Search Results

Search found 14226 results on 570 pages for 'feature requests'.

Page 455/570 | < Previous Page | 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462  | Next Page >

  • How would you protect a database of links from being scraped?

    - by Yegor
    I have a large database of links, which are all sorted in specific ways and are attached to other information, which is valuable (to some people). Currently my setup (which seems to work) simply calls a php file like link.php?id=123, it logs the request with a timestamp into the DB. Before it spits out the link, it checks how many requests were made from that IP in the last 5 minutes. If its greater than x, it redirects you to a captcha page. That all works fine and dandy, but the site has been getting really popular (as well as been getting DDOsed for about 6 weeks), so php has been getting floored, so Im trying to minimize the times I have to hit up php to do something. I wanted to show links in plain text instead of thru link.php?id= and have an onclick function to simply add 1 to the view count. Im still hitting up php, but at least if it lags, it does so in the background, and the user can see the link they requested right away. Problem is, that makes the site REALLY scrapable. Is there anything I can do to prevent this, but still not rely on php to do the check before spitting out the link?

    Read the article

  • Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

    - by Ryan Nichols
    I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

    Read the article

  • I'm trying to grasp the concept of creating a program that uses a MS SQL database, but I'm used to r

    - by Sergio Tapia
    How can I make a program use a MS SQL server, and have that program work on whatever computer it's installed on. If you've been following my string of questions today, you'd know that I'm making an open source and free Help Desk suite for small and medium businesses. The client application. The client application is a Windows Forms app. On installation and first launch on every client machine, it'll ask for the address of the main Help Desk server. The server. Here I plan to handle all incoming help requests, show them to the IT guys, and provide WCF services for the Client application to consume. My dilemma lies in that, I know how to make the program run on my local machine; but I'm really stumped on how to make this work for everyone who wants to download and install the server bit on their Windows Server. Would I have to make an SQL Script and have it run on the MS SQL server when a user wants to install the 'server' application? Many thanks to all for your valuable time and effort to teach me. It's really really appreciated. :)

    Read the article

  • Simple ASP.NET MVC views without writing a controller

    - by Jake Stevenson
    We're building a site that will have very minimal code, it's mostly just going to be a bunch of static pages served up. I know over time that will change and we'll want to swap in more dynamic information, so I've decided to go ahead and build a web application using ASP.NET MVC2 and the Spark view engine. There will be a couple of controllers that will have to do actual work (like in the /products area), but most of it will be static. I want my designer to be able to build and modify the site without having to ask me to write a new controller or route every time they decide to add or move a page. So if he wants to add a "http://mysite.com/News" page he can just create a "News" folder under Views and put an index.spark page within it. Then later if he decides he wants a /News/Community page, he can drop a community.spark file within that folder and have it work. I'm able to have a view without a specific action by making my controllers override HandleUnknownAction, but I still have to create a controller for each of these folders. It seems silly to have to add an empty controller and recompile every time they decide to add an area to the site. Is there any way to make this easier, so I only have to write a controller and recompile if there's actual logic to be done? Some sort of "master" controller that will handle any requests where there was no specific controller defined?

    Read the article

  • protecting grails melody with grails filter

    - by batmannavneet
    I have an application where I am using spring security along with grails melody. I am planning to run grails melody in production environment, but don't want visitors to have access to it. How should I achieve that ? I tried creating a filter in grails (just showing the sample of what I am trying, not the actual code)- def filters = { allURIs(uri:'/**') { before = { //... if(request.forwardURI.indexOf("admin") != -1 || request.forwardURI.indexOf("monitoring") != -1) { response.sendError 404 return false } } } } But this doesnt work as the request for "monitoring" doesnt hit this filter. I dont even want the user to know that such a URL exists, so I want to check in the filter that if "monitoring" is the URL, I show the 404 error page. Thats also the reason why I dont want to protect this URL with spring security as it will show "access denied" page. Basically I want the URL to exist but they should be invisible to users. I want the access to be open to only certain IP addresses for these special URLs. On another note, Is it possible to write a grails filter that "acts" before the spring security filter is hit ? I want to be able to do some filtering before I forward requests to spring security. Writing a grails filter like above doesnt help. Spring security filter gets hit first if I access a protected resource and this filter doesn't get called. Thanks

