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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • python: nonblocking subprocess, check stdout

    - by Will Cavanagh
    Ok so the problem I'm trying to solve is this: I need to run a program with some flags set, check on its progress and report back to a server. So I need my script to avoid blocking while the program executes, but I also need to be able to read the output. Unfortunately, I don't think any of the methods available from Popen will read the output without blocking. I tried the following, which is a bit hack-y (are we allowed to read and write to the same file from two different objects?) import time import subprocess from subprocess import * with open("stdout.txt", "wb") as outf: with open("stderr.txt", "wb") as errf: command = ['Path\\To\\Program.exe', 'para', 'met', 'ers'] p = subprocess.Popen(command, stdout=outf, stderr=errf) isdone = False while not isdone : with open("stdout.txt", "rb") as readoutf: #this feels wrong for line in readoutf: print(line) print("waiting...\\r\\n") if(p.poll() != None) : done = True time.sleep(1) output = p.communicate()[0] print(output) Unfortunately, Popen doesn't seem to write to my file until after the command terminates. Does anyone know of a way to do this? I'm not dedicated to using python, but I do need to send POST requests to a server in the same script, so python seemed like an easier choice than, say, shell scripting. Thanks! Will

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  • IIS, Web services, Time out error

    - by Eduard
    Hello, We’ve got problem with ASP.NET web application that uses web services of other system. I’ll describe our system architecture: we have web application and Windows services that uses the same web services. - Windows service works all the time and sends information to these web services once an hour. - Web application is designed for users to send the same information in manual behavior. The problem is when user sometimes tries to send information in manual behavior in the web application, .NET throws exception „The operation has timed out” (web?). At that time Windows service successfully sends all necessary information to these web services. IT stuff that supports these web services asserts that there was no any request from our web application at that time. Then we have restarted IIS (iisreset) and everything has started to work fine. This situation repeats all the time. There is no anti-virus or firewall on the server. My suggestion is that there is something wrong with IIS, patches, configuration or whatever? The only specific thing is that there are requests that can least 2 minutes (web service response wait time). We tried to reproduce this situation on our local test servers, but everything works fine. OS: Windows Server 2003 R2 .NET: 3.5

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  • Unable to call RESTful web services methods

    - by Alessandro
    Hello, I'm trying to dive into the RESTful web services world and have started with the following template: [ServiceContract] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)] public class Test { // TODO: Implement the collection resource that will contain the SampleItem instances [WebGet(UriTemplate = ""), OperationContract] public List<SampleItem> GetCollection() { // TODO: Replace the current implementation to return a collection of SampleItem instances return new List<SampleItem>() {new SampleItem() {Id = 1, StringValue = "Hello"}}; } [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST"), OperationContract] public SampleItem Create(SampleItem instance) { // TODO: Add the new instance of SampleItem to the collection throw new NotImplementedException(); } [WebGet(UriTemplate = "{id}"), OperationContract] public SampleItem Get(string id) { // TODO: Return the instance of SampleItem with the given id throw new NotImplementedException(); } [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "{id}", Method = "PUT"), OperationContract] public SampleItem Update(string id, SampleItem instance) { return new SampleItem { Id = 99, StringValue = "Done" }; } [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "{id}", Method = "DELETE"), OperationContract] public void Delete(string id) { // TODO: Remove the instance of SampleItem with the given id from the collection throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I am able to perform the GET operation but I am unable to perform PUT, POST or DELETE requests. Can anyone explain me how to perform these operations and how to create the correct URLs? Best regards Alessandro

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  • How to configure for multiple gettext domains with babel, pylons, setuptools

    - by ICanHaveSpam
    While trying to internationalize my pylons web and mobile application, 'myapp', Im finding that I would like to keep separate gettext pot files for separate domains. There will be common msgid values for both web and mobile users and there will also be unique msgid values that are only translated for web or mobile users. Im expecting localized msgstrs for mobile users will be different (more terse) than the localized msgstrs for normal web users. The environment is like: the same myapp/controllers will be used for both mobile and web requests. mobile users will have their pages rendered from myapp/templates/mobile normal web users will have their pages rendered from myapp/templates/web What happens by default: I end up with myapp/i18n/myapp.pot and myapp/i18n/*/LC_MESSAGES/myapp.[pm]o files that contain msgid values from controllers and both sets of templates. What Im looking for: to set the gettext domain for the user's session when I decide which templates will render their responses. myapp's msgids from controllers and web template extract into myapp/i18n/web.pot myapp's msgids from controllers and mobile templates extract into myapp/i18n/mobile.pot babel's init_catalog, update_catalog, and compile_catalog runs deal with these separate domains and create separate po and mo localization files. Where Im lost: configuring myapp's setup.cfg and setup.py to deal with separate gettext domains so that I can direct extracted msgid values into a particular pot file based on the path of the python and template files.

