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• How to determine if a target will be executed?

  - by Scott Langham

  Hi, I'm writing an msbuild file and have something like this: <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateA</ValidateDependsOn> <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn> <Target Name="BuildA"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="BuildB"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateA"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildA --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateB"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildB --> </Target> Builds can take a while. Originally we had the Build steps depending on the Validate steps, but sometimes a validate step wouldn't run until the middle of the build and you would have wasted time getting there. So, we moved the validate steps to the start by using the ValidateDependsOn pattern to insert the targets to run up front. The problem now though is that sometimes during a build BuildB may not actually run, and this means I don't need and in fact, don't want ValidateB to run. Is there any way I can selectively update ValidateDependsOn by conditionally knowing which targets will actually be run? I'm looking for something equivalent to: <ValidateDependsOn Condition="TargetWillRun(BuildB)">$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn>

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• Please suggest other ways of communicating between server & client.

  - by Geo

  I'm writing a TCP chat server ( programming language does not mather ). It's a school project for my nephew, so it won't be released, and all questions I'm asking are just for my knowledge :). . Some of the things it will support: chatting between users ( doh ), it will be multithreaded sending each other files I know I could easily get away with all the stuff above if I go with serialization, and just send objects from client to server and back. But, if I do that, it will be limited to a specific programming language ( meaning clients written in other programming languages may not be able to deserialize the objects ). What would be the way to go so that other clients written in other languages could be supported? One way to go, off the top of my head, would be to go in this direction: the server & the client communicate by sending messages & chunks ( in lieu of other names ). Here's what I mean by this: every time the client/server wants to send something ( text message or file ) it will first send a simple text message ( newline terminated ) with the number of the chunks it will send. Example: command 4,20,30,40,50 Where command would be something like instant-message or file,4 would be the number of chunks to be sent, 20 would be the size in bytes of the first chunk, 30 of the 2nd, and so forth. after the message was sent, the client/server will start sending chunks ( of sizes mentioned in the sent message ). What do you think about implementing the client/server communication this way? What better options are there?

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• Rails 3 MySQL 2 reports an error in what looks to be valid SQL syntax

  - by John Judd

  I am trying to use the following bit of code to help in seeding my database. I need to add data continually over development and do not want to have to completely reseed data every time I add something new to the seeds.rb file. So I added the following function to insert the data if it doesn't already exist. def AddSetting(group, name, value, desc) Admin::Setting.create({group: group, name: name, value: value, description: desc}) unless Admin::Setting.find_by_sql("SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = '#{group}' AND name = '#{name}';").exists? end AddSetting('google', 'analytics_id', '', 'The ID of your Google Analytics account.') AddSetting('general', 'page_title', '', '') AddSetting('general', 'tag_line', '', '') This function is included in the db/seeds.rb file. Is this the right way to do this? However I am getting the following error when I try to run it through rake. rake aborted! Mysql2::Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'' at line 1: SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; Tasks: TOP => db:seed (See full trace by running task with --trace) Process finished with exit code 1 What is confusing me is that I am generating correct SQL as far as I can tell. In fact my code generates the SQL and I pass that to the find_by_sql function for the model, Rails itself can't be changing the SQL, or is it? SELECT * FROM admin_settings WHERE group = 'google' AND name = 'analytics_id'; I've written a lot of SQL over the years and I've looked through similar questions here. Maybe I've missed something, but I cannot see it.

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• Is it possible to modify the value of a record's primary key in Oracle when child records exist?

  - by Chris Farmer

  I have some Oracle tables that represent a parent-child relationship. They look something like this: create table Parent ( parent_id varchar2(20) not null primary key ); create table Child ( child_id number not null primary key, parent_id varchar2(20) not null, constraint fk_parent_id foreign key (parent_id) references Parent (parent_id) ); This is a live database and its schema was designed long ago under the assumption that the parent_id field would be static and unchanging for a given record. Now the rules have changed and we really would like to change the value of parent_id for some records. For example, I have these records: Parent: parent_id --------- ABC123 Child: child_id parent_id -------- --------- 1 ABC123 2 ABC123 And I want to modify ABC123 in these records in both tables to something else. It's my understanding that one cannot write an Oracle update statement that will update both parent and child tables simultaneously, and given the FK constraint, I'm not sure how best to update my database. I am currently disabling the fk_parent_id constraint, updating each table independently, and then enabling the constraint. Is there a better, single-step way to update this content?