    Read the article

  • .NET TCP socket with session

    - by Zé Carlos
    Is there any way of dealing with sessions with sockets in C#? Example of my problem: I have a server with a socket listening on port 5672. TcpListener socket = new TcpListener(localAddr, 5672); socket.Start(); Console.Write("Waiting for a connection... "); // Perform a blocking call to accept requests. TcpClient client = socket.AcceptTcpClient(); Console.WriteLine("Connected to client!"); And i have two clients that will send one byte. Client A send 0x1 and client B send 0x2. From the server side, i read this data like this: Byte[] bytes = new Byte[256]; String data = null; NetworkStream stream = client.GetStream(); while ((stream.Read(bytes, 0, bytes.Length)) != 0) { byte[] answer = new ... stream.Write(answer , 0, answer.Length); } Then client A sends 0x11. I need a way to know that this client is the same that sent "0x1" before.

    Read the article

  • Publishing artifacts with sources on archiva

    - by Palimondo
    At work I'm dipping my toes in managing project dependencies with maven. We use Apache Archiva (1.2.1) as a local repository and proxy. I'm adding artifact for open source project, that is not published on any public repository. I've learned that to publish the sources I should use the Classifier field on Upload artifact page. The sources are then listed alongside the jar and pom when I browse the repository. But when I update my maven dependencies I get only the jar and pom from the repository. I noticed that sources are also missing when the archiva proxies for me the downloads from other public repositories. I didn't find any configuration options in Archiva's admin pages to serve the sources... What am I missing? Update: I was missing the fact that artifact sources have to be downloaded manually. I.e. the maven client has to request them, which is controlled by command line option -DdownloadSources=true. Maven Integration for Eclipse has a preference setting to always download them as described in Resolving artifact sources. Archiva then serves the sources for local artifacts or proxies the request to remote repositories and caches the sources for future requests.

    Read the article

  • Application error passthru when using apache mod_proxy

    - by user303442
    Heyas. I'm using mod_proxy with apache2 provide vhost ability to multiple servlet apps running on the local machine. It works fine, for the most part. Requests come into apache then are directed to the application bound on a port on localhost. The app receives the request and responds, which is delivered back to the client by apache. The problem I'm having is that the application delivers 500's on errors, and mod_proxy stomps on them. Often these errors are caused in a ajax request and the error is handled in client side javascript. For example, a call to a server side createObject(name) might throw a NameNotUniqueException , which is delivered back as a 500. The client javascript might then display an appropriate error message. When an error is thrown by the application (resulting in a 500 response to mod_proxy), then apache stomps the error message and returns 500 Internal Server Error Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. .. the stock apache server side error message. I want mod_proxy to pass the original 500 back through to the client. Is there a directive I've missed which prevents clobbering of the 500? TIA

    Read the article

  • Scheduling of tasks to a single resource using Prolog

    - by Reed Debaets
    I searched through here as best I could and though I found some relevant questions, I don't think they covered the question at hand: Assume a single resource and a known list of requests to schedule a task. Each request includes a start_after, start_by, expected_duration, and action. The goal is to schedule the tasks for execution as soon as possible while keeping each task scheduled between start_after and start_by. I coded up a simple prolog example that I "thought" should work but I've been unfortunately getting errors during run time: "=/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated". Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated startAfter(1,0). startAfter(2,0). startAfter(3,0). startBy(1,100). startBy(2,500). startBy(3,300). duration(1,199). duration(2,199). duration(3,199). action(1,'noop1'). action(2,'noop2'). action(3,'noop3'). can_run(R,T) :- startAfter(R,TA),startBy(R,TB),T>=TA,T=<TB. conflicts(T,R1,T1) :- duration(R1,D1),T=<D1+T1,T>T1. schedule(R1,T1,R2,T2,R3,T3) :- can_run(R1,T1),\+conflicts(T1,R2,T2),\+conflicts(T1,R3,T3), can_run(R2,T2),\+conflicts(T2,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T2,R3,T3), can_run(R3,T3),\+conflicts(T3,R1,T1),\+conflicts(T3,R2,T2). % when traced I *should* see T1=0, T2=400, T3=200 Edit: conflicts goal wasn't quite right: needed extra TT1 clause. Edit: Apparently my schedule goal works if I supply valid Request,Time pairs ... but I'm stucking trying to force prolog to find valid values for T1..3 when given R1..3?