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  • Why calling Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()) is a bad idea?

    - by Tal Kanel
    I've read some posts saying using this method is "not good", shouldn't been use, it's not the right way to "close" the application and it's not how android works... I understand and accept the fact that Android OS knows better then me when it's the right time to terminate the process, but I didn't heard yet a good explanation why it's wrong using the killProcess() method?. after all - it's part of the android API... what I do know is that calling this method while other threads doing in potential an important work (operations on files, writing to DB, HTTP requests, running services..) can be terminated in the middle, and it's clearly not good. also I know I can benefit from the fact that "re-open" the application will be faster, cause the system maybe still "holds" in memory state from last time been used, and killProcess() prevents that. beside this reason, in assumption I don't have such operations, and I don't care my application will load from scratch each run, there are other reasons why not using the killProcess() method? I know about finish() method to close an Activity, so don't write me about that please.. finish() is only for Activity. not to all application, and I think I know exactly why and when to use it... and another thing - I'm developing also games with the Unity3D framework, and exporting the project to android. when I decompiled the generated apk, I was very suprised to find out that the java source code created from unity - implementing Unity's - Application.quit() method, with Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()). Application.quit() is suppose to be the right way to close game according to Unity3d guides (is it really?? maybe I'm wrong, and missed something), so how it happens that the Unity's framework developers which doing a very good work as it seems implemented this in native android to killProcess()? anyway - I wish to have a "list of reasons" why not using the killProcess() method, so please write down your answer - if you have something interesting to say about that. TIA

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  • PerformancePoint dashboard permissions problem in MOSS

    - by Nathan DeWitt
    I have a PerformancePoint dashboard running in MOSS 2007 portal. The dashboard consists of one SSRS 2005 report, running in SharePoint Integrated mode. NT Authority\Authenticated Users have read permissions to the report library containing the SSRS report, the dashboard, and the report library containing the dashboard. Users that attempt to access the dashboard receive the following error message: The permissions granted to user 'DOMAIN\firstname.lastname' are insufficient for performing this operation. (rsAccessDenied) Users that then click on the direct link to the report in MOSS will see the report with no problem. Subsequent visits to the dashboard show the report with no problem. The report is using a data source that is located one folder up from the report location. The report has been updated to point to the correct shared data source after deployment. Both the report and the data source have been published. The data source is using stored credentials, with a domain service account that has been set to Use as Windows credentials. This service account is serving other reports in other areas with no problem. Edit: Ok, I've gotten a lot more information on this problem. The request is never actually being made to the data source. The user comes in to the dashboard and requests a report for the first time using their kerberos token identifying themselves. The report looks in the Report Server database and finds that they are not listed in the users table and generates this rsAccessDenied error. Once they view the report directly their name is in this table and they never have the problem again. Unfortunately, removing the user from the Users table in the RS database doesn't actually cause this error to happen again. Everything I've read says that when you run a Report Server in MOSS integrated mode all your permissions are handled at the MOSS report library level, and all Auth users have permissions to the report library, as stated earlier. Any ideas?

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  • Vimeo Desktop App OAuth

    - by Barry
    Hi Guys, I'm currently having massive trouble with Vimeo's Oauth implementation and my desktop app. My program does the following correctly. 1- Requests a Unauthorized Request Token with my key and secret and returns - a Token and a Token secret. 2- Generates a URL for the user to go to using the token which then shows our application's name and allows the user to Authorize us to use his/her account. It then shows a verifier which the user returns and puts into our app. The problem is the third step and actually exchanging the tokens for the access tokens. Basically every time we try and get them we get a "Invalid / expired token - The oauth_token passed was either not valid or has expired" I looked at the documentation and there's supposed to be a callback to a server when deployed like that which gives the user an "authorized token" but as im developing a desktop app we can't do this. So I assume the token retrieved in 1 is valid for this step. (actually it seems it is: http://vimeo.com/forums/topic:22605) So I'm wondering now am I missing something here on my actual vimeo application account now? is it treating it as a web hosted app with callbacks? all the elements are there for this to work and I've used this same component to create a twitter Oauth login in exactly the same way and it was fine. Thanks in advance, Barry