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• fgets throwing unhandled exception while parsing stl

  - by user3478400

  I am new to c++, I am trying to parse a stl file which is of about 64MB and has about ~18K lines in it. The code works fine for first few 100 lines but then fgets throws following exception: "Unhandled exception at 0x77B0BAC5 (ntdll.dll) in STLparser.exe: 0xC0000024: There is a mismatch between the type of object required by the requested operation and the type of object that is specified in the request." I have checked manually the line for which fgets throws exception, there is nothing out of ordinary there. I am out of options for now. Any help to fix this issue will be greatly appreciated. ================CODE========================== #include<fstream> #include<iostream> #include"ParseString.h" #include"Vectors.h" using namespace std; int main(void) { //Define variables FILE *file; char *line = new char; parsestring oneline; int n_Vols = 0, n_Elms = 0, n_nods = -1, E = 0; Nod *nodes = new Nod(); Nod dummy; Elm *elements = new Elm(); int mycounter = 0; //Open file fopen_s(&file, "sample.stl", "r"); while (fgets(line, 1024, file) != NULL) //**********Getting Error Here************* { // populate required data } fclose(file); printf("%d,%d,%d", n_Vols, n_Elms, n_nods); getchar(); return 0; } ===================When broken, execution resumes at this function (not my function, something internal) void __cdecl _unlock ( int locknum ) { /* * leave the critical section. */ LeaveCriticalSection( _locktable[locknum].lock ); }

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• Is there a jQuery Equivalent of YUI 2 Custom Event Publish/Subscribe Event Model?

  - by Abe

  Hello! I learned how to develop in Javascript using the YUI 2 library and was wondering if there is a jQuery equivalent of Custom Events (http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/event/#customevent) Specifically, I want to be able to define custom events without having to attach the listeners initially. In YUI, I would create a page class and declare different custom events that can be subscribed to. Below is some example code to demonstrate what I want to do, but with jQuery function ListPage() { var me = this; this.initEvent = new YAHOO.util.CustomEvent("initEvent"); this.init = function() { // initialize events, DOM, etc this.initEvent.fire(me); } } In application Javascript, I would then like to subscribe to the initEvent. var page = new ListPage(); page.initEvent.subscribe( function (type, args) { // do stuff here } ); page.init(); Are there any tutorials/examples of something this in jQuery? I understand I can do something similar using bind() and trigger(), but the impression I get is I have to pass in the event handler when I call bind(). Is it possible in jQuery to create the custom event, but pass in the event handler later? I hope my question makes sense. thanks!

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• Problem in homemade function to merge objects

  - by Eric

  I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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• How to get a category listing from Magento?

  - by alex

  I want to create a page in Magento that shows a visual representation of the categories.. example CATEGORY product 1 product 2 ANOTHER CATEGORY product 3 My problem is, their database is organised very differently to what I've seen in the past. They have tables dedicated to data types like varchar, int, etc. I assume this is for performance or similiar. I haven't found a way to use MySQL to query the database and get a list of categories. I'd then like to match these categories to products, to get a listing of products for each category. Unfortunately Magento seems to make this very difficult. Also I have not found a method that will work from within a page block.. I have created showcase.phtml and put it in the XML layout and it displays and runs it's PHP code. I was hoping for something easy like looping through $this-getAllCategories(); and then a nested loop inside with something like $category-getChildProducts(); Can anyone help me? Thank you!

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• jQuery - Moving background arrow in menu

  - by B M

  I would expect something like this to be pretty popular in demand but I had much trouble finding a suiting script. I've got a basic menu build like this: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn1.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn2.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn3.png"></a></li> </ul> </div> The div #menu has a background image of a small arrow. I want the arrow to move vertically in front of the corresponding menu image when you mouseover/mousemove the whole #menu div. Also when one of the menu images has been clicked the arrow should stay in it's position in front of the corresponding menu image. I started something but I notice it's going downwards, since it's only working when you're at the top of the page. What I have is this: $('#menu').css({backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}); //Starting position $('#menu').mousemove(function(e){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px ' + (e.pageY-60) + ' px'}, {duration:100} ) }).mouseout(function(){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}, {duration:100} ) }); Please help! ps. I'm using this plugin to move background images smoothly.

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• MS 70-536 .NET Framework Foundation - info on Exam? Especially regex?

  - by Sebastian P.R. Gingter

  Hi, I know there are already some questions about this, but not that specific. I have the self-paced training kit and worked through the test exam tool that is on the CD coming with the book. I constantly fail on the test tool, mostly on the regex questions. I'm not a regex guru. In fact my regex-fu is more than weak. I know what regex'es are, how I can use them and where my 'Regular expressions - kurz und gut' book is in my drawer in case I really need them. And to be honest I feel like learning regex is a total waste of time, because if I need them I have either a colleague that is fit and can do them in just a few seconds or I need my book and get them right in a still fair amount of time. And from my experience I can tell that I need regex like once in two or three years. So just putting in a lot of time into learning just the expressions to pass the exam is.. something I like not to have to do. Can you tell me something about the real exam vs. the test exam tool on the book and about the need to know regex for passing it? Thank you for your time. Marked as Community Wiki. Hope that fits?

