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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

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  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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  • Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

    - by Jay
    A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

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  • How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

    - by nahsra
    I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • android logging sdcard

    - by Abhi Rao
    Hello, With Android-Emulator I am not able to write/create a file on the SD Card (for logging). Here is what I have done so far - Run mksdcard 8192K C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard\emu_logFile - Create a new AVD, when assign emu_logFile to it so that when I view the AVD Details it says C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard\emu_logFile against the field "SD Card" - Here is the relevant code public class ZLogger { static PrintWriter zLogWriter = null; private static void Initialize() { try { File sdDir = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); if (sdDir.canWrite()) { : File logFile = new File (sdDir, VERSION.RELEASE + "_" + ".log"); FileWriter logFileWriter = new FileWriter(logFile); zLogWriter = new PrintWriter(logFileWriter); zLogWriter.write("\n\n - " + date + " - \n"); } } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("ZLogger", "Count not write to file: " + e.getMessage()); } } sdDir.canWrite returns false - please note it not the exception from adb shell when I do ls I see sdcard as link to /mnt/sdcard. When I do ls -l /mnt here is what I see ls -l /mnt ls -l /mnt drwxr-xr-x root system 2010-12-24 03:41 asec drwx------ root root 2010-12-24 03:41 secure d--------- system system 2010-12-24 03:41 sdcard whereas if I go to the directory where I created emu_sdcard - I see a lock has been issued, as shown here C:dir android-dev\emu_sdcard Volume in drive C is Preload Volume Serial Number is A4F3-6C29 Directory of C:\android-dev\emu_sdcard 12/24/2010 03:41 AM . 12/24/2010 03:41 AM .. 12/24/2010 03:17 AM 8,388,608 emu_logFile 12/24/2010 03:41 AM emu_logFile.lock 1 File(s) 8,388,608 bytes 3 Dir(s) 50,347,704,320 bytes free I have looked at these and other SO questions Android Emulator sdcard push error: Read-only file system (2) Not able to view SDCard folder in the FileExplorer of Android Eclipse I have added the following to AndroidManifest.xml **uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" ** Please let me know your thoughts - what am I missing here? Why does canWrite return false? What should I do to add permissions to sdcard?

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  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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  • DjangoUnicodeDecodeError while storing pickle'd data.

    - by Jack M.
    I've got a simple dict object I'm trying to store in the database after it has been run through pickle. It seems that Django doesn't like trying to encode this error. I've checked with MySQL, and the query isn't even getting there before it is throwing the error, so I don't believe that is the problem. The dict I'm storing looks like this: { 'ordered': [ { 'value': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', 'label': u'Full Name' }, { 'value': u'123-456-7890', 'label': u'Phone Number' }, { 'value': u'[email protected]', 'label': u'Email Address' } ], 'cleaned_data': { u'Phone Number': u'123-456-7890', u'Full Name': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', u'Email Address': u'[email protected]' }, 'post_data': <QueryDict: { u'Phone Number': [u'1234567890'], u'Full Name_1': [u'Last\xd1ame'], u'Full Name_0': [u'First\xd1ame'], u'Email Address': [u'[email protected]'] }>, 'user': <User: itis> } The error that gets thrown is: 'utf8' codec can't decode bytes in position 52-53: invalid data. Position 52-53 is the first instance of \xd1 (Ñ) in the pickled data. So far, I've dug around StackOverflow and found a few questions where the database encoding for the objects was wrong. This doesn't help me because there is no MySQL query yet. This is happening before the database. Google also didn't help much when searching for unicode errors on pickled data. It is probably worth mentioning that if I don't use the Ñ, this code works fine.

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  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

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  • Function syntax puzzler in scalaz

    - by oxbow_lakes
    Following watching Nick Partidge's presentation on deriving scalaz, I got to looking at this example, which is just awesome: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ def even(x: Int) : Validation[NonEmptyList[String], Int] = if (x % 2 ==0) x.success else "not even: %d".format(x).wrapNel.fail println( even(3) <|*|> even(5) ) //prints: Failure(NonEmptyList(not even: 3, not even: 5)) I was trying to understand what the <|*|> method was doing, here is the source code: def <|*|>[B](b: M[B])(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[(A, B)] = <**>(b, (_: A, _: B)) OK, that is fairly confusing (!) - but it references the <**> method, which is declared thus: def <**>[B, C](b: M[B], z: (A, B) => C)(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[C] = a(t.fmap(value, z.curried), b) So I have a few questions: How come the method appears to take a monad of one type parameter (M[B]) but can get passed a Validation (which has two type paremeters)? How does the syntax (_: A, _: B) define the function (A, B) => C which the 2nd method expects? It doesn't even define an output via =>