    Read the article

  • Configuring IHS server to direct traffic to the Netty component bound to a port

    - by rbot
    I have a Server Component ( based on Jboss-Netty, which could maintain & handle persistent connections ) deployed in WAS. This component when deployed & initiated within the WAS environment, binds to a port & listens for incoming HTTP connection. [ Why i had to deploy a Netty HTTP Server within WAS is another story - management requirement !! Netty is deployed in WAS as a spring bean which when initiated runs on a port in the machine, independent of WAS ] Clients (mobile app) were able to establish persistent HTTP connections (to the above URL::Port) with this netty component & send/receive requests. Now, I have to replicate this feature in our Production Environment where a IHS Server (Web Server) which sits before the WAS. What i expected is to get a IHS URL which could redirect the incoming packets to the specific PORT on WAS, so that the Client apps can establish a similar persistent http connection. Our Server Admin tried a few combinations and we are not able to identify how to proceed further on this. Your expert ideas would be highly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Trouble getting $.ajax() to work in PhoneGap against a locally hosted server

    - by David Gutierrez
    Currently trying to make an ajax post request to an IIS Express hosted MVC 4 Web API end point from an android VM (Bluestacks) on my machine. Here are the snippets of code that I am trying, and cannot get to work: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://10.0.2.2:28434/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); Whenever I run this request I always get back a textStatus of 'error'. After hours of trying different things, I pushed my End Point to an actual server, and was able to actually get responses back in PhoneGap if I built up an XMLHttpRequest by hand, like so: var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST", "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", true); request.onreadystatechange = function(){//Call a function when the state changes. console.log("state = " + request.readyState); console.log("status = " + request.status); if (request.readyState == 4) { if (request.status == 200 || request.status == 0) { console.log("*" + request.responseText + "*"); } } } request.send("{EncryptedPassword:1234,UserName:test,DeviceToken:d234}"); Unfortunately, if I try to use $.ajax() against the same end point in the snippet above I still get a status text that says 'error', here is that snippet for reference: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://172.16.100.42/MobileRewards/api/devices", data: {'EncryptedPassword':'1234','UserName':'test','DeviceToken':'d234'} }).always(function( data, textStatus, jqXHR ) { alert( textStatus ); }); So really, there are a couple of questions here. 1) Why can't I get any ajax calls (post or get) to successfully hit my End Point when it's hosted via IIS Express on the same machine that the Android VM is running? 2) When my end point is hosted on an actual server, through IIS and served through port 80, why can't I get post requests to be successful when I use jquery's ajax calls? (Even though I can get it to work by manually creating an XMLHttpRequest) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Apache - "dynamic" rewrite rule

