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  • should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

    - by Sudhi
    I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

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  • SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

    - by Anthony
    Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

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  • How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

    - by prepbgg
    My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

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  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

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  • Enums, Constructor overloads with similar conversions.

    - by David Thornley
    Why does VisualC++ (2008) get confused 'C2666: 2 overloads have similar conversions' when I specify an enum as the second parameter, but not when I define a bool type? Shouldn't type matching already rule out the second constructor because it is of a 'basic_string' type? #include <string> using namespace std; enum EMyEnum { mbOne, mbTwo }; class test { public: #if 1 // 0 = COMPILE_OK, 1 = COMPILE_FAIL test(basic_string<char> myString, EMyEnum myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #else test(basic_string<char> myString, bool myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #endif }; void testme() { test("test", mbOne); } I can work around this by specifying a reference 'ie. basic_string &myString' but not if it is 'const basic_string &myString'. Also calling explicitly via "test((basic_string)"test", mbOne);" also works. I suspect this has something to do with every expression/type being resolved to a bool via an inherent '!=0'. Curious for comments all the same :)

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  • PHP: Next Available Value in an Array, starting with a non-indexed value

    - by Erik Smith
    I've been stumped on this PHP issue for about a day now. Basically, we have an array of hours formatted in 24-hour format, and an arbitrary value ($hour) (also a 24-hour). The problem is, we need to take $hour, and get the next available value in the array, starting with the value that immediately proceeds $hour. The array might look something like: $goodHours = array('8,9,10,11,12,19,20,21). Then the hour value might be: $hour = 14; So, we need some way to know that 19 is the next best time. Additionally, we might also need to get the second, third, or fourth (etc) available value. The issue seems to be that because 14 isn't a value in the array, there is not index to reference that would let us increment to the next value. To make things simpler, I've taken $goodHours and repeated the values several times just so I don't have to deal with going back to the start (maybe not the best way to do it, but a quick fix). I have a feeling this is something simple I'm missing, but I would be so appreciative if anyone could shed some light. Erik

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  • Image resizing - sometimes very poor quality?!

    - by eWolf
    I'm resizing some images to the screen resolution of the user; if the aspect ratio is wrong, the image should be cut. My code looks like this: protected void ConvertToBitmap(string filename) { var origImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(filename); var widthDivisor = (double)origImg.Width / (double)System.Windows.Forms.Screen.PrimaryScreen.Bounds.Width; var heightDivisor = (double)origImg.Height / (double)System.Windows.Forms.Screen.PrimaryScreen.Bounds.Height; int newWidth, newHeight; if (widthDivisor < heightDivisor) { newWidth = (int)((double)origImg.Width / widthDivisor); newHeight = (int)((double)origImg.Height / widthDivisor); } else { newWidth = (int)((double)origImg.Width / heightDivisor); newHeight = (int)((double)origImg.Height / heightDivisor); } var newImg = origImg.GetThumbnailImage(newWidth, newHeight, null, IntPtr.Zero); newImg.Save(this.GetBitmapPath(filename), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp); } In most cases, this works fine. But for some images, the result has an extremely poor quality. It looks like the would have been resized to something very small (thumbnail size) and enlarged again.. But the resolution of the image is correct. What can I do? Example orig image: Example resized image: Note: I have a WPF application but I use the WinForms function for resizing because it's easier and because I already need a reference to System.Windows.Forms for a tray icon.