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  • SQL Server Search Proper Names Full Text Index vs LIKE + SOUNDEX

    - by Matthew Talbert
    I have a database of names of people that has (currently) 35 million rows. I need to know what is the best method for quickly searching these names. The current system (not designed by me), simply has the first and last name columns indexed and uses "LIKE" queries with the additional option of using SOUNDEX (though I'm not sure this is actually used much). Performance has always been a problem with this system, and so currently the searches are limited to 200 results (which still takes too long to run). So, I have a few questions: Does full text index work well for proper names? If so, what is the best way to query proper names? (CONTAINS, FREETEXT, etc) Is there some other system (like Lucene.net) that would be better? Just for reference, I'm using Fluent NHibernate for data access, so methods that work will with that will be preferred. I'm using SQL Server 2008 currently. EDIT I want to add that I'm very interested in solutions that will deal with things like commonly misspelled names, eg 'smythe', 'smith', as well as first names, eg 'tomas', 'thomas'. Query Plan |--Parallelism(Gather Streams) |--Nested Loops(Inner Join, OUTER REFERENCES:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id], [Expr1004]) OPTIMIZED WITH UNORDERED PREFETCH) |--Hash Match(Inner Join, HASH:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])=([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])) | |--Bitmap(HASH:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id]), DEFINE:([Bitmap1003])) | | |--Parallelism(Repartition Streams, Hash Partitioning, PARTITION COLUMNS:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])) | | |--Index Seek(OBJECT:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[IX_Test_LastName]), SEEK:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[LastName] >= 'WHITDþ' AND [testdb].[dbo].[Test].[LastName] < 'WHITF'), WHERE:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[LastName] like 'WHITE%') ORDERED FORWARD) | |--Parallelism(Repartition Streams, Hash Partitioning, PARTITION COLUMNS:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id])) | |--Index Seek(OBJECT:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[IX_Test_FirstName]), SEEK:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[FirstName] >= 'THOMARþ' AND [testdb].[dbo].[Test].[FirstName] < 'THOMAT'), WHERE:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[FirstName] like 'THOMAS%' AND PROBE([Bitmap1003],[testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id],N'[IN ROW]')) ORDERED FORWARD) |--Clustered Index Seek(OBJECT:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[PK__TEST__3214EC073B95D2F1]), SEEK:([testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id]=[testdb].[dbo].[Test].[Id]) LOOKUP ORDERED FORWARD) SQL for above: SELECT * FROM testdb.dbo.Test WHERE LastName LIKE 'WHITE%' AND FirstName LIKE 'THOMAS%' Based on advice from Mitch, I created an index like this: CREATE INDEX IX_Test_Name_DOB ON Test (LastName ASC, FirstName ASC, BirthDate ASC) INCLUDE (and here I list the other columns) My searches are now incredibly fast for my typical search (last, first, and birth date).

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  • Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

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  • Writing to a new window with javascript... get access denied

    - by Søren
    Hello gurus :) I have been struggling with this for a while now, and decided it was time to ask for help. I am trying to create a print function on an aspx page, and I am using javascript to do this: function PrintContentCell() { var display_setting = "toolbar=yes, location=no, directories=yes, menubar=yes,"; display_setting += "scrollbars=yes, width=750, height=600, left=100, top=25"; var content_innerhtml = document.getElementById("testTable").innerHTML; var document_print = window.open("Loading.htm", "", display_setting); document_print.document.open(); document_print.document.write('<html><head><title>Print</title></head>'); document_print.document.write('<body style="font-family:verdana; font-size:12px;" onLoad="self.print();self.close();" >'); document_print.document.write(content_innerhtml); document_print.document.write('</body></html>'); document_print.print(); document_print.document.close(); return false; } I get "Access Denied" when the script tries to write to the new window. The Loading.htm file is just a very slim html document writing out the text "Loading...". I had hoped this would work after reading this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/735136/ie-6-7-access-denied-trying-to-access-a-popup-window-document Anybody can help?

