Search Results

Search found 13788 results on 552 pages for 'instance caging'.

Page 456/552 | < Previous Page | 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463  | Next Page >

• How do I create a class repository in Java and do I really need it?

  - by Roman

  I have a large number of objects which are identified by names (strings). So, I would like to have a kind of mapping from object name to the class instances. I was told that in this situation I can use a "repository" class which works like that: Server myServer = ServerRepository.getServer("NameOfServer"); So, if there is already an object (sever) with the "NameOfServer" it will be returned by the "getServer". If such an object does not exist yet, it will be created and returned by the "getServer". So, my question is how to program such a "repository" class? In this class I have to be able to check if there is an instance of a given class such that it has a given value of a given field. How can I do it? I need to have a kind of loop over all existing object of a given class? Another part of my question is why I cannot use associative arrays (associative container, map, mapping, dictionary, finite map)? (I am not sure how do you call it in Java) In more details, I have an "array" which maps names of objects to objects. So, whenever I create a new object, I add a new element to the array: myArray["NameOfServer"] = new Server("NameOfServer").

  Read the article

• Need some help understanding this problem

  - by Legend

  I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

  Read the article

• How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

  - by Slauma

  I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Python re module becomes 20 times slower when called on greater than 101 different regex

  - by Wiil

  My problem is about parsing log files and removing variable parts on each lines to be able to group them. For instance: s = re.sub(r'(?i)User [_0-9A-z]+ is ', r"User .. is ", s) s = re.sub(r'(?i)Message rejected because : (.*?) \(.+\)', r'Message rejected because : \1 (...)', s) I have about 120+ matching rules like those above. I have found no performances issues while searching successively on 100 different regex. But a huge slow down comes when applying 101 regex. Exact same behavior happens when replacing my rules set by for a in range(100): s = re.sub(r'(?i)caught here'+str(a)+':.+', r'( ... )', s) Got 20 times slower when putting range(101) instead. # range(100) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 2.1 seconds. == # range(101) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 47.6 seconds. == Why such thing is happening ? And is there any known workaround ? (Happens on Python 2.6.6/2.7.2 on Linux/Windows.)

  Read the article

• Gem Load Error about whois command and removed cache

  - by Puru puru rin..

  Hello, I have an awesome trouble with Gem. After executing this command: rm -f /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/cache/* I can not do any thing. If I try for instance: gem cleanup I get this kind of answer: /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `require': no such file to load -- rubygems/commands/whois (LoadError) from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `load' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `block in <top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `each' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `<top (required)>' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `require' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `load_full_rubygems_library' from <internal:gem_prelude>:334:in `const_missing' from /usr/local/bin/gem:12:in `<main>' It's the same for gem -v, of just gem command... I'm working of Snow Leopard. What should the best solution about you? Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• SQL Server CE rollback does not undo delete.

  - by INTPnerd

  I am using SQL Server CE 3.5 and C# with the .NET Compact Framework 3.5. In my code I am inserting a row, then starting a transaction, then deleting that row from a table, and then doing a rollback on that transaction. But this does not undo the deletion. Why not? Here is my code: SqlCeConnection conn = ConnectionSingleton.Instance; conn.Open(); UsersTable table = new UsersTable(); table.DeleteAll(); MessageBox.Show("user count in beginning after delete: " + table.CountAll()); table.Insert( new User(){Id = 0, IsManager = true, Pwd = "1234", Username = "Me"}); MessageBox.Show("user count after insert: " + table.CountAll()); SqlCeTransaction transaction = conn.BeginTransaction(); table.DeleteAll(); transaction.Rollback(); transaction.Dispose(); MessageBox.Show("user count after rollback delete all: " + table.CountAll()); The messages indicate that everything works as expected until the very end where the table has a count of 0 indicating the rollback did not undo the deletion.

  Read the article

• c# multi inheritance

  - by user326839

  So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

  Read the article

• MySQL - Structure for Permissions to Objects

  - by Kerry

  What would be an ideal structure for users permissions of objects. I've seen many related posts for general permissions, or what sections a user can access, which consists of a users, userGroups and userGroupRelations or something of that nature. In my system there are many different objects that can get created, and each one has to be able to be turned on or off. For instance, take a password manager that has groups and sub groups. Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 Group 4 Group 5 Group 6 Group 7 Group 8 Group 9 Group 10 Each group can contain a set of passwords. A user can be given read, write, edit and delete permissions to any group. More groups can get created at any point in time. If someone has permission to a group, I should be able to make him have permissions to all sub groups OR restrict it to just that group. My current thought is to have a users table, and then a permissions table with columns like: permission_id (int) PRIMARY_KEY user_id (int) INDEX object_id (int) INDEX type (varchar) INDEX read (bool) write (bool) edit (bool) delete (bool) This has worked in the past, but the new system I'm building needs to be able to scale rapidly, and I am unsure if this is the best structure. It also makes the idea of having someone with all subgroup permissions of a group more difficult. So, as a question, should I use the above structure? Or can someone point me in the direction of a better one?

