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  • Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

    - by singer
    Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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  • Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

    - by Goosey
    I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

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  • Database sharing/versioning

    - by DarkJaff
    Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

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  • How do I use text in one cell to trigger row to be copied on another sheet in Excel?

    - by Brian Eby
    I provide all of the cut lists for our cabinet manufacturing in Excel. I tally all parts for the entire job on the first worksheet in an Excel file, and then filter the rows based on the "Material" column, and manually copy/paste each row in to its own material-specific worksheet (example: I filter "Materials" column for "Maple Ply", and then copy all "Maple Ply" rows to the "Maple Ply" worksheet). Then the material specific worksheets are sent to the shop floor for cutting. This is time consuming, and if I need to change any data in the first page, I have to go and manually update the copied row in its material-specific page. Is there any way to make each material page "look" for its material, and automatically populate itself with any row that has the appropriate material in the material column (example: any time I enter "Maple Ply" in the material column of sheet one, that row is automatically copied to the "Maple Ply" worksheet)? If so, could this link be dynamic, rather than just a copy, so that if I change a cell in a particular row on sheet one, that data is also updated on the material-specific worksheet copy? Thank you, Brian

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  • Problem with cruise control and visual svn

    - by Andrew
    Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

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  • SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

    - by zeroes00
    Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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  • inverse relation to multiple inheriting classes in django

    - by Ofri Raviv
    Here are my schematic models: class Law(models.Model): ... class Bill(models.Model): ... # data for a proposed law, or change of an existing law class PrivateBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by a parliament member class GovernmentBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by the government It is possible and likely that in the future I (or maybe someone else) would want to add more Bill types. Every Bill should point to a Law (indicating what law this bill is going to change) and my question is: What is the best way to implement this? If I add the ForeignKey(Law) to Bill, I'll have a relation from every Bill to Law, but a Law would only have an inverse relation to Bills (bill_set), and not a different inverse relation to each type of bill. Of course I'll be able to filter each type of bill to get only the ones pointing to a specific Law, but this is something I think I'll need to use often, so I think having privatebill_set, governmentbill_set etc would make the code more readable. Another possible solution is to add the foreign key to each of the inheriting classes (this would give me a privatebill_set, governmentbill_set, futurebill_set), but that seems hairy because I would be relying on future programmers to remember to add that relation. How would you solve this?

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  • Use a vector to index a matrix without linear index

    - by David_G
    G'day, I'm trying to find a way to use a vector of [x,y] points to index from a large matrix in MATLAB. Usually, I would convert the subscript points to the linear index of the matrix.(for eg. Use a vector as an index to a matrix in MATLab) However, the matrix is 4-dimensional, and I want to take all of the elements of the 3rd and 4th dimensions that have the same 1st and 2nd dimension. Let me hopefully demonstrate with an example: Matrix = nan(4,4,2,2); % where the dimensions are (x,y,depth,time) Matrix(1,2,:,:) = 999; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(3,4,:,:) = 888; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(4,4,:,:) = 124; Now, I want to be able to index with the subscripts (1,2) and (3,4), etc and return not only the 999 and 888 which exist in Matrix(:,:,1,1) but the contents which exist at Matrix(:,:,1,2),Matrix(:,:,2,1) and Matrix(:,:,2,2), and so on (IRL, the dimensions of Matrix might be more like size(Matrix) = (300 250 30 200) I don't want to use linear indices because I would like the results to be in a similar vector fashion. For example, I would like a result which is something like: ans(time=1) 999 888 124 999 888 124 ans(time=2) etc etc etc etc etc etc I'd also like to add that due to the size of the matrix I'm dealing with, speed is an issue here - thus why I'd like to use subscript indices to index to the data. I should also mention that (unlike this question: Accessing values using subscripts without using sub2ind) since I want all the information stored in the extra dimensions, 3 and 4, of the i and jth indices, I don't think that a slightly faster version of sub2ind still would not cut it..