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • Optimal Serialization of Primitive Types

    - by Greg Dean
    We are beginning to roll out more and more WAN deployments of our product (.Net fat client w/ IIS hosted Remoting backend). Because of this we are trying to reduce the size of the data on the wire. We have overridden the default serialization by implementing ISerializable (similar to this), we are seeing anywhere from 12% to 50% gains. Most of our efforts focus on optimizing arrays of primitive types. I would like to know if anyone knows of any fancy way of serializing primitive types, beyond the obvious? For example today we serialize an array of ints as follows: [4-bytes (array length)][4-bytes][4-bytes] Can anyone do significantly better? The most obvious example of a significant improvement, for boolean arrays, is putting 8 bools in each byte, which we already do. Note: Saving 7 bits per bool may seem like a waste of time, but when you are dealing with large magnitudes of data (which we are), it adds up very fast. Note: We want to avoid general compression algorithms because of the latency associated with it. Remoting only supports buffered requests/responses(no chunked encoding). I realize there is a fine line between compression and optimal serialization, but our tests indicate we can afford very specific serialization optimizations at very little cost in latency. Whereas reprocessing the entire buffered response into new compressed buffer is too expensive.

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  • How to import data to SAP

    - by Mehmet AVSAR
    Hi, As a complete stranger in town of SAP, I want to transfer my own application's (mobile salesforce automation) data to SAP. My application has records of customers, stocks, inventory, invoices (and waybills), cheques, payments, collections, stock transfer data etc. I have an additional database which holds matchings of records. ie. A customer with ID 345 in my application has key 120-035-0223 in SAP. Every record, for sure, has to know it's counterpart, including parameters. After searching Google and SAP help site for a day, I covered that it's going to be a bit more pain than I expected. Especially SAP site does not give even a clue on it. Say I couldn't find. We transferred our data to some other ERP systems, some of which wanted XML files, some other exposed their APIs. My point is, is Sql Server's SSIS an option for me? I hope it is, so I can fight on my own territory. Since client requests would vary a lot, I count flexibility as most important criteria. Also, I want to transfer as much data as I could. Any help is appreciated. Regards,

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  • Offline iOS web app: loads my manifest, but doesn't work offline

    - by Ken
    I'm writing a web app to be used offline on iOS. I've created a manifest, am serving it up as text/cache-manifest, and it usually works fine, when running inside Safari. If I add it as an app to my home screen, then turn on Airplane mode, it can't open the app at all -- I get an error and it offers to close the app. (I thought this was the entire purpose of an offline app!) When I load the app a first time when online, I can see in my logs that it's requesting every page listed in the manifest. If I turn off Airplane mode, and load the app, I can see the first file it's requesting is my main.html file (which is both listed in the manifest, and has the manifest=... attribute). It then requests the manifest, and all my other files, getting 200's for all (and 304's for anything requested a second time during this load). When I load the page in Chrome, and click around, the logs show the only thing it's trying to reach on the server is "/favicon.ico" (which is a 404, and which I don't think iOS Safari tries to load, anyway). All of the files listed in the manifest are valid and served without error. The Chrome inspector lists, under "APPLICATION CACHE", all the cached files I've listed which I expect. The entire set of files is about 50 KB, way under any limit on offline resources that I've found. Is this supposed to work, i.e., am I supposed to be able to create an offline iOS app using only HTML/CSS/JS? And where do I go about figuring out why it's failing to work offline? (Related but doesn't sound quite the same to me, since it's about Safari and not a standalone app: "Can't get a web app to work offline on iPod")

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  • How Do I make a simple .htaccess internal redirect Catch All script while forwarding POST data?

    - by RB
    I just want to catch all requests and forward them internally to my catchall page with all POST data intact Catch all page: http://www.mydomain.com/addons/redirect/catch-all.php I've tried so many combinations, but my server doesn't want to redirect internally if I specify more than catch-all.php # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule (.*) /addons/redirect/catch-all.php [L] Also, do I need [L] or is it useless for internal redirects? Then, what php code would I use to grab the POST data, use it, and finally PHP redirect the page to the originally requested page Would it be done just as normal by using $_POST['variable_name']; or something different? Then, how would I go about calling the originally requested page, so I can tell PHP to header location direct them to that page? Thanks! UPDATE: Ha sick, nevermind. The condition DOES work. Here's my code: # Internally redirect all pages to "Catch" page Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/robots.txt$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !\.(gif¦jpe?g¦png¦css¦js¦pdf¦doc¦xml)$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/addons/redirect/catch-all\.php$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /addons/redirect/catch-all.php?q=$1 [L] Thanks guys for the inspiration! Now time to get that PHP to work...

