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  • What can I do about ambigous wildcard patterns in Struts?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a problem finding the right wildcard pattern to extract parts of my URL into action parameters in Struts. This is how I set up the action. The intent of the pattern is to capture the last two path elements and then everything that might precede them. <action name="**/*/*" class="com.example.ObjectAction"> <param name="filter">{1}</param> <param name="type">{2}</param> <param name="id">{3}</param> </action> Calling it with the URL channels/123/transmissions/456 I get the following result (the action just sets the input parameters on a POJO and returns that as XML): <result> <filter>channels/123/transmissions</filter> <id/> <type>456</type> </result> It should be: <result> <filter>channels/123</filter> <id>456</id> <type>transmissions</type> </result> Now, because ** matches all characters including the slash, I guess my pattern allows more than one way to match the URL, and Struts happens to pick one that leaves the id empty. Is the behaviour for multiple possible matches defined somewhere? Can I make the pattern less ambigous? Are there alternative ways of doing this? I'm running Struts 2.0.8. Upgrading to 2.1.9 would give me regex matching, but I got into trouble with Struts' dependencies and my OSGi environment when I went past 2.0.8, so I'd like to stick to that version for now.

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  • Can threads safely read variables set by VCL events?

    - by Tom1952
    Is it safe for a thread to READ a variable set by a Delphi VCL event? When a user clicks on a VCL TCheckbox, the main thread sets a boolean to the checkbox's Checked state. CheckboxState := CheckBox1.Checked; At any time, a thread reads that variable if CheckBoxState then ... It doesn't matter if the thread "misses" a change to the boolean, because the thread checks the variable in a loop as it does other things. So it will see the state change eventually... Is this safe? Or do I need special code? Is surrounding the read and write of the variable (in the thread and main thread respectively) with critical code calls necessary and sufficient? As I said, it doesn't matter if the thread gets the "wrong" value, but I keep thinking that there might be a low-level problem if one thread tries to read a variable while the main thread is in the middle of writing it, or vice versa. My question is similar to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1353096/cross-thread-reading-of-a-variable. (Also related to my previous question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2449183/using-entercriticalsection-in-thread-to-update-vcl-label)

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • TextArea being used as an itemEditor misbehaves when the enter key is pressed

    - by ChrisInCambo
    Hi, I have a TextArea inside an itemEditor component, the problem is that when typing in the TextArea if the enter key is pressed the itemEditor resets itself rather moving the caret to the next line as expected: <mx:List width="100%" editable="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:ArrayCollection> <mx:Array> <mx:Object title="Stairway to Heaven" /> </mx:Array> </mx:ArrayCollection> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Text height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> <mx:itemEditor> <mx:Component> <mx:TextArea height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemEditor> </mx:List> </mx:Application> Could anyone advise how I can get around this strange behaviour and make the enter key behave as expected? Thanks, Chris

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  • Caching issue with javascript and asp.net

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Hi guys: I asked a question a while back on here regarding caching data for a calendar/scheduling web app, and got some good responses. However, I have now decided to change my approach and stat caching the data in javascript. I am directly caching the HTML for each day's column in the calendar grid inside the $('body').data() object, which gives very fast page load times (almost unnoticable). However, problems start to arise when the user requests data that is not yet in the cache. This data is created by the server using an ajax call, so it's asynchronous, and takes about 0.2s per week's data. My current approach is simply to block for 0.5s when the user requests information from the server, and cache 4 weeks either side in the inital page load (and 1 extra week per page change request), however I doubt this is the optimal method. Does anyone have a suggestion as to how to improve the situation? To summarise: Each week takes 0.2s to retrieve from the server, asynchronously. Performance must be as close to real-time as possible. (however the data is not needed to be fully real-time: most appointments are added by the user and so we can re-cache after this) Currently 4 weeks are cached on either side of the inial week loaded: this is not enough. to cache 1 year takes ~ 21s, this is too slow for an initial load.

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  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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  • How to make += operator keep the object reference?

    - by orloffm
    Say, I have a class: class M { public int val; And also a + operator inside it: public static M operator +(M a, M b) { M c = new M(); c.val = a.val + b.val; return c; } } And I've got a List of the objects of the class: List<M> ms = new List(); M obj = new M(); obj.val = 5; ms.Add(obj); Some other object: M addie = new M(); addie.val = 3; I can do this: ms[0] += addie; and it surely works as I expect - the value in the list is changed. But if I want to do M fromList = ms[0]; fromList += addie; it doesn't change the value in ms for obvious reasons. But intuitively I expect ms[0] to also change after that. Really, I pick the object from the list and then I increase it's value with some other object. So, since I held a reference to ms[0] in fromList before addition, I want still to hold it in fromList after performing it. Are there any ways to achieve that?