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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  • Passing Derived Class Instances as void* to Generic Callbacks in C++

    - by Matthew Iselin
    This is a bit of an involved problem, so I'll do the best I can to explain what's going on. If I miss something, please tell me so I can clarify. We have a callback system where on one side a module or application provides a "Service" and clients can perform actions with this Service (A very rudimentary IPC, basically). For future reference let's say we have some definitions like so: typedef int (*callback)(void*); // This is NOT in our code, but makes explaining easier. installCallback(string serviceName, callback cb); // Really handled by a proper management system sendMessage(string serviceName, void* arg); // arg = value to pass to callback This works fine for basic types such as structs or builtins. We have an MI structure a bit like this: Device <- Disk <- MyDiskProvider class Disk : public virtual Device class MyDiskProvider : public Disk The provider may be anything from a hardware driver to a bit of glue that handles disk images. The point is that classes inherit Disk. We have a "service" which is to be notified of all new Disks in the system, and this is where things unravel: void diskHandler(void *p) { Disk *pDisk = reinterpret_cast<Disk*>(p); // Uh oh! // Remainder is not important } SomeDiskProvider::initialise() { // Probe hardware, whatever... // Tell the disk system we're here! sendMessage("disk-handler", reinterpret_cast<void*>(this)); // Uh oh! } The problem is, SomeDiskProvider inherits Disk, but the callback handler can't receive that type (as the callback function pointer must be generic). Could RTTI and templates help here? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • how to implement a sparse_vector class

    - by Neil G
    I am implementing a templated sparse_vector class. It's like a vector, but it only stores elements that are different from their default constructed value. So, sparse_vector would store the index-value pairs for all indices whose value is not T(). I am basing my implementation on existing sparse vectors in numeric libraries-- though mine will handle non-numeric types T as well. I looked at boost::numeric::ublas::coordinate_vector and eigen::SparseVector. Both store: size_t* indices_; // a dynamic array T* values_; // a dynamic array int size_; int capacity_; Why don't they simply use vector<pair<size_t, T>> data_; My main question is what are the pros and cons of both systems, and which is ultimately better? The vector of pairs manages size_ and capacity_ for you, and simplifies the accompanying iterator classes; it also has one memory block instead of two, so it incurs half the reallocations, and might have better locality of reference. The other solution might search more quickly since the cache lines fill up with only index data during a search. There might also be some alignment advantages if T is an 8-byte type? It seems to me that vector of pairs is the better solution, yet both containers chose the other solution. Why?

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  • WPF - How to stop an ItemsControl psuedo-grid's columns from dancing/jumping around during layout

    - by Drew Noakes
    Several other questions on SO have come to the same conclusion I have -- using an ItemsControl with a DataTemplate for each item constructed to position items such that they resemble a grid is much simpler (especially to format) than using a ListView. The code resembles: <StackPanel Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <!-- Header --> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="Column Header 1" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="Column Header 2" /> </Grid> <!-- Items --> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Values, Mode=OneWay}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty1}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty2}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> The problem I'm seeing is that whenever I swap the object to which the ItemsSource is bound (it's an ObservableCollection that I replace the reference to, rather than clear and re-add), the entire 'grid' dances about for a few seconds. Presumably it is making a few layout passes to get all the Auto-width columns to match up. This is very distracting for my users and I'd like to get it sorted out. Has anyone else seen this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

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  • Load collections eagerly in NHibernate using Criteria API

    - by Zuber
    I have an entity A which HasMany entities B and entities C. All entities A, B and C have some references x,y and z which should be loaded eagerly. I want to read from the database all entities A, and load the collections of B and C eagerly using criteria API. So far, I am able to fetch the references in 'A' eagerly. But when the collections are loaded, the references within them are lazily loaded. Here is how I do it AllEntities_A = _session.CreateCriteria(typeof(A)) .SetFetchMode("x", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("y", FetchMode.Eager) .List<A>().AsQueryable(); The mapping of entity A using Fluent is as shown below. _B and _C are private ILists for B & C respectively in A. Id(c => c.SystemId); Version(c => c.Version); References(c => c.x).Cascade.All(); References(c => c.y).Cascade.All(); HasMany<B>(Reveal.Property<A>("_B")) .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Not.LazyLoad() .Inverse() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany<C>(Reveal.Property<A>("_C")) .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .LazyLoad() .Inverse() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); I don't want to make changes to the mapping file, and would like to load the entire entity A eagerly. i.e. I should get a List of A's where there will be List of B's and C's whose reference properties will also be loaded eagerly

