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asp.Net 2005 "Could not load type"

- by Melody Friedenthal

Although I have seen dozens of forum questions relating to "Could not load type", none of the advice in them seemed to apply to my situation. I wrote a new web application using aspx.net VB 2005. It is tiny, with just 2 pages, 1 of which has no code-behind. It runs aok in the IDE but when I installed it on my pc (and also when installed on the production server), and tried to run it this error came up: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load type 'EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Line 2: Line 3: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Source File: /EMTTrainingDatabase/pageMain.aspx Line: 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I checked the web site properties in IIS and the correct ASP.net version is specified: 2.0.50727. I checked the virtual path and it looks correct too: /EMTTrainingDatabase pageMain source code header looks like: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Some posters suggest that the bin is in the wrong folder or the bin doesn't contain the rigt contents. I don't have enough knowledge to evaulate this. Can someone help? Thank you.

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fitting buttons for multiple screens

- by user3360327

I want to develop my own keyboard and when I put first line button as you see the buttons are not fitting with any screens size. these are my questions: 1) how can I fit them? 2) is <TableLayout> is correct view layout? if it's not, which one is correct? this is XML code: <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TableRow> <Button android:id="@+id/btnQ" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strQ" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnW" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strW" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnE" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strE" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnR" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strR" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnT" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strT" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnY" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strY" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnU" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strU" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnI" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strI" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnO" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strO" /> <Button android:id="@+id/btnP" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/strP" /> </TableLayout>

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rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

- by nathanvda

Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

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Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

- by John

Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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what is the exact way to use Endorsed directory in jdk1.6

- by raticulin

I want to upgrade my jaxws to 2.2 (jdk1.6 comes bundled with jaxws 2.1). My jdk is (I did not install public jre): java version "1.6.0_20" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_20-b02) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 16.3-b01, mixed mode) In jaxws' own doc they explain how to do it: One way to fix this is to copy jaxws-api.jar and jaxb-api.jar into JRE endorsed directory, which is $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed (or $JDK_HOME/jre/lib/endorsed) But I am not sure this is having any effect in my installation. For starters I have only defined %JAVA_HOME%. And folder $JAVA_HOME/lib/endorsed is inexistant, so I created and copied the two jars. But if I do (wsgen is a tool from jaxws) wsgen -version I still get: JAX-WS RI 2.1.6 in JDK 6 I also tried creating folder JAVA_HOME\jre\lib\endorsed (notice that in the doc they say JDK_HOME, but as I only have JAVA_HOME I used this path). Still same wsgen output. My questions are: What is the difference between JAVA_HOME and JDK_HOME in the doc page? anything significant or just two ways to refer to JAVA_HOME ? Is 'wsgen -version' a valid way to check jaxws version that is used or this always calls the exe in the original jdk, but it does not mean endorsed jars will be used? Anyone knows very detailed steps to install jaxws2.2 in a jdk.16?

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Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

- by aioobe

I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

- by nahsra

I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

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Help to understand the issue with protected method

- by zeroed

I'm reading Sybex Complete Java 2 Certification Study Guide April 2005 (ISBN0782144195). This book is for java developers who wants to pass java certification. After a chapter about access modifiers (along with other modifiers) I found the following question (#17): True or false: If class Y extends class X, the two classes are in different packages, and class X has a protected method called abby(), then any instance of Y may call the abby() method of any other instance of Y. This question confused me a little. As far as I know you can call protected method on any variable of the same class (or subclasses). You cannot call it on variables, that higher in the hierarchy than you (e.g. interfaces that you implement). For example, you cannot clone any object just because you inherit it. But the questions says nothing about variable type, only about instance type. I was confused a little and answered "true". The answer in the book is False. An object that inherits a protected method from a superclass in a different package may call that method on itself but not on other instances of the same class. There is nothing here about variable type, only about instance type. This is very strange, I do not understand it. Can anybody explain what is going on here?