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  • Switching textstorage of NSTextViews back and forth

    - by Jakob Dam Jensen
    I'm trying to make a feature in a product which gives the user the ability to split a textview into two. The way this is done is by removing the textview from it's superview, making a NSSplitView and adding the textview as well as a new NSTextView instance to this splitview. Lastly I make these two textviews share the same textstorage in order to make them share the same content. It works great. But the problem is when I want to make one of the two textviews change textstorage. The replaceTextStorage method in NSLayoutManager causes both NSTextView to change textStorage. The API documentation states: replaceTextStorage: All NSLayoutManager objects sharing the original NSTextStorage object then share the new one. This method makes all the adjustments necessary to keep these relationships intact, unlike setTextStorage:. So it makes sense that it would do this. But the question is how do I make it possible to have two (or more) textviews first share the same storage and after that having them using their own? I've tried replacing the layoutManager and even making new instances of NSTextViews but no luck... Any suggestions?

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  • Lucene wildcard queries

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have this question relating to Lucene. I have a form and I get a text from it and I want to perform a full text search in several fields. Suppose I get from the input the text "textToLook". I have a Lucene Analyzer with several filters. One of them is lowerCaseFilter, so when I create the index, words will be lowercased. Imagine I want to search into two fields field1 and field2 so the lucene query would be something like this (note that 'textToLook' now is 'texttolook'): field1: texttolook* field2:texttolook* In my class I have something like this to create the query. I works when there is no wildcard. String text = "textToLook"; String[] fields = {"field1", "field2"}; //analyser is the same as the one used for indexing Analyzer analyzer = fullTextEntityManager.getSearchFactory().getAnalyzer("customAnalyzer"); MultiFieldQueryParser parser = new MultiFieldQueryParser(fields, analyzer); org.apache.lucene.search.Query queryTextoLibre = parser.parse(text); With this code the query would be: field1: texttolook field2:texttolook but If I set text to "textToLook*" I get field1: textToLook* field2:textToLook* which won't find correctly as the indexes are in lowercase. I have read in lucene website this: " Wildcard, Prefix, and Fuzzy queries are not passed through the Analyzer, which is the component that performs operations such as stemming and lowercasing" My problem cannot be solved by setting the behaviour case insensitive cause my analyzer has other fields which for examples remove some suffixes of words. I think I can solve the problem by getting how the text would be after going through the filters of my analyzer, then I could add the "*" and then I could build the Query with MultiFieldQueryParser. So in this example I woud get "textToLower" and after being passed to to these filters I could get "texttolower". After this I could make "textotolower*". But, is there any way to get the value of my text variable after going through all my analyzer's filters? How can I get all the filters of my analyzer? Is this possible? Thanks

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  • Scrollbars in ScrollView not showing after custom child view changes size

    - by Ted Hopp
    I have a ScrollView containing a client that is a vertical LinearLayout. The client, in turn, contains custom views that change height dynamically as a background thread does some work. The problem I'm having is that the ScrollView's vertical scroll bar is not updating correctly in Android 1.5. The most common problem occurs when the initial total height of the client is less than the viewport and grows. Initially there is no scroll bar, and it does not show up when the client grows until I actually scroll the window with a touch gesture or other UI action. After that, the scroll bar shows up. However, the thumb does not update as the height continues to change from the background thread. If I scroll the view again through the UI, the thumb immediately corrects itself. My code for updating the height from the background thread is: post(mLayoutRequestor); postInvalidate(); (mLayoutRequestor is a Runnable that just calls requestLayout().) This is done after I've recorded the new height in a variable mHeight. My onMeasure() method calls setMeasuredDimension with a height computed like this: private int measureHeight(int measureSpec) { int result; int specMode = MeasureSpec.getMode(measureSpec); int specSize = MeasureSpec.getSize(measureSpec); if (specMode == MeasureSpec.EXACTLY) { result = specSize; } else { result = mHeight; if (specMode == MeasureSpec.AT_MOST && result > specSize) result = specSize; } return result; } Am I supposed to be calling something else besides requestLayout() to get the scroll bar to update correctly?