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  • Delivery of JMS message before the transaction is committed

    - by ewernli
    Hi, I have a very simple scenario involving a database and a JMS in an application server (Glassfish). The scenario is dead simple: 1. an EJB inserts a row in the database and sends a message. 2. when the message is delivered with an MDB, the row is read and updated. The problem is that sometimes the message is delivered before the insert has been committed in the database. This is actually understandable if we consider the 2 phase commit protocol: 1. prepare JMS 2. prepare database 3. commit JMS 4. ( tiny little gap where message can be delivered before insert has been committed) 5. commit database I've discussed this problem with others, but the answer was always: "Strange, it should work out of the box". My questions are then: How could it work out-of-the box? My scenario sounds fairly simple, why isn't there more people with similar troubles? Am I doing something wrong? Is there a way to solve this issue correctly? Here are a bit more details about my understanding of the problem: This timing issue exist only if the participant are treated in this order. If the 2PC treats the participants in the reverse order (database first then message broker) that should be fine. The problem was randomly happening but completely reproducible. I found no way to control the order of the participants in the distributed transactions in the JTA, JCA and JPA specifications neither in the Glassfish documentation. We could assume they will be enlisted in the distributed transaction according to the order when they are used, but with an ORM such as JPA, it's difficult to know when the data are flushed and when the database connection is really used. Any idea?

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  • Help to understand the issue with protected method

    - by zeroed
    I'm reading Sybex Complete Java 2 Certification Study Guide April 2005 (ISBN0782144195). This book is for java developers who wants to pass java certification. After a chapter about access modifiers (along with other modifiers) I found the following question (#17): True or false: If class Y extends class X, the two classes are in different packages, and class X has a protected method called abby(), then any instance of Y may call the abby() method of any other instance of Y. This question confused me a little. As far as I know you can call protected method on any variable of the same class (or subclasses). You cannot call it on variables, that higher in the hierarchy than you (e.g. interfaces that you implement). For example, you cannot clone any object just because you inherit it. But the questions says nothing about variable type, only about instance type. I was confused a little and answered "true". The answer in the book is False. An object that inherits a protected method from a superclass in a different package may call that method on itself but not on other instances of the same class. There is nothing here about variable type, only about instance type. This is very strange, I do not understand it. Can anybody explain what is going on here?

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  • rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

    - by nathanvda
    Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

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  • Find and Replace RegEx with wildcard search and addition of value

    - by fraXis
    The below code is from my other questions that I have asked here on SO. Everyone has been so helpful and I almost have a grasp with regards to RegEx but I ran into another hurdle. This is what I basically need to do in a nutshell. I need to take this line that is in a text file that I load into my content variable: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H1E1 I need to do a wildcard search for the X value, Y value, Z value, and H value. When I am done, I need this written back to my text file (I know how to create the text file so that is not the problem). X17.8Y-1.G54G0T2 G43Z0.1H1M08 I have code that the kind users here have given me, except I need to create the T value at the end of the first line, and use the value from the H and increment it by 1 for the T value. For example: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H5E1 would translate as: X17.8Y-1.G54G0T6 G43Z0.1H5M08 The T value is 6 because the H value is 5. I have code that does everything (does two RegEx functions and separates the line of code into two new lines and adds some new G values). But I don't know how to add the T value back into the first line and increment it by 1 of the H value. Here is my code: StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(fDialog.FileName.ToString()); string content = reader.ReadToEnd(); reader.Close(); content = Regex.Replace(content, @"X[-\d.]+Y[-\d.]+", "$0G54G0"); content = Regex.Replace(content, @"(Z(?:\d*\.)?\d+)[^H]*G0(H(?:\d*\.)?\d+)\w*", "\nG43$1$2M08"); //This must be created on a new line This code works great at taking: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H5E1 and turning it into: X17.8Y-1.G54G0 G43Z0.1H5M08 but I need it turned into this: X17.8Y-1.G54G0T6 G43Z0.1H5M08 (notice the T value is added to the first line, which is the H value +1 (T = H + 1). Can someone please modify my RegEx statement so I can do this automatically? I tried to combine my two RegEx statements into one line but I failed miserably.