    - by Christian A. Rasmussen
    Hi there. I'm working on a Zend Framework project where I've stumbled across a bit of a problem. The problem originates from the fact that modules are 2nd class citizens in Zend Framework. In my project, I'd like for each module to have a folder containing files which are to be accessed from the outside - files such as stylesheets, javascripts and images. Now, how is this to be done. With a Zend Framework project I have a folder structure which looks like this: application/ modules/ moduleOne/ public/ stylesheet.css moduleTwo/ moduleThree/ public/ index.php The standard .htaccess file located in the public/ folder holds this: SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] The way it works, is that the project's apache DocumentRoot is the public/ folder. All requests gets redirected through the index.php file where Zend Framework's router component takes over. Now, I'm by no means an expert with Apache nor mod_rewrite so pardon me if this is just silly. I imagine that I implement an extra step in the existing rewrite rule so that if I request http://project/public/moduleOne/stylesheet.css it will for instance resolve to /var/www/project/application/modules/moduleOne/public/stylesheet.css. So the steps which need to be done is to check if the first element in the URI is public/ if it is, we take the next segment as the modules name and use that in the path we're trying to resolve to and attempt to serve the file. Is this at all possible or does anyone have a better suggestion? Thank you for your time Christian Rasmussen

    Read the article

  • WCF service returns error 500 on /js request

    - by Cine
    I have a wcf service that randomly begins to fail when requesting the autogenerated javascript that wcf supports making. But I have no luck tracking down why. The js thing is part of the wcf featureset, so I dont know how it can suddenly begin to fail and be unable to work until IIS is recycled. The http log gives me: 2010-06-10 09:11:49 W3SVC2095255988 myip GET /path/myservice.svc/js _=1276161113900 80 - ip browser 500 0 0 So its an error 500, and that is about the only thing I can figure out. The event log contains no information. Requests to /path/myservice.svc works just fine. After recycling IIS it works again, and some days later it begins to fail until I recycle IIS. <service name="path.myservice" behaviorConfiguration="b"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="eb" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="path.Imyservice" /> </service> ... <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="eb"> <enableWebScript /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="b"> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> I dont see any problems in the web.config settings either. Any clues how I can track down what the problem is?

    Read the article

  • Speeding up a soap powered website

    - by ChrisRamakers
    Hi all, We're currently looking into doing some performance tweaking on a website which relies heavily on a Soap webservice. But ... our servers are located in Belgium and the webservice we connect to is locate in San Francisco so it's a long distance connection to say the least. Our website is PHP powered, using PHP's built in SoapClient class. On average a call to the webservice takes 0.7 seconds and we are doing about 3-5 requests per page. All possible request/response caching is already implemented so we are now looking at other ways to improved the connection speed. This is the code which instantiates the SoapClient, what i'm looking for now is other ways/methods to improve speed on single requestes. Anyone has idea's or suggestions? private function _createClient() { try { $wsdl = sprintf($this->config->wsUrl.'?wsdl', $this->wsdl); $client = new SoapClient($wsdl, array( 'soap_version' => SOAP_1_1, 'encoding' => 'utf-8', 'connection_timeout' => 5, 'cache_wsdl' => 1, 'trace' => 1, 'features' => SOAP_SINGLE_ELEMENT_ARRAYS )); $header_tags = array('username' => new SOAPVar($this->config->wsUsername, XSD_STRING, null, null, null, $this->ns), 'password' => new SOAPVar(md5($this->config->wsPassword), XSD_STRING, null, null, null, $this->ns)); $header_body = new SOAPVar($header_tags, SOAP_ENC_OBJECT); $header = new SOAPHeader($this->ns, 'AuthHeaderElement', $header_body); $client->__setSoapHeaders($header); } catch (SoapFault $e){ controller('Error')->error($id.': Webservice connection error '.$e->getCode()); exit; } $this->client = $client; return $this->client; }