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Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

- by dcp

This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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Replacing/Extending Visual Studio's Generate Stub in Visual Studio 2010

- by devoured elysium

When we write the name of a method that doesn't exist, Visual Studio 2010 asks us if we'd like to generate a method stub with that name. What I'd like to know if is it possible to replace that same code stub generating command with one made by myself. I never did any kind of extensibility programming for Visual Studio so I have a couple of questions: How hard is it? Is it something I can learn in a couple of nights, or is it something that'll make me "lose" a lot of time? It seems to me that there isn't a lot of support for that kind of programming, as generally people are not that interested in developing solutions that extend the Visual Studio IDE. I searched on SO and it doesn't appear to have many threads about extending Visual Studio. I don't know how the generate method stub thing works in Visual Studio, but I just wanted to turn it into something a bit more flexible and useful. Has anyone dealt with these kind of things before, that can give me a pointer to where to start? I know of MS VSX site but that has a lot of resources and can be overwhelming for someone new to the subject as I am. What technology will I need to use? T4? Maybe I'll need to know a lot about the code, like Visual Studio does, so I can know other method's type arguments, names, etc. Is that what T4 is for? Thanks

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Delivery of JMS message before the transaction is committed

- by ewernli

Hi, I have a very simple scenario involving a database and a JMS in an application server (Glassfish). The scenario is dead simple: 1. an EJB inserts a row in the database and sends a message. 2. when the message is delivered with an MDB, the row is read and updated. The problem is that sometimes the message is delivered before the insert has been committed in the database. This is actually understandable if we consider the 2 phase commit protocol: 1. prepare JMS 2. prepare database 3. commit JMS 4. ( tiny little gap where message can be delivered before insert has been committed) 5. commit database I've discussed this problem with others, but the answer was always: "Strange, it should work out of the box". My questions are then: How could it work out-of-the box? My scenario sounds fairly simple, why isn't there more people with similar troubles? Am I doing something wrong? Is there a way to solve this issue correctly? Here are a bit more details about my understanding of the problem: This timing issue exist only if the participant are treated in this order. If the 2PC treats the participants in the reverse order (database first then message broker) that should be fine. The problem was randomly happening but completely reproducible. I found no way to control the order of the participants in the distributed transactions in the JTA, JCA and JPA specifications neither in the Glassfish documentation. We could assume they will be enlisted in the distributed transaction according to the order when they are used, but with an ORM such as JPA, it's difficult to know when the data are flushed and when the database connection is really used. Any idea?

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Reordering arguments using recursion (pro, cons, alternatives)

- by polygenelubricants

I find that I often make a recursive call just to reorder arguments. For example, here's my solution for endOther from codingbat.com: Given two strings, return true if either of the strings appears at the very end of the other string, ignoring upper/lower case differences (in other words, the computation should not be "case sensitive"). Note: str.toLowerCase() returns the lowercase version of a string. public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { return a.length() < b.length() ? endOther(b, a) : a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } I'm very comfortable with recursions, but I can certainly understand why some perhaps would object to it. There are two obvious alternatives to this recursion technique: Swap a and b traditionally public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { if (a.length() < b.length()) { String t = a; a = b; b = t; } return a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } Not convenient in a language like Java that doesn't pass by reference Lots of code just to do a simple operation An extra if statement breaks the "flow" Repeat code public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { return (a.length() < b.length()) ? b.toLowerCase().endsWith(a.toLowerCase()) : a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } Explicit symmetry may be a nice thing (or not?) Bad idea unless the repeated code is very simple ...though in this case you can get rid of the ternary and just || the two expressions So my questions are: Is there a name for these 3 techniques? (Are there more?) Is there a name for what they achieve? (e.g. "parameter normalization", perhaps?) Are there official recommendations on which technique to use (when)? What are other pros/cons that I may have missed?

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DjangoUnicodeDecodeError while storing pickle'd data.

- by Jack M.

I've got a simple dict object I'm trying to store in the database after it has been run through pickle. It seems that Django doesn't like trying to encode this error. I've checked with MySQL, and the query isn't even getting there before it is throwing the error, so I don't believe that is the problem. The dict I'm storing looks like this: { 'ordered': [ { 'value': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', 'label': u'Full Name' }, { 'value': u'123-456-7890', 'label': u'Phone Number' }, { 'value': u'[email protected]', 'label': u'Email Address' } ], 'cleaned_data': { u'Phone Number': u'123-456-7890', u'Full Name': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', u'Email Address': u'[email protected]' }, 'post_data': <QueryDict: { u'Phone Number': [u'1234567890'], u'Full Name_1': [u'Last\xd1ame'], u'Full Name_0': [u'First\xd1ame'], u'Email Address': [u'[email protected]'] }>, 'user': <User: itis> } The error that gets thrown is: 'utf8' codec can't decode bytes in position 52-53: invalid data. Position 52-53 is the first instance of \xd1 (Ñ) in the pickled data. So far, I've dug around StackOverflow and found a few questions where the database encoding for the objects was wrong. This doesn't help me because there is no MySQL query yet. This is happening before the database. Google also didn't help much when searching for unicode errors on pickled data. It is probably worth mentioning that if I don't use the Ñ, this code works fine.