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  • How to use an Audio Unit on the iPhone

    - by CodeToaster
    I'm looking for a way to change the pitch of recorded audio as it is saved to disk, or played back (in real time). I understand Audio Units can be used for this. The iPhone offers limited support for Audio Units (for example it's not possible to create/use custom audio units, as far as I can tell), but several out-of-the-box audio units are available, one of which is AUPitch. How exactly would I use an audio unit (specifically AUPitch)? Do you hook it into an audio queue somehow? Is it possible to chain audio units together (for example, to simultaneously add an echo effect and a change in pitch)? EDIT: After inspecting the iPhone SDK headers (I think AudioUnit.h, I'm not in front of a Mac at the moment), I noticed that AUPitch is commented out. So it doesn't look like AUPitch is available on the iPhone after all. weep weep Apple seems to have better organized their iPhone SDK documentation at developer.apple.com of late - now its more difficult to find references to AUPitch, etc. That said, I'm still interested in quality answers on using Audio Units (in general) on the iPhone.

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  • How to setup a Zend_Application with an application.ini and a user.ini

    - by Peter Smit
    I am using Zend_Application and it does not feel right that I am mixing in my application.ini both application and user configuration. What I mean with this is the following. For example, my application needs some library classes in the namespace MyApp_ . So in application.ini I put autoloaderNamespaces[] = "MyApp_". This is pure application configuration, no-one except a programmer would change these. On the other hand I put there a database configuration, something that a SysAdmin would change. My idea is that I would split options between an application.ini and an user.ini, where the options in user.ini take preference (so I can define standard values in application.ini). Is this a good idea? How can I best implement this? The idea's I have are Extending Zend_Application to take multiple config files Making an init function in my Bootstrap loading the user.ini Parsing the config files in my index.php and pass these to Zend_Application (sounds ugly) What shall I do? I would like to have the 'cleanest' solution, which is prepared for the future (newer ZF versions, and other developers working on the same app)

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  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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  • How to store a public key in a machine-level RSA key container

    - by Andrew Kimball
    I'm having a problem using a machine level RSA key container when storing only the public key of a public/private key pair. The following code creates a public/private pair and extracts the public key from that pair. The pair and the public key are stored in separate key containers. The keys are then obtained from those key containers at which point they should be the same as the keys going into the containers. The code works when CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer is specified for CspParameters.Flags (i.e. the key read back out from the PublicKey container is the same), but when CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore is specified for CspParameters.Flags the key read back from PublicKey is different. Why is the behaviour different, and what do I need to do differently to retrieve the public key from a machine-level RSA key container? var publicPrivateRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicPrivateKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; var publicRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ) { PersistKeyInCsp = true }; //Export the key. publicRsa.ImportParameters(publicPrivateRsa.ExportParameters(false)); Console.WriteLine(publicRsa.ToXmlString(false)); Console.WriteLine(publicPrivateRsa.ToXmlString(false)); //Dispose those two CSPs. using (publicRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); } using (publicPrivateRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); } publicPrivateRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicPrivateKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ); publicRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ); Console.WriteLine(publicRsa.ToXmlString(false)); Console.WriteLine(publicPrivateRsa.ToXmlString(false)); using (publicRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); } using (publicPrivateRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); }

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • WPF tree data binding

    - by Am
    Hi, I have a well defined tree repository. Where I can rename items, move them up, down, etc. Add new and delete. The data is stored in a table as follows: Index Parent Label Left Right 1 0 root 1 14 2 1 food 2 7 3 2 cake 3 4 4 2 pie 5 6 5 1 flowers 8 13 6 5 roses 9 10 7 5 violets 11 12 Representing the following tree: (1) root (14) (2) food (7) (8) flowers (13) (3) cake (4) (5) pie (6) (9) roeses (10) (11) violets (12) or root food cake pie flowers roses violets Now, my problem is how to represent this in a bindable way, so that a TreeView can handle all the possible data changes? Renaming is easy, all I need is to make the label an updatble field. But what if a user moves flowers above food? I can make the relevant data changes, but they cause a complete data change to all other items in the tree. And all the examples I found of bindable hierarchies are good for non static trees.. So my current (and bad) solution is to reload the displayed tree after relocation change. Any direction will be good. Thanks

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  • Silverlight Toolkit ListBoxDragTarget Only One Way

    - by Tom Allen
    I've got a Silverlight 3 app that has two ListBoxes that I need to be able to drag items between. I've got the toolkit control working so that I can drag from ListBox lbA to ListBox lbB but i then can't drag the item from lbB back to lbA. <toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget mswindows:DragDrop.AllowDrop="True"> <ListBox x:Name="lbA" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxStyle}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DisplayMember}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget> <toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget mswindows:DragDrop.AllowDrop="True"> <ListBox x:Name="lbB" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxStyle}" Width="350"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding DisplayMember}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </toolkit:ListBoxDragDropTarget> I'm binding lbA to an ObservableCollection of MyObject items which is a parent class for objects MyObjectA and MyObjectB (and there is a mix of ChildObjectA and ChildObjectB items). Is the one way behaviour I'm seeing due to binding to a collection MyObjects or something else i'm missing?