    Read the article

  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

    Read the article

  • Return and Save XML Object From Sharepoint List Web Service

    - by HurnsMobile
    I am trying to populate a variable with an XML response from an ajax call on page load so that on keyup I can filter through that list without making repeated get requests (think very rudimentary autocomplete). The trouble that I am having seems to be potentially related to variable scoping but I am fairly new to js/jQuery so I am not quite certain. The following code doesn't do anything on key up and adding alerts to it tells me that it is executing leadResults() on keyup and that the variable is returning an XML response object but it appears to be empty. The strange bit is that if I move the leadResults() call into the getResults() function the UL is populated with the results correctly. Im beating my head against the wall on this one, please help! var resultsXml; $(document).ready( function() { var leadLookupCaml = "<Query> \ <Where> \ <Eq> \ <FieldRef Name=\"Lead_x0020_Status\"/> \ <Value Type=\"Text\">Active</Value> \ </Eq> \ </Where> \ </Query>" $().SPServices({ operation: "GetListItems", webURL: "http://sharepoint/departments/sales", listName: "Leads", CAMLQuery: leadLookupCaml, CAMLRowLimit: 0, completefunc: getResults }); }) $("#lead_search").keyup( function(e) { leadResults(); }) function getResults(xData, status) { resultsXml = xData; } function leadResults() { xData = resultsXml; $("#lead_results li").remove(); $(xData.responseXML).find("z\\:row").each(function() { var selectHtml = "<li>" + "<a href=\"http://sharepoint/departments/sales/Lists/Lead%20Groups/DispForm.aspx?ID=" + $(this).attr("ows_ID") + ">" + $(this).attr("ows_Title")+" : " + $(this).attr("ows_Phone") + "</a>\ </li>"; $("#lead_results").append(selectHtml); }); }

    Read the article

  • What is causing Apache2 to display PHP as plain text in this config file?

    - by rxgx
    I am trying to run PHP and Rails in the same virtual host, however, PHP is being displayed as plain/text. When I create a test host without all the rewrites and proxy-ing, Apache2 will process the PHP as desired. Where in my config file have I gone wrong? <VirtualHost *:80> #ServerName staging.domain.com #ServerAlias www.domain.com DocumentRoot /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /home/demo/vhosts/domain/public> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> RewriteEngine On <Proxy balancer://thinservers> BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5000 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5001 BalancerMember http://127.0.0.1:5002 </Proxy> # Redirect all non-static requests to thin RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}/%{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://thinservers%{REQUEST_URI} [P,QSA,L] ProxyPass / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPassReverse / balancer://thinservers/ ProxyPreserveHost on <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> # Custom log file locations ErrorLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/error.log CustomLog /home/demo/vhosts/domain/log/access.log combined </VirtualHost>

    Read the article

  • Designing code for a duo Website + AIR desktop App

    - by faB
    I want to use AIR to create an OFFLINE version of a "webapp" kind of website (lots of ajax, front end code). Haven't been much further than the HelloWorld example, I keep wondering: how do you design your code, to maximize code reuse between the website (say in php or Java or .Net), and the AIR app ? Can you actually re-use 100% of the front end code, provided that it is designed to account for the AIR app ? How would you go about doing that ? For example, the website makes many Ajax calls which have latency, and uses listeners. The AIR app doesn't need listeners it could run database requests synchronously, and it doesn't need to run ajax calls right? Would you write an abstraction layer for that ? So that the same calls on the AIR app will not do a xmlhttp but instead implement the server-side code with AIR; and call the listener ? So you don't have to rewrite the front end code patterns ? Does this make sense ? It's really hard to search on Google. I'm thinking there must be a good article somewhere of somebody who went through and perhaps a framework to do that ?

    Read the article

  • Architecture Guidance Needed?

    - by vijay
    We are about to automate number of process for our reporting team. (The reports are like daily reports, weekly reports, monthly reports, etc..) Mostly the process is like pulling some data from the oracle and then fill them in particular excel template files. Each reports and so their templates are different from each other. Except the excel file manipulation, there are hardly any business logic behind these. Client wanted an integrated tool and all the automated processes are placed as menus/submenus. Right now roughly there are around 30 process waiting to be automated. And we are expecting more new reports in the next quarter. I am nowhere to near having any practical experience when comes to architecuring. Already i have been maintaining two or three systems(they are more than 4yrs old.) for this prestegious client.The possiblity of the above mentioned tool will be manintained for another 3 yrs is very likely. From my past experience i've been through the pain of implmenting change requests to the rigd & undocumented code base resulting in the break down of the system and then eventually myself. So My main and top most concern is the maintainablity. When i was searching for these i came across this link, Smart Clients Using CAB and SCSF is the above link appropriate for my requirement? Also Should i place each automated processes in separate forms under a single project, or place them in separate projects under a single solution.. Please correct me if have missed any other important information. Thx.