  Read the article

• routing mvc on the web

  - by generic_noob

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

  Read the article

• Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

  - by bguiz

  This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

  Read the article

• Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

  - by Peter

  I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

  Read the article

• problem adding object to hashtable

  - by daemonkid

  I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

  Read the article

• Unable to get data from a WCF client

  - by Scott

  I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

  Read the article

• How do I make JPA POJO classes + Netbeans forms play well together?

  - by Zak

  I started using netbeans to design forms to edit the instances of various classes I have made in a small app I am writing. Basically, the app starts, an initial set of objects is selected from the DB and presented in a list, then an item in the list can be selected for editing. When the editor comes up it has form fields for many of the data fields in the class. The problem I run into is that I have to create a controller that maps each of the data elements to the correct form element, and create an inordinate number of small conversion mapping lines of code to convert numbers into strings and set the correct element in a dropdown, then another inordinate amount of code to go back and update the underlying object with all the values from the form when the save button is clicked. My question is; is there a more directly way to make the editing of the form directly modify the contents of my class instance? I would like to be able to have a default mapping "controller" that I can configure, then override the getter/setter for a particular field if needed. Ideally, there would be standard field validation for things like phone numbers, integers, floats, zip codes, etc... I'm not averse to writing this myself, I would just like to see if it is already out there and use the right tool for the right job.

  Read the article

• setting the openCV configuration in an openGL project produce several errors

  - by GolSa

  I have a win32 solution which is set for openGL; it works well; but I want to write a function which use functions of openCV; I set the configuration for openCV for both X86 and X64;;I commented the openCV function and just to test the correctness of configuration, I run it; but when I want to run it on X64 I faced with the error below: Error 1 error C2065: 'GWL_HINSTANCE' : undeclared identifier D:\matrix\matrixProjection\src\ControllerMain.cpp 35 1 matrixProjection Error 2 error C2664: 'CreateDialogParamW' : cannot convert parameter 4 from 'BOOL (__cdecl *)(HWND,UINT,WPARAM,LPARAM)' to 'DLGPROC' D:\matrix\matrixProjection\src\DialogWindow.cpp 47 1 matrixProjection Error 2 points to this line of code: HWND DialogWindow::create() { /*-->this line*/ handle = ::CreateDialogParam(instance, MAKEINTRESOURCE(id), parentHandle, Win::dialogProcedure, (LPARAM)controller); return handle; } but on Debug Win32 configure, it runs; I used openGL32 in my project; is there any probability to be the cause? is there any X64 version for openGL? I know that there is something needed in X64 mode which my solution can not handle it; I googled a lot about it but I did not find any solution; How can I solve that?

  Read the article

• How can I get the type I want?

  - by Danny Chen

  There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

  Read the article

• How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

  - by quakkels

  Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

  Read the article

• Make Trac use a Drupal user database for authentication

  - by denisw

  I am trying to set up a Trac instance as a complement to a Drupal site and would like to give users the possibility to use their Drupal account in Trac, too, ideally in a single sign-on fashion (if the user is already logged into Drupal, he is automatically logged into Trac). The question now is how to accomplish this. I have found a plugin named DrupalIntegration which seems to implement that functionality; however, it is poorly documented - in fact, not documented at all. I managed to install it, but don't know how to configure it. Here is what I came up with from looking at the source code and the documentation of the AccountManager plugin (on which DrupalIntegration depends): [components] trac.web.auth.loginmodule = disabled acct_mgr.api = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.LoginModule = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.RegistrationModule = disabled TracDrupalIntegration.DrupalIntegration = enabled [account-manager] drupal_database = mysql://<usernam>:<password>@localhost/<db> password_store = DrupalIntegration (<username>, <password> and <db> are naturally substituted with the correct data). While the Trac log says: 2010-12-18 10:54:09,570 Trac[loader] DEBUG: Loading TracDrupalIntegration from /usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/TracDrupalIntegration-0.1-py2.5.egg this doesn't seem to work: trying to log in with a Drupal username / password results in an "Invalid username or password" error. Has someone used the DrupalIntegration and can point out to me what I did wrong? Or is there any other approach you know (or even have used in the past) to integrate Drupal and Trac that way?

  Read the article

• SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

  - by illdev

  I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

  Read the article

• Ad distribution problem: an optimal solution?