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Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

- by Jay

A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

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Function syntax puzzler in scalaz

- by oxbow_lakes

Following watching Nick Partidge's presentation on deriving scalaz, I got to looking at this example, which is just awesome: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ def even(x: Int) : Validation[NonEmptyList[String], Int] = if (x % 2 ==0) x.success else "not even: %d".format(x).wrapNel.fail println( even(3) <|*|> even(5) ) //prints: Failure(NonEmptyList(not even: 3, not even: 5)) I was trying to understand what the <|*|> method was doing, here is the source code: def <|*|>[B](b: M[B])(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[(A, B)] = <**>(b, (_: A, _: B)) OK, that is fairly confusing (!) - but it references the <**> method, which is declared thus: def <**>[B, C](b: M[B], z: (A, B) => C)(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[C] = a(t.fmap(value, z.curried), b) So I have a few questions: How come the method appears to take a monad of one type parameter (M[B]) but can get passed a Validation (which has two type paremeters)? How does the syntax (_: A, _: B) define the function (A, B) => C which the 2nd method expects? It doesn't even define an output via =>

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looking for a license key algorithm.

- by giulio

There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

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UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

- by SG

iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

- by FractalizeR

Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

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Assigning a property across threads

- by Mike

I have set a property across threads before and I found this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/142003/cross-thread-operation-not-valid-control-accessed-from-a-thread-other-than-the-t about getting a property. I think my issue with the code below is setting the variable to the collection is an object therefore on the heap and therefore is just creating a pointer to the same object So my question is besides creating a deep copy, or copying the collection into a different List object is there a better way to do the following to aviod the error during the for loop. Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'lstProcessFiles' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. Code: private void btnRunProcess_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.Clear(); BackgroundWorker bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bg_DoWork); bg.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(bg_RunWorkerCompleted); bg.RunWorkerAsync(lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems); } void bg_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { WorkflowEngine engine = new WorkflowEngine(); ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection selectedCollection=null; if (lstProcessFiles.InvokeRequired) { // Try #1 selectedCollection = (ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection) this.Invoke(new GetSelectedItemsDelegate(GetSelectedItems), new object[] { lstProcessFiles }); // Try #2 //lstProcessFiles.Invoke( // new MethodInvoker(delegate { // selectedCollection = lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems; })); } else { selectedCollection = lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems; } // *********Same Error on this line******************** // Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'lstProcessFiles' accessed // from a thread other than the thread it was created on. foreach (string l in selectedCollection) { if (engine.LoadProcessDocument(String.Format(@"C:\TestDirectory\{0}", l))) { try { engine.Run(); WriteStep(String.Format("Ran {0} Succussfully", l)); } catch { WriteStep(String.Format("{0} Failed", l)); } engine.PrintProcess(); WriteStep(String.Format("Rrinted {0} to debug", l)); } } } private delegate void WriteDelegate(string p); private delegate ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection GetSelectedItemsDelegate(ListBox list); private ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection GetSelectedItems(ListBox list) { return list.SelectedItems; }

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JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

- by amarcy

I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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Error Log states that I have MySQL connect error, yet script runs fine

- by rob - not a robber

Hello All, First, thanks for all the help I've received so far from StackOverflow. I've learned much. Once again, I'm posing a rudimentary question that I've searched on, but cannot find the exact answer to. Here or on PHP.net. It's sort of like what this guy asked, but not exactly: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/288603/mysql-throwing-query-error-yet-finishing-query-just-fine-why So, I saw my errorlog ballooning up when I checked my site directory and opened to notice that a bunch of errors have been recorded since I wrote this new Admin area. I know something is obviously awry with my scripting for the error to be thrown, but the weird thing is, the script actually runs through and pulls all the data I need without breaking. The log contains: PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'someuser'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 I don't get that because that very line is where I setup my connection... the exact same way I do it everywhere else on the site with no problem. After that error, I have these thrown at the same time [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 16 From what I read in the other guys thread, the problem is the contents of the query maybe? Maybe my query is malformed? Thanks so much for any guidance you can provide. -Rob

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Making that move from junior > mid level

- by dotnetdev

Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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Get the parent id..