    Read the article

  • Is Software Engineering Dead? [closed]

    - by nik
    Right from Jeff's blog: Software Engineering: Dead? I was utterly floored when I read this new IEEE article by Tom DeMarco (pdf). See if you can tell why. He quotes DeMarco, "I'm gradually coming to the conclusion that software engineering is an idea whose time has come and gone". Further, "What DeMarco seems to be saying -- and, at least, what I am definitely saying -- is that control is ultimately illusory on software development projects." I am writing these lines without context to invoke reading of the related subject. What are the views of the programming community here? I have started to realize that a community wiki is not getting the right amount of participation here. That is the reason I left this question out in the open, while still contemplating a change to CW. It was closed once, and I thought that was the end of it. But, now I see it was reopened and has more answers (all of which I have not yet read). However, I see a lot of CW requests and am forced to reconsider that. This is how I intend to make the CW decision here. There is a comment by Neil Butterworth requesting a CW at 12 upvotes -- "should be community wiki" There is a comment by Lance Roberts requesting no CW at 0 upvotes -- "+1 for not putting it in community wiki" The difference is 12 for a CW request at the moment If this difference becomes 5 more (that is 17), I'll move this question to CW, and it will not return back from there Of course, there is also a close vote at the moment; the question may be closed again.

    Read the article

  • Editing a User's Likes on Facebook

    - by Ed Marty
    I've been looking at the Facebook API to find some way to edit a user's Likes (that is, add or remove items from https://graph.facebook.com/me/likes/). The API doesn't say anything about it specifically, but does say this: You can publish to the Facebook graph by issuing HTTP POST requests to the appropriate connection URLs above. Where above, one of the connection URLs is the aforementioned https://graph.facebook.com/me/likes link. However, there's no documentation for the PROFILE_ID/likes post, and whenever I try to post it returns the error "invalid post_id". I assume this is because to like something, you post a request to POST_ID/likes. It's a bit inconsistent. What I'm trying to do is get the user's profile to add a Page to their likes (by posting using the page's id as an "id" parameter in the post body). However, it seems like there's just no way to edit user's likes. At the end of the day, I just want to allow a user to click a button in my application (mobile device application, not a web app) and have them add our Facebook page into their list of pages, and I've found no way of doing that short of presenting our page to them and making them click on the "Like" button manually. Many other things are supported without showing the Facebook website, like posting to their wall or making albums, but I can't find anything to do this. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Tomcat 4.1.31 - HTTPS not working intermittently | "Page Cannot be Displayed" problems

    - by cedar715
    We are facing this error intermittently. If we restart the server it works for some time and again the problem start. We also have another load balanced server with similar configuration and that is working fine. The server is running on Linux box. If we do the "ps -ef" its listing the TOMCAT process. URL : https://xyz.abc.com:9234/axis/servlet/AxisServlet Following the configuration in server.xml file. <Connector className="org.apache.coyote.tomcat4.CoyoteConnector" port="9234" minProcessors="5" maxProcessors="75" enableLookups="true" acceptCount="100" debug="0" scheme="https" secure="true" useURIValidationHack="false" disableUploadTimeout="true"> <Factory className="org.apache.coyote.tomcat4.CoyoteServerSocketFactory" clientAuth="false" protocol="TLS" /> </Connector> Is it the problem with our load balancer which is forwarding most requests to this server? Is it any way related to the "maxProcessors" or "acceptCount" attributes defined in the above configuration? Is it the problem with the port number?? Does it have to do any thing with the certificate. The certificate is generated using Java Keytool. ( However, the other load balanced server is also using the same certificate and working fine) Please suggest in resolving this issue. thanks