  - by Mokuchan

  I'm asked to find a 2 approximate solution to this problem: You’re consulting for an e-commerce site that receives a large number of visitors each day. For each visitor i, where i € {1, 2 ..... n}, the site has assigned a value v[i], representing the expected revenue that can be obtained from this customer. Each visitor i is shown one of m possible ads A1, A2 ..... An as they enter the site. The site wants a selection of one ad for each customer so that each ad is seen, overall, by a set of customers of reasonably large total weight. Thus, given a selection of one ad for each customer, we will define the spread of this selection to be the minimum, over j = 1, 2 ..... m, of the total weight of all customers who were shown ad Aj. Example Suppose there are six customers with values 3, 4, 12, 2, 4, 6, and there are m = 3 ads. Then, in this instance, one could achieve a spread of 9 by showing ad A1 to customers 1, 2, 4, ad A2 to customer 3, and ad A3 to customers 5 and 6. The ultimate goal is to find a selection of an ad for each customer that maximizes the spread. Unfortunately, this optimization problem is NP-hard (you don’t have to prove this). So instead give a polynomial-time algorithm that approximates the maximum spread within a factor of 2. The solution I found is the following: Order visitors values in descending order Add the next visitor value (i.e. assign the visitor) to the Ad with the current lowest total value Repeat This solution actually seems to always find the optimal solution, or I simply can't find a counterexample. Can you find it? Is this a non-polinomial solution and I just can't see it?

  Read the article

• How to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field?

  - by amann

  I am trying to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field. The m2m-field is located betweeen the models "Group" and "Lection" and is declared in the group-model as following: lections = models.ManyToManyField(Lection, blank=True) The field looks like this: <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyField object at 0x012AD690> The print of field.__dict__ is: {'_choices': [], '_m2m_column_cache': 'group_id', '_m2m_name_cache': 'group', '_m2m_reverse_column_cache': 'lection_id', '_m2m_reverse_name_cache': 'lection', '_unique': False, 'attname': 'lections', 'auto_created': False, 'blank': True, 'column': 'lections', 'creation_counter': 71, 'db_column': None, 'db_index': False, 'db_table': None, 'db_tablespace': '', 'default': <class django.db.models.fields.NOT_PROVIDED at 0x00FC8780>, 'editable': True, 'error_messages': {'blank': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC 7B50>, 'invalid_choice': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7A50>, 'null': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7 A70>}, 'help_text': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x012AD6F0>, 'm2m_column_name': <function _curried at 0x012A88F0>, 'm2m_db_table': <function _curried at 0x012A8AF0>, 'm2m_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8970>, 'm2m_reverse_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A89B0>, 'm2m_reverse_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8930>, 'max_length': None, 'name': 'lections', 'null': False, 'primary_key': False, 'rel': <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyRel object at 0x012AD6B0>, 'related': <RelatedObject: mymodel:group related to lections>, 'related_query_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8670>, 'serialize': True, 'unique_for_date': None, 'unique_for_month': None, 'unique_for_year': None, 'validators': [], 'verbose_name': 'lections'} Now the field should be accessed via a lection-instance. So this is done by lection.group_set But i need to access it dynamically, so there is the need to get the related_name attribute from somewhere. Here in the documentation, there is a note that it is possible to access ManyToManyField.related_name, but this doesn't work for my somehow.. Help would be a lot appreciated. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

  - by David

  I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

  Read the article

• Nullability (Regular Expressions)

  - by danportin

  In Brzozowski's "Derivatives of Regular Expressions" and elsewhere, the function d(R) returning ? if a R is nullable, and Ø otherwise, includes clauses such as the following: d(R1 + R2) = d(R1) + d(R2) d(R1 · R2) = d(R1) ? d(R2) Clearly, if both R1 and R2 are nullable then (R1 · R2) is nullable, and if either R1 or R2 is nullable then (R1 + R2) is nullable. It is unclear to me what the above clauses are supposed to mean, however. My first thought, mapping (+), (·), or the Boolean operations to regular sets is nonsensical, since in the base case, d(a) = Ø (for all a ? S) d(?) = ? d(Ø) = Ø and ? is not a set (nor is the return type of d, which is a regular expression). Furthermore, this mapping isn't indicated, and there is a separate notation for it. I understand nullability, but I'm lost on the definition of the sum, product, and Boolean operations in the definition of d: how are ? or Ø returned from d(R1) ? d(R2), for instance, in the definition off d(R1 · R2)?

  Read the article

• How are declared private ivars different from synthesized ivars?

  - by lemnar

  I know that the modern Objective-C runtime can synthesize ivars. I thought that synthesized ivars behaved exactly like declared ivars that are marked @private, but they don't. As a result, come code compiles only under the modern runtime that I expected would work on either. For example, a superclass: @interface A : NSObject { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *d; @end @implementation A @synthesize d=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and a subclass: @interface B : A { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *e; @end @implementation B @synthesize e=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end A subclass can't have a declared ivar with the same name as one of its superclass's declared ivars, even if the superclass's ivar is private. This seems to me like a violation of the meaning of @private, since the subclass is affected by the superclass's choice of something private. What I'm more concerned about, however, is how should I think about synthesized ivars. I thought they acted like declared private ivars, but without the fragile base class problem. Maybe that's right, and I just don't understand the fragile base class problem. Why does the above code compile only in the modern runtime? Does the fragile base class problem exist when all superclass instance variables are private?

  Read the article

• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463  | Next Page >