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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • Write binary data as a response in an ASP.NET MVC web control

    - by Lou Franco
    I am trying to get a control that I wrote for ASP.NET to work in an ASP.NET MVC environment. Normally, the control does the normal thing, and that works fine Sometimes it needs to respond by clearing the response, writing an image to the response stream and changing the content type. When you do this, you get an exception "OutputStream is not available when a custom TextWriter is used". If I were a page or controller, I see how I can create custom responses with binary data, but I can't see how to do this from inside a control's render functions. To simplify it -- imagine I want to make a web control that renders to: <img src="pageThatControlIsOn?controlImage"> And I know how to look at incoming requests and recognize query strings that should be routed to the control. Now the control is supposed to respond with a generated image (content-type: image/png -- and the encoded image). In ASP.NET, we: Response.Clear(); Response.OutputStream.Write(thePngData); // this throws in MVC // set the content type, etc Response.End(); How am I supposed to do that in an ASP.NET MVC control?

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • Problem with libcurl cookie engine

    - by Seb Rose
    [Cross-posted from lib-curl mailing list] I have a single threaded app (MSVC C++ 2005) build against a static LIBCURL 7.19.4 A test application connects to an in house server & performs a bespoke authentication process that includes posting a couple of forms, and when this succeeds creates a new resource (POST) and then updates the resource (PUT) using If-Match. I only use a single connection to libcurl (i.e. only one CURL*) The cookie engine is enabled from the start using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "") The cookie cache is cleared at the end of the authentication process using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIELIST, "SESS"). This is required by the authentication process. The next call, which completes a successful authentication, results in a couple of security cookies being returned from the server - they have no expiry date set. The server (and I) expect the security cookies to then be sent with all subsequent requests to the server. The problem is that sometimes they are sent and sometimes they aren't. I'm not a CURL expert, so I'm probably doing something wrong, but I can't figure out what. Running the test app in a loop results shows a random distribution of correct cookie handling. As a workaround I've disabled the cookie engine and am doing basic manual cookie handling. Like this it works as expected, but I'd prefer to use the library if possible. Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks Seb

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  • Socket errors of 10048 on the client? Possible causes?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, I'm writing a custom TCP server and client and on doing a ton of requests (60,000 to be exact) I begin to get this socket error of 10048, which should mean "the address is already in use." The error keeps happening unless I pause the process for like 2 or 3 minutes and then begin it again, and then it begins to bring up the same error a short while after restarting it. If I pause the client process and restart the server process, I still get the same error on the client. So it is a complete client side problem. This does not make sense though, this error only usually occurs when binding and this error happens on the client and not the server. What could be the possible reasons for it? A small excerpt of my initialization: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(); client.Connect("XXXXX -- some ip", 25000); client.NoDelay = true; NetworkStream clientStream = client.GetStream(); Also, everything else seems to be working fine(including the amount of time it takes to send back and forth) and this works perfectly when using 127.0.0.1 but when putting it on another LAN computer I begin to get the 10048 error. Is there something wrong with how I initialize it? What else could cause this error on the client side?

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  • reactor not working when reactor.run is not called in the main thread and installSignalHandlers=Fals

    - by Kalmi
    I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

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  • Spring - SessionAttribute problem

    - by Max
    Hello, I want to implement something like this: @Controller @SessionAttributes("promotion") class PromotionController { @RequestMapping("showPromo") void showPromotionInfo( @RequestParam("promId") String promotionId, @ModelAttribute Promotion promotion, Errors errors ) { promotion = Promotions.get(promotionId); if (promotion == null || promotion.validates() == false) { errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); } return "prom"; } } The code is invalid, wont work and has some bad errors, but I don't know how to write it better. When user comes to an URL "showPromo?promId=15", controller should validate if the promotion is valid (outdated/non-existent/etc.). If it is valid - it should show it's information and save the promotion to model and session. If it's not - it should show some error about promotion being invalid. Problem is, I need to save the promotion in the session (for several requests) and don't want to use direct session management. Is it currently possible with Spring? Or am I doing something wrong? Could you please provide the optimal solution to my problem using Spring 3? Thanks in advance.