    Read the article

  • Multi-account sync with Dropbox API

    - by Dan
    I'm trying to create a web app that lets users share files with each other through Dropbox. At the moment, Dropbox handles all the sharing, and there's one central Dropbox account running on the web server that shares the folder with the people who want it. I'm trying to change it so people don't have to accept a new folder invitation each time. I'd like to have them authorize my app to access an app folder in their Dropbox account, and all their shared folders would go inside there. Any changes they make would get noticed by the app on the server and synced to everyone else's folders. There's a couple things I'm having trouble figuring out to make this work: Do I need to make repeated calls to /delta for every account? I can't think how else I'd do this, but that sounds like it would quickly turn into thousands of requests a minute just polling for updates. When someone adds a file, do I have to upload it once for each account? That seems like a huge waste of bandwidth. I've looked into using /copy_ref, which I think would add a file to another user's account without my app ever touching it, but my app's web interface also allows users to upload files directly to my server, which would then need to be synced with everyone else's folders. That file isn't on Dropbox's servers yet, so /copy_ref obviously wouldn't work. For a little extra context, my app is written in node.js, and I've been playing with this library to interface with Dropbox, which uses their REST API.

    Read the article

  • Password Confirmation Overlay

    - by Alasdair
    Hello, I'm creating a J2EE web application that uses jQuery and Ajax to help with some of the presentation for a user-friendly interface. I've done a lot of work ensuring security around persistant login cookies, and I've decided to request the password from any user that logged in using a persistant login cookie before being allowed to make any changes that could be malicious. This request would only happen once to confirm the user is who they say they are and will last throughout the session. At present, any requests that meet this criteria has their request information stored in session and then the user is forwarded to a page to confirm their password. Once confirmed, the user's original request is then performed and the requestion information removed from session. What I would like to do is avoid all this redirection and minimize what's held in session (even if it's just for a small time), thus improving usability and convenience for the user. I believe that a jQuery overlay could allow me to prompt the user for their password (if required) and then continue to submit the request if successful. I would of originally used ThickBox, but since that's now deprecated I don't see the benefit in implementing it in an application at this development stage. However, I have tried to create an overlay using jQuery but I've scrapped every attempt as I can't seem to make it all come together. My main problem is preventing the submission when the user incorrectly types a password or cancels the overlay. Desired Flow Persistant Login Sensitive Page Submit Password Confirmation Overlay [Continue Submit | (Cancel | Incorrect] I have already created JavaScript code to encrypt the password to be sent in a parameter, but all I need now is a method of controlling the overlay and how best to use Ajax for this purpose. Please ignore the fact that this is a J2EE web application when answering as it is irrelevant really. Thanks in advance, Alasdair

    Read the article

  • UIWebView: webViewDidStartLoad/webViewDidFinishLoad delegate methods not called when loading certain URLs

    - by Dia
    I have basic web browser implemented using a UIWebView. I've noticed that for some pages, none of the UIWebViewDelegate methods are called. An example page in which this happens is: http://www.youtube.com/user/google. Here are the steps to reproduce the issue (make sure you insert NSLog calls in your controller's UIWebViewDelegate methods): Load the above youtube URL into the UIWebView [notice that here, the UIWebViewDelegate methods do get called when the page loads] Touch the "Uploads" category on the page Touch any video in that category [issue: notice that a new page is loaded, but none of the UIWebView delegates are called] I know that this is not an issue of UIWebView's delegate not being set properly, since the delegate methods do get invoked when loading other links (e.g. if you try clicking on a link that takes you outside of youtube, you'll notice the delegate methods getting called). My gut feeling initially was that it might be because the page is loaded using AJAX, which may not invoke the delegate method. But then when I checked Safari, it did not exhibit this problem, so it must be something on my side. I've also noticed that Three20's TTWebController has the exact same issue as I'm having. But the problem that arises from this issue is that without the delegate methods called, I'm unable to update the UI to enable/disable the back and forward browsing buttons when new requests are loaded. And idea why this is happening or how can I work around it to update the UI when a new request is made?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462  | Next Page >