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  • Awkward looking uses of Contract.ValueAtReturn()

    - by devoured elysium
    I am designing a method that will add an element to an internal list. The structure of the class is something along the lines of: class MyCustomerDatabase { private IList<Customer> _customers = new List<Customer>(); public int NumberOfCustomers { get { return _customers; } } public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { _customers.Add(customer); } } Now, I was thinking of adding a Contract.Ensures() about the size of the _customers growing by 1 with this call. The problem is that I end up with some weird looking code: public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); _customers.Add(customer); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; } The main problem is that properties are in fact methods, so you can't just reference them direcly when using Contract.ValueAtReturn() as its only parameter accepts variables as out. The situation gets even odder if I want to achieve the same but this time with a method that should return a value: public int MyReturningMethod() { ... return abc(); //abc will add by one the number of customers in list } //gets converted to public int MyReturningMethod() { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); int returnValue = abc(); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; return returnValue; } This seems pretty clumsy :( Code Contracts should aim to get things clearer and this seems right the opposite. Am I doing something wrong? Thanks

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  • ViewModel Views relation/link/syncroniztion

    - by mehran
    Third try to describing problem: Try 1: Sunchronizing view model and view Try2: WPF ViewModel not active presenter Try3: I have some class for view models: public class Node : INotifyPropertyChanged { Guid NodeId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Connection: INotifyPropertyChanged { public Node StartNode { get; set; } public Node EndNode { get; set; } } public class SettingsPackModel { public List<Node> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<Connection> Connections { get; private set; } } I also have some templates to displays these models: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Node}">…</DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Connection}"> <my:ConnectionElment StartNodeElment="???" EndNodeElment="???"> </my:ConnectionElment> <DataTemplate> But the problem is that DataTemplate for Connection need reference ot two element of type UIElement , how can I pass these two, how can I fill ??? in above expression?

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  • How do I grab and use a variables coming back through ValueList from an AJAX call?

    - by Mel
    I'm trying the following code to execute a search and it's not working. On the search.cfm page, the only value coming back is the value I input into the search field (even if I click an autosuggest value, it's not coming back; only the letters I actually type myself come back). <cfform class="titleSearchForm" id="searchForm" action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" method="post"> <fieldset> <cfinput type="text" class="titleSearchField" name="TitleName" onChange="form.submit()" autosuggest="cfc:gz.cfcomp.search.AutoSuggestSearch({cfautosuggestvalue})"> <input type="button" class="titleSearchButton" value=" " /> </fieldset> </cfform> Query in CFC: <cfquery name="SearchResult" datasource="myDSN"> SELECT CONCAT(titles.TitleName, ' on ', platforms.PlatformAbbreviation) AS sResult, games.GameID FROM games Inner Join platforms ON games.PlatformID = platforms.PlatformID Inner Join titles ON titles.TitleID = games.TitleID WHERE UCase(titleName) LIKE Ucase('#ARGUMENTS.SearchString#%') ORDER BY titleName ASC; </cfquery> Two things: First of all, I would like to get the GameID back to the page making the AJAX request; I know why it is not coming back: Because I'm only returning sResult var, which does not include the GameID. Is there a way to return the GameID value without displaying it? The second thing: How to I grab a value from the auto-suggest once it is returned? Say I want to grab the GameID, or if I can't do that, the "TitleName" to use that in my query? I tried passing it to the form this way: action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" - but that does not work. How do I reference the autosuggestionvalue varaibles for use? Thanks

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  • Using XPath on String in Android (JAVA)