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  • WCF events in server-side

    - by Eisenrich
    Hi all, I'm working on an application in WCF and want to receive events in the server side. I have a web that upon request needs to register a fingerprint. The web page request the connection of the device and then every second for 15 seconds requests the answer. The server-side code is apparently "simple" but doesn't work. Here is it: [ServiceContract] interface IEEtest { [OperationContract] void EEDirectConnect(); } class EETest : IEEtest { public void EEDirectConnect() { CZ ee = new CZ(); // initiates the device dll ee.Connect_Net("192.168.1.200", 4011); ee.OnFinger += new _IEEEvents_OnFingerEventHandler(ee_OnFinger); } public void ee_OnFinger() { //here i have a breakpoint; } } every time I put my finger, it should fire the event. in fact if I static void Main() { EETest pp = new EETest(); pp.EEDirectConnect(); } It works fine. but from my proxy it doesn't fire the event. do you have any tips, recommendations, or can you see the error? Thanks everyone.

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  • QueryString malformed after URLDecode

    - by pdavis
    I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

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  • What is the right way to make a new XMLHttpRequest from an RJS response in Ruby on Rails?

    - by Yuri Baranov
    I'm trying to come closer to a solution for the problem of my previous question. The scheme I would like to try is following: User requests an action from RoR controller. Action makes some database queries, makes some calculations, sets some session variable(s) and returns some RJS code as the response. This code could either update a progress bar and make another ajax request. display the final result (e.g. a chart grahic) if all the processing is finished The browser evaluates the javascript representation of the RJS. It may make another (recursive? Is recursion allowed at all?) request, or just display the result for the user. So, my question this time is: how can I embed a XMLHttpRequest call into rjs code properly? Some things I'd like to know are: Should I create a new thread to avoid stack overflow. What rails helpers (if any) should I use? Have anybody ever done something similar before on Rails or with other frameworks? Is my idea sane?

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  • Problem with authentication from different domains using Django sessions.

    - by Greg
    Hi all, I am developing a bookmarklet which essentially adds a toolbar to a web page user is currently looking at. To use it, user needs to be logged in. To login user clicks on 'Singin' which displays a standard form containing Username, Password etc fields. When user successfully logs in they may chose to navigate to a different web-site. When on another page, they (a) re-load the bookmarklet (b) their session is retrieved from the server (c) user doesn't need to login again. Pretty standard I've would have thought. Using Django sessions and JQuery. I'm having troubles implementing the above usecase. Here are some problems I've encountered: Cross domain POST AJAX requests are disallowed. That was solved with JSONp. I doubt it is a very secure approach but for now it works. My server returns the session id in a cookie, however when the user navigates to a different page I don't really know how to retrieve that session id to send back to my server. Can I even read third party cookies from my JavaScript? I'm looking for some guidelines on implementing the above usecase. Ideally I don't want to redirect user to another page for them to sign in. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Mixed Mode C++ DLL function call failure when app launched from network share. Called from unmanage

    - by Steve
    Mixed-mode DLL called from native C application fails to load: An unhandled exception of type 'System.IO.FileLoadException' occurred in Unknown Module. Additional information: Could not load file or assembly 'XXSharePoint, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e0fbc95fd73fff47' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant minimum permission requests. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131417) My environment is: Native C application calling a mixed mode C++ DLL, which then loads a C# DLL.. This works correctly when loaded from a local drive, but when launched from a network drive, it fails with the above messages. The call to LoadLibrary succeeds, as does the GetProcAddress. The load error happens when I call the function. I have digitally signed the C application, and I've performed "strong name" signing on the 2 DLLs. The PublickKeyToken in the message above does match the named DLL. I have also issued the CASPOLcommands on my client to grant FullTrust to that strong name keytoken. When that failed to work, I tried the CASPOL command to grant FullTrust to the URL of the network drive (including path to my application's directory); no change in results. I tried removing all dependencies, so that there was just the initial mixed-mode DLL... I replaced the bodies of all the functions with just a return of a "success" integer value. Results unchanged. Only when I changed it from Mixed Mode to Win32, and changed the Configuration Properties General Common Language Runtime Support from "Common Language Runtime Support" to "No Common Language Runtime Support" did calling the DLL produce the expected result (just returned the "success" integer return value).

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