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  • Help Me With This Access Query

    - by yae
    I have 2 tables: "products" and "pieces" PRODUCTS idProd product price PIECES id idProdMain idProdChild quant idProdMain and idProdChild are related with the table: "products". Other considerations is that 1 product can have some pieces and 1 product can be a piece. Price product equal a sum of quantity * price of all their pieces. "Products" table contains all products (p EXAMPLE: TABLE PRODUCTS (idProd - product - price) 1 - Computer - 300€ 2 - Hard Disk - 100€ 3 - Memory - 50€ 4 - Main Board - 100€ 5 - Software - 50€ 6 - CDroms 100 un. - 30€ TABLE PIECES (id - idProdMain - idProdChild - Quant.) 1 - 1 - 2 - 1 2 - 1 - 3 - 2 3 - 1 - 4 - 1 WHAT I NEED? I need update the price of the main product when the price of the product child (piece) is changed. Following the previous example, if I change the price of this product "memory" (is a piece too) to 60€, then product "Computer" will must change his price to 320€ How I can do it using queries? Already I have tried this to obatin the price of the main product, but not runs. This query not returns any value: SELECT Sum(products.price*pieces.quant) AS Expr1 FROM products LEFT JOIN pieces ON (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdMain) WHERE (((pieces.idProdMain)=5)); MORE INFO The table "products" contains all the products to sell that it is in the shop. The table "pieces" is to take a control of the compound products. To know those who are the products children. For example of compound product: computers. This product is composed by other products (motherboard, hard disk, memory, cpu, etc.)

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  • Publishing a WCF Server and client and their endpoints

    - by Ahmadreza
    Imagine developing a WCF solution with two projects (WCF Service/ and web application as WCF Client). As long as I'm developing these two projects in visual studio and referencing service to client (Web Application) as server reference there is no problem. Visual studio automatically assign a port for WCF server and configure all needed configuration including Server And Client binging to something like this in server: <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="MYWCFProject.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MYWCFProject.IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> and in client: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" contract="MyWCFProject.IMyService" name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> The problem is I want to frequently publish this two project in two different servers as my production servers and Service url will be "http://mywcfdomain/MyService.svc". I don't want to change config file every time I publish my server project. The question is: is there any feature in Visual Studio 2008 to automatically change the URLs or I have to define two different endpoints and I set them within my code (based on a parameter in my configuration for example Development/Published).

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • SQLce DAL Linq to Sql or EntityFramework

    - by bretddog
    Hi, I'm learning databases, using SqlCe, and need business object to database mapping. Currently I try to decide if to use Linq to Sql, or EntityFramework. (I understand a bit L2S, but haven't familiarized with EF yet) The program will only be debeloped and used by myself, so I have good control of the priorities: I don't need to consider potential change of database type or data storage type, as I'm quite certain SQLce will stay sufficient. I DO expect continued development and changes to the data scheme while the program is in active use; change business object properties (Hence database columns), and possibly overall table scheme. So old data must be transported to new scheme. I also want to keep a decent degree of layer separation DAL/BLL, although this may not be necessary, it is good for me to learn these principles. My question is: With these priorities, would I have any benefit by choosing either Linq2Sql vs. EntityFramwork? (and please explain why) Btw, the project involves very simple table scheme with only 4-5 tables and very simple relations. Thanks!

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  • Hiding <option>s in IE

    - by Mark
    I wrote this nifty function to filter select boxes when their value is changed... $.fn.cascade = function() { var opts = this.children('option'); var rel = this.attr('rel'); $('[name='+rel+']').change(function() { var val = $(this).val(); var disp = opts.filter('[rel='+val+']'); opts.filter(':visible').hide(); disp.show(); if(!disp.filter(':selected').length) { disp.filter(':first').attr('selected','selected'); } }).trigger('change'); return this; } It looks at the rel property, and if the element indicated by rel changes, then it filters the list to only show the options that have that value... for example, it works on HTML that looks like this: <select id="id-pickup_address-country" name="pickup_address-country"> <option selected="selected" value="CA">Canada </option> <option value="US">United States </option> </select> <select id="id-pickup_address-province" rel="pickup_address-country" name="pickup_address-province"> <option rel="CA" value="AB">Alberta </option> <option selected="selected" rel="CA" value="BC">British Columbia </option> <option rel="CA" value="MB">Manitoba </option>... </select> However, I just discovered it doesn't work properly in IE (of course!) which doesn't seem to allow you to hide options. How can I work around this?