- by tixrus

I have a bunch of elements like the following: <div class="droppableP" id="s-NSW" style="width:78px; height:63px; position: absolute; top: 223px; left: 532px;"> </div> They all have class droppableP but different id's obviously and I would like to factor the code in this script I am hacking on. The original script just has a specific selector for each of one of these divs, but the code is all alike except for the id it does things to, which is either the id of the parent or another div with a name that's related to it. Here is the original code specifically for this div: $("#s-NSW > .sensible").droppable( { accept : "#i-NSW", tolerance : 'intersect', activeClass : 'droppable-active', hoverClass : 'droppable-hover', drop : function() { $('#s-NSW').addClass('s-NSW'); $('#s-NSW').addClass('encastrada'); //can't move any more.. $('#i-NSW').remove(); $('#s-NSW').animate( { opacity: 0.25 },200, 'linear'); checkWin(); } }); Here is how I would like to factor so the same code can do all of them and I will eventually do chaining as well and maybe get rid of the inline styles but here is my first go: $(".droppableP > .sensible").droppable( { accept : "#i" + $(this).parent().attr('id').substring(2), tolerance : 'intersect', activeClass : 'droppable-active', hoverClass : 'droppable-hover', drop : function() { $(this).parent().addClass($(this).parent().attr('id')); $(this).parent().addClass('encastrada'); $("#i" + ($this).parent().attr('id').substring(2)).remove(); $(this).parent().animate( { opacity: 0.25 },200, 'linear'); checkWin(); } }); The error I get is $(this).parent().attr("id") is undefined Many thanks. I have browsed related questions the one I understand that's closest to mine, turns out they didn't need parent function at all. I'm kind of a noob so please don't yell at me too hard if this is a stupid question.

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Database design for sharing photos site?

- by javaLearner.java

I am using php and mysql. If I want to do a sharing photos website, whats the best database design for upload and display photos. This is what I have in mind: domain: |_> photos |_> user Logged in user will upload photo in [http://www.domain.com/user/upload.php] The photos are stored in filesystems, and the path-to-photos stored in database. So, in my photos folder would be like: photos/userA/subfolders+photos, photos/userB/subfolders+photos, photos/userC/subfolders+photos etc Public/others people may view his photo in: [http://www.domain.com/photos/user/?photoid=123] where 123 is the photoid, from there, I will query from database to fetch the path and display the image. My questions: Whats the best database design for photo-sharing website (like flickr)? Will there be any problems if I keep creating new folder in "photos" folder. What if hundreds of thousands users registered? Whats the best practices What size of photos should I keep? Currently I only stored thumbnail (100x100) and (max) 1600x1200 px photos. What others things I should take note when developing photos-sharing website?

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problem in silverlight 4 async how to wait till result come

- by AQEEL

Here is what i have problem i have following code : //Get All master record entryE_QuestMaster = new ObservableCollection<E_QuestMaster>(); QuestVM.getExamsMasterbyExamID(eUtility.ConvertInt32(this.txtID.Text), ref entryE_QuestMaster); // //Loop to show questions int iNumber=1; foreach (var oIn in entryE_QuestMaster) { Node subNode = new Node(); subNode.Content = oIn.e_Question; subNode.Name = "Quest_" + iNumber.ToString().Trim(); subNode.Tag = oIn.e_QID.ToString(); subNode.Icon = "/Images/Number/" + iNumber.ToString().Trim() + ".gif"; iNumber++; this.tvMainNode.Nodes.Add(subNode); } here is async method calling wcf service /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="ID"></param> public void getExamsMasterbyExamID(int ID, ref ObservableCollection<E_QuestMaster> iCollectionData) { ObservableCollection<E_QuestMaster> iCollectionDataResult = iCollectionData; eLearningDataServiceClient client = new eLearningDataServiceClient(); client.getExamsMasterCompleted+=(s,e)=> { iCollectionDataResult = e.Result; }; client.getExamsMasterAsync(ID); } problem : when ever system run -- QuestVM.getExamsMasterbyExamID(eUtility.ConvertInt32(this.txtID.Text), ref entryE_QuestMaster); its does not wait till i get e.result its just move to next line of code which is foreach loop. plssss help any one or give idea with sample code what should i do to wait till e.result i wanted to some how wait till i get e.result any idea ?

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