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  • Android: Determine when app is being finalized

    - by Matt
    Hi all, I posted a question yesterday about determining when an app is being finalized vs destroyed for screen orientation change. Thanks to the answers I received I was able to resolve my problem with the screen orientation change. However, I am still running into a roadblock. This app I am working on logs into a website with an HttpClient. As long as the app remains in memory the HttpClient will retain the cookies from logging in. However, once it is killed, it would need to log in again. My question: How can I determine when the app is being killed from memory so I can set a boolean to false telling the app it has been removed from memory so the next time it starts it will read this and determine is must log in again? Or is it possible to serialize an HttpClient and put that in the savedInstanceState bundle? May extract the cookies from the client and put those in the savedInstanceState bundle? Is there something I'm completely missing here maybe? Any help or a point in the right direction is greatly appreciated because this one has me stumped. Thank you!

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  • Ignore LD_LIBRARY_PATH and stick with library given through -rpath at link time

    - by roe
    I'm sitting in an environment which I have no real control over (it's not just me, so basically, I can't change the environment or it won't work for anyone else), the only thing I can affect is how the binary is built. My problem is, the environment specifies an LD_LIBRARY_PATH containing a libstdc++ which is not compatible with the compiler being used. I tried compiling it statically, but that doesn't seem possible for g++ (version 4.2.3, seems to have been work done in this direction in later versions though which are not available, -static-libstdc++ or something like that). Now I've arrived at using rpath to bake the absolute path name into the executable (would work, all machines it's supposed to run on are identical). Unfortunately it appears as though LD_LIBRARY_PATH takes precedence over rpath (resetting LD_LIBRARY_PATH confirmed that it's able to find the library, but as stated above, LD_LIBRARY_PATH will be set for everyone, and I cannot change that). Is there any way I can make rpath take precedence over LD_LIBRARY_PATH, or are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Note that I'm talking about dynamic linking at runtime, I am able to control the command line at compile and link time. Thanks.

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  • How to resize table via javascript in IE?

    - by MartyIX
    I've got this table: <table id="correctness" style="overflow: hidden;"> <tr><td style="overflow: hidden;"> <div id="correctness-message"></div> <span class="hide"> <button type="button" class="hide" onclick="new DisplayEffect('correctness').Hide(500);">Hide</button> </span> </td> </tr> </table> and a function for resizing the table: function resize(element, size) { element.style.height = size + "px";}; which is called for a certain amount of time (e.g. 1 second) with the ID of table (i.e. "correctness") in order to resize the table from zero height to its full height. This code works in Firefox and Chrome but it doesn't work in IE8. What it does is that it displays right away whole table even thought the height set in "resize" method is much lower. It seems that the cell sets the height of parent table and not the other way around. Is it possible to change the behaviour? I like changing the height of the table better because I can set visibility of the table easily. Thanks for any help!

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  • Unexpected performance curve from CPython merge sort