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  • Ordering view by highest group count question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I've read the couple of questions about this on stack overflow but can't seem to find the answer. I am trying to display the tags in my blog by the ones with the highest count in the tags table. Thanks to KandadaBoggu for helping me get the tags feature of the blog I am designing working. Here is the basics and my question. Tag belongs_to :post and Post has_many :tags. The tags table is simple really, consisting of the normal scaffolded fields plus post_id and tag_name (I actually called the column 'tag_name' instead of just 'name'). in my /views/posts/index.html/erb file I correctly am displaying the tags by group and the amount of times they are being used (appearing in the tags table). I just want to know how to order them by the highest count. Here is the code, and I currently have it set to updated_at: PostsController def index @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'updated_at DESC', :limit => 10) conditions, joins = {}, nil unless(params[:tag_name] || "").empty? conditions = ["tags.tag_name = ? ", params[:tag_name]] joins = :tags end @posts=Post.all(:joins => joins, :conditions=> conditions, :order => 'created_at DESC').paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } format.json { render :json => @posts } format.atom end end

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  • WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

    - by RemotecUk
    Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

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  • Hyperlink regex including http(s):// not working in C#

    - by Rory Fitzpatrick
    I think this is sufficiently different from similar questions to warrant a new one. I have the following regex to match the beginning hyperlink tags in HTML, including the http(s):// part in order to avoid mailto: links <a[^>]*?href=[""'](?<href>\\b(https?)://[^\[\]""]+?)[""'][^>]*?> When I run this through Nregex (with escaping removed) it matches correctly for the following test cases: <a href="http://www.bbc.co.uk"> <a href="http://bbc.co.uk"> <a href="https://www.bbc.co.uk"> <a href="mailto:[email protected]"> However when I run this in my C# code it fails. Here is the matching code: public static IEnumerable<string> GetUrls(this string input, string matchPattern) { var matches = Regex.Matches(input, matchPattern, RegexOptions.Compiled | RegexOptions.IgnoreCase); foreach (Match match in matches) { yield return match.Groups["href"].Value; } } And my tests: @"<a href=""https://www.bbc.co.uk"">bbc</a>".GetUrls(StringExtensions.HtmlUrlRegexPattern).Count().ShouldEqual(1); @"<a href=""mailto:[email protected]"">bbc</a>".GetUrls(StringExtensions.HtmlUrlRegexPattern).Count().ShouldEqual(0); The problem seems to be in the \\b(https?):// part which I added, removing this passes the normal URL test but fails the mailto: test. Anyone shed any light?

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  • Error Log states that I have MySQL connect error, yet script runs fine

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hello All, First, thanks for all the help I've received so far from StackOverflow. I've learned much. Once again, I'm posing a rudimentary question that I've searched on, but cannot find the exact answer to. Here or on PHP.net. It's sort of like what this guy asked, but not exactly: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/288603/mysql-throwing-query-error-yet-finishing-query-just-fine-why So, I saw my errorlog ballooning up when I checked my site directory and opened to notice that a bunch of errors have been recorded since I wrote this new Admin area. I know something is obviously awry with my scripting for the error to be thrown, but the weird thing is, the script actually runs through and pulls all the data I need without breaking. The log contains: PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'someuser'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 I don't get that because that very line is where I setup my connection... the exact same way I do it everywhere else on the site with no problem. After that error, I have these thrown at the same time [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 16 From what I read in the other guys thread, the problem is the contents of the query maybe? Maybe my query is malformed? Thanks so much for any guidance you can provide. -Rob

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • Reordering arguments using recursion (pro, cons, alternatives)

    - by polygenelubricants
    I find that I often make a recursive call just to reorder arguments. For example, here's my solution for endOther from codingbat.com: Given two strings, return true if either of the strings appears at the very end of the other string, ignoring upper/lower case differences (in other words, the computation should not be "case sensitive"). Note: str.toLowerCase() returns the lowercase version of a string. public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { return a.length() < b.length() ? endOther(b, a) : a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } I'm very comfortable with recursions, but I can certainly understand why some perhaps would object to it. There are two obvious alternatives to this recursion technique: Swap a and b traditionally public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { if (a.length() < b.length()) { String t = a; a = b; b = t; } return a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } Not convenient in a language like Java that doesn't pass by reference Lots of code just to do a simple operation An extra if statement breaks the "flow" Repeat code public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { return (a.length() < b.length()) ? b.toLowerCase().endsWith(a.toLowerCase()) : a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } Explicit symmetry may be a nice thing (or not?) Bad idea unless the repeated code is very simple ...though in this case you can get rid of the ternary and just || the two expressions So my questions are: Is there a name for these 3 techniques? (Are there more?) Is there a name for what they achieve? (e.g. "parameter normalization", perhaps?) Are there official recommendations on which technique to use (when)? What are other pros/cons that I may have missed?

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