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  • How to simulate OutOfMemory exception

    - by Gacek
    I need to refactor my project in order to make it immune to OutOfMemory exception. There are huge collections used in my project and by changing one parameter I can make my program to be more accurate or use less of the memory... OK, that's the background. What I would like to do is to run the routines in a loop: Run the subroutines with the default parameter. Catch the OutOfMemory exception, change the parameter and try to run it again. Do the 2nd point until parameters allow to run the subroutines without throwing the exception (usually, there will be only one change needed). Now, I would like to test it. I know, that I can throw the OutOfMemory exception on my own, but I would like to simulate some real situation. So the main question is: Is there a way of setting some kind of memory limit for my program, after reaching which the OutOfMemory exception will be thrown automatically? For example, I would like to set a limit, let's say 400MB of memory for my whole program to simulate the situation when there is such an amount of memory available in the system. Can it be done?

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  • Do complex JOINs cause high coupling and maintenance problems ?

    - by ashkan.kh.nazary
    Our project has ~40 tables with complex relations.A colleague believes in using long join queries which enforces me to learn about tables outside of my module but I think I should not concern about tables not directly related to my module and use data access functions (written by those responsible for other modules) when I need data from them. Let me clarify: I am responsible for the ContactVendor module which enables the customers to contact the vendor and start a conversation about some specific product. Products module has it's own complex tables and relations with functions that encapsulate details (for example i18n, activation, product availability etc ...). Now I need to show the product title of some product related to some conversation between the vendor and customers. I may either write a long query that retrieves the product info along with conversation stuff in one shot (which enforces me to learn about Product tables) OR I may pass the relevant product_id to the get_product_info(int) function. First approach is obviously demanding and introduces many bad practices and things I normally consider fault in programming. The problem with the second approach seems to be the countless mini queries these access functions cause and performance loss is a concern when a loop tries to fetch product titles for 100 products using functions that each perform a separate query. So I'm stuck between "don't code to the implementation, code to interface" and performance. What is the right way of doing things ? UPDATE: I'm specially concerned about possible future modifications to those tables outside of my module. What if the Products module decided to change the way they are doing things? or for some reason modify the schema? It means some other modules would break or malfunction until the change is integrated to them. The usual ripple effect problem.

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  • ExecutorService memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

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  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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  • fullCalendar: Implementing a custom event fetcher using event as function

    - by Nick-ACNB
    If I specify a json feed, the events are re-fetched everytime and the fetching time shows the item appearing which causes a delay which is undesirable (at least after initial fetch was done). I am using the latest version from gitHub 1.4.6. The lazyFetching property seems to only work when you change views and you previously fetched for example a month and are drilling down to week/day which is unusable since I only use agendaDay. Here is what I am trying to achieve: $("#calendar").fullCalendar({ events: function(start, end, callback) { $.getJSON( "/GetEvents", { start: start.valueOf() }, function(data, textStatus) { $.each(data, function(i, event) { //Goal here is to only add items that aren't already rendered. if ($("#calendar") .fullCalendar('clientEvents', event.id)=="") $("#calendar").fullCalendar('renderEvent', event, true); }); } ); }); The goal is to use the sticky property in the renderEvent method so that on-screen they aren't re-rendered if they we're previously fetched. I omitted a part where I manually delete those that we're deleted and modify those that we're updated since I am in multi-user settings but you get the point. My issue is that they are fetched once and added. But once I change day and come back, they don't render even if I used sticky... has anyone gotten this error or did I code anything wrong? Also, is this a wrong way to go? I will consider any input. :) Thank you very much.

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  • What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

    - by Kabi
    I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

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  • Python virtualenv questions

    - by orokusaki
    I'm using VirtualEnv on Windows XP. I'm wondering if I have my brain wrapped around it correctly. I ran virtualenv ENV and it created C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV. I then changed my PATH variable to include C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Scripts instead of C:\Python27\Scripts. Then, I checked out Django into C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Lib\site-packages\django-trunk, updated my PYTHON_PATH variable to point the new Django directory, and continued to easy_install other things (which of course go into my new C:\WINDOWS\system32\ENV\Lib\site-packages directory). I understand why I should use VirtualEnv so I can run multiple versions of Django, and other libraries on the same machine, but does this mean that to switch between environments I have to basically change my PATH and PYTHON_PATH variable? So, I go from developing one Django project which uses Django 1.2 in an environment called ENV and then change my PATH and such so that I can use an environment called ENV2 which has the dev version of Django? Is that basically it, or is there some better way to automatically do all this (I could update my path in Python code, but that would require me to write machine-specific code in my application)? Also, how does this process compare to using VirtualEnv on Linux (I'm quite the beginner at Linux).

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  • [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

    - by John
    (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

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  • EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

    - by ashraf
    I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

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  • Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

    - by sonofpirate
    I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

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