    - by vkazanov
    I have implemented a naive merge sorting algorithm in Python. Algorithm and test code is below: import time import random import matplotlib.pyplot as plt import math from collections import deque def sort(unsorted): if len(unsorted) <= 1: return unsorted to_merge = deque(deque([elem]) for elem in unsorted) while len(to_merge) > 1: left = to_merge.popleft() right = to_merge.popleft() to_merge.append(merge(left, right)) return to_merge.pop() def merge(left, right): result = deque() while left or right: if left and right: elem = left.popleft() if left[0] > right[0] else right.popleft() elif not left and right: elem = right.popleft() elif not right and left: elem = left.popleft() result.append(elem) return result LOOP_COUNT = 100 START_N = 1 END_N = 1000 def test(fun, test_data): start = time.clock() for _ in xrange(LOOP_COUNT): fun(test_data) return time.clock() - start def run_test(): timings, elem_nums = [], [] test_data = random.sample(xrange(100000), END_N) for i in xrange(START_N, END_N): loop_test_data = test_data[:i] elapsed = test(sort, loop_test_data) timings.append(elapsed) elem_nums.append(len(loop_test_data)) print "%f s --- %d elems" % (elapsed, len(loop_test_data)) plt.plot(elem_nums, timings) plt.show() run_test() As much as I can see everything is OK and I should get a nice N*logN curve as a result. But the picture differs a bit: Things I've tried to investigate the issue: PyPy. The curve is ok. Disabled the GC using the gc module. Wrong guess. Debug output showed that it doesn't even run until the end of the test. Memory profiling using meliae - nothing special or suspicious. ` I had another implementation (a recursive one using the same merge function), it acts the similar way. The more full test cycles I create - the more "jumps" there are in the curve. So how can this behaviour be explained and - hopefully - fixed? UPD: changed lists to collections.deque UPD2: added the full test code UPD3: I use Python 2.7.1 on a Ubuntu 11.04 OS, using a quad-core 2Hz notebook. I tried to turn of most of all other processes: the number of spikes went down but at least one of them was still there.

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  • Vim, LaTeX, and version controlI

    - by Bkkbrad
    I'm writing a LaTeX document in vim, and I have it hard wrapping at 80 characters to make reading easier. However, this causes problems with tracking changes with in version control. For example, inserting "Lorem ipsum" at the beginning of this text: 1 Dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Phasellus bibendum lobortis lectus 2 quis porta. Aenean vestibulum magna vel purus laoreet at molestie massa 3 suscipit. Vestibulum vestibulum, mauris nec convallis ultrices, tellus sapien 4 ullamcorper elit, dignissim consectetur justo tellus et nunc. results in: 1 Lorum ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Phasellus bibendum 2 lobortis lectus quis porta. Aenean vestibulum magna vel purus laoreet at 3 molestie massa suscipit. Vestibulum vestibulum, mauris nec convallis ultrices, 4 tellus sapien ullamcorper elit, dignissim consectetur justo tellus et nunc. When I review this change in git, it tells me that all the lines of the paragraph have changed because of the wrapping, even though only one semantic change has occurred. One way around this problem is to have every sentence on its own line. This looks the same in the rendered document, but the source now is harder to read, because each line has quite a different line length: 1 Lorum ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. 2 Phasellus bibendum lobortis lectus quis porta. 3 Aenean vestibulum magna vel purus laoreet at molestie massa suscipit. 4 Vestibulum vestibulum, mauris nec convallis ultrices, tellus sapien ullamcorper elit, dignissim consectetur justo tellus et nunc. (If I soft wrap at 80, things still look bad, just in a different way.) Is it possible to have my text on disk with one newline per sentence, but display and edit it in vim as if the text of each paragraph was one long line, soft wrapped at 80 characters? I assume it requires some vim-foo rather than tweaking git or LaTeX.

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  • Why would fopen fail to open a file that exists?

    - by void
    I'm on Windows XP using Visual Studio 6 (yes I know it's old) building/maintaining a C++ DLL. I'm encountered a problem with fopen failing to open an existing file, it always returns NULL. I've tried: Checking errno and _doserrno by setting both to zero and then checking them again, both remain zero, and thus GetLastError() reports no errors. I know fopen isn't required to set errno when it encounters an error according to a C standard. Hardcoding the file path, which are not relative. Tried on another developers machine which the same result. The really strange thing is CreateFile works and the file can be read with ReadFile. We believe this works in a release build, however we are also seeing some very odd behaviour in other areas of the application and we're not sure if this is related. The code is below, I don't see anything odd it looks quite standard to me. The source file hasn't changed for just under half a year. HRESULT CDataHandler::LoadFile( CStdString szFilePath ) { //Code FILE* pFile; if ( NULL == ( pFile = fopen( szFilePath.c_str(), "rb") ) ) { return S_FALSE; } //More code }

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  • How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

    - by anonim.developer
    Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

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  • Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

    - by David Easley
    Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

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  • Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

    - by John Galt
    On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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