. The solution was to implement my own entity resolver. Related: http://forums.sun.com/thread.jspa?threadID=515055 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1016286/org-apache-xerces-jaxp-saxparserfactoryimpl-not-found-when-importing-gears-api-in http://java.itags.org/java-desktop/4839/

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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