    - by Rav
    I am looking for some examples of using xpath in Android? Or if anyone can share their experiences. I have been struggeling to make tail or head of this problem :-( I have a string that contains a standard xml file. I believe I need to convert that into an xml document. I have found this code which I think will do the trick: public static Document stringToDom(String xmlSource) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); return builder.parse(new InputSource(new StringReader(xmlSource))); } Next steps Assuming the code above is OK, I need to apply xpath to get values from cat: "/animal/mammal/feline/cat" I look at the dev doc here: http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/xml/xpath/XPath.html and also look online, but I am not sure where to start! I have tried to use the following code: XPathFactory xPathFactory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); // To get an instance of the XPathFactory object itself. XPath xPath = xPathFactory.newXPath(); // Create an instance of XPath from the factory class. String expression = "SomeXPathExpression"; XPathExpression xPathExpression = xPath.compile(expression); // Compile the expression to get a XPathExpression object. Object result = xPathExpression.evaluate(xmlDocument); // Evaluate the expression against the XML Document to get the result. But I get "Cannot be resolved". Eclipse doesn't seem to be able to fix this import. I tried manually entering: javax.xml.xpath.XPath But this did not work. Does anyone know any good source code that I can utilise, for Android platform? 1.5

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  • Technical choices in unmarshaling hash-consed data

    - by Pascal Cuoq
    There seems to be quite a bit of folklore knowledge floating about in restricted circles about the pitfalls of hash-consing combined with marshaling-unmarshaling of data. I am looking for citable references to these tidbits. For instance, someone once pointed me to library aterm and mentioned that the authors had clearly thought about this and that the representation on disk was bottom-up (children of a node come before the node itself in the data stream). This is indeed the right way to do things when you need to re-share each node (with a possible identical node already in memory). This re-sharing pass needs to be done bottom-up, so the unmarshaling itself might as well be, too, so that it's possible to do everything in a single pass. I am in the process of describing difficulties encountered in our own context, and the solutions we found. I would appreciate any citable reference to the kind of aforementioned folklore knowledge. Some people obviously have encountered the problems before (the aterm library is only one example). But I didn't find anything in writing. Even the little piece of information I have about aterm is hear-say. I am not worried it's not reliable (you can't make this up), but "personal communication" and "look how it's done in the source code" are considered poor form in citations. I have enough references on hash-consing alone. I am only interested in references where it interferes with other aspects of programming, such as marshaling or distribution.

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  • pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

    - by jeffn825
    I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • Add two 32-bit integers in Assembler for use in VB6

    - by Emtucifor
    I would like to come up with the byte code in assembler (assembly?) for Windows machines to add two 32-bit longs and throw away the carry bit. I realize the "Windows machines" part is a little vague, but I'm assuming that the bytes for ADD are pretty much the same in all modern Intel instruction sets. I'm just trying to abuse VB a little and make some things faster. So... if the string "8A4C240833C0F6C1E075068B442404D3E0C20800" is the assembly code for SHL that can be "injected" into a VB6 program for a fast SHL operation expecting two Long parameters (we're ignoring here that 32-bit longs in VB6 are signed, just pretend they are unsigned), what is the hex string of bytes representing assembler instructions that will do the same thing to return the sum? The hex code above for SHL is, according to the author: mov eax, [esp+4] mov cl, [esp+8] shl eax, cl ret 8 I spit those bytes into a file and tried unassembling them in a windows command prompt using the old debug utility, but I figured out it's not working with the newer instruction set because it didn't like EAX when I tried assembling something but it was happy with AX. I know from comments in the source code that SHL EAX, CL is D3E0, but I don't have any reference to know what the bytes are for instruction ADD EAX, CL or I'd try it. I tried flat assembler and am not getting anything I can figure out how to use. I used it to assemble the original SHL code and got a very different result, not the same bytes. Help?

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  • Exporting Maven properties from Ant code

    - by Gili
    I've embedded the following code within my POM: <plugin name="test"> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <pathconvert targetos="unix" property="project.build.directory.portable"> <path location="${project.build.directory}"/> </pathconvert> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I then reference ${project.build.directory.portable} from the run project action but it comes back as null. Executing <echo> within the Ant block shows the correct value. What am I doing wrong?

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