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• How to be a better software designer

  - by Bmw

  I feel as if I am a hack programmer. I do things over and over again until they finally work. I copy/paste code. I don't think about why something makes sense, if it works I go with it. I have my undergraduate in computer science, and I've done this the entire time. Somehow I made it through the degree by doing this and now I'm in my second year of programming professionally and I am still able to do this and get away with it. Here's the thing, I don't want to be this way anymore. I am not proud of the work I do, I feel like I'm just a copy/paste programmer. How do I become better? I want to be able to design something on my own without copying code. Have you ever been in this situation, if so how did you move beyond it to become a better programmer? To add some background about myself, I started as an asp.net c# programmer, now I'm doing vbscript (which actually makes my tendency to copy/paste/hack a lot worse I must say!) with classic asp…

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• TDD approach for complex function

  - by jamie

  I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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• Div's are not filtered as :hidden when display:none; is appended as style

  - by CodeMonkey

  Hey folks I have some simple HTML: <div id="selectorContainer"> <div id="chainedSelector" style="display: none;"><% Html.RenderPartial("ProjectSuggest/ChainedProjectSelector"); %></div> <div id="suggestSelector"><% Html.RenderPartial("ProjectSuggest/SuggestControl", new SuggestModeDTO{RegistrationMode = Model.RegistrationMode}); %></div> </div> which is two containers for controls. I have jQuery code to toggle between displaying these, but I need to store as a cookie which one was used last time the user was logged in (i.e. which one was visible). The storing of the cookie is not the problem. The problem is that I for some reason am not able to detect which one is the hidden one, using .is(":hidden"), and not able to detect which one is visible using .is(":visible") When I use those two selectors, I always get both. "true" and "true" for both, eventhough one has display: none; and the other doesn't. Please note that they are NOT placed inside a hidden container which otherwise would hide both, so there are not any hidden ancestor containers. Can anyone maybe explain why this could happen? jQuery code containing source for getting the Id's and for getting the selected one (which currently is broken): getChainedSelectorId: function() { return "#chainedSelector"; }, getSuggestSelectorId: function() { return "#suggestSelector"; }, getSelectedSelector: function() { alert($(this.getChainedSelectorId()).is(":hidden")); alert($(this.getSuggestSelectorId()).is(":hidden")); var selected = ($(this.getChainedSelectorId()).is(":visible") ? this.getChainedSelectorId() : this.getSuggestSelectorId()); alert(selected); return selected; }, Thanks in advance.

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• Entities used to serialize data have changed. How can the serialized data be upgraded for the new entities?

  - by i8abug

  Hi, I have a bunch of simple entity instances that I have serialized to a file. In the future, I know that the structure of these entities (ie, maybe I will rename Name to Header or something). The thing is, I don't want to lose the data that I have saved in all these old files. What is the proper way to either load the data from the old entities into new entities upgrade the old files so that they can be used with new entities Note: I think I am stuck with binary serialization, not xml serialization. Thanks in advance! Edit: So I have an answer for the case I have described. I can use a dataContractSerializer and do something like [DataMember("bar")] private string foo; and change the name in the code and keep the same name that was used for serialization. But what about the following additional cases: The original entity has new members which can be serialized Some serialized members that were in the original entity are removed Some members have actually changed in function (suppose that the original class had a FirstName and LastName member and it has been refactored to have only a FullName member which combines the two) To handle these, I need some sort of interpreter/translator deserialization class but I have no idea what I should use

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• How do I do a table join on two fields in my second table?

  - by Cannonade

  I have two tables: Messages - Amongst other things, has a to_id and a from_id field. People - Has a corresponding person_id I am trying to figure out how to do the following in a single linq query: Give me all messages that have been sent to and from person x (idself). I had a couple of cracks at this. Not quite right MsgPeople = (from p in db.people join m in db.messages on p.person_id equals m.from_id where (m.from_id == idself || m.to_id == idself) orderby p.name descending select p).Distinct(); This almost works, except I think it misses one case: "people who have never received a message, just sent one to me" How this works in my head So what I really need is something like: join m in db.messages on (p.people_id equals m.from_id or p.people_id equals m.to_id) Gets me a subset of the people I am after It seems you can't do that. I have tried a few other options, like doing two joins: MsgPeople = (from p in db.people join m in AllMessages on p.person_id equals m.from_id join m2 in AllMessages on p.person_id equals m2.to_id where (m2.from_id == idself || m.to_id == idself) orderby p.name descending select p).Distinct(); but this gives me a subset of the results I need, I guess something to do with the order the joins are resolved. My understanding of LINQ (and perhaps even database theory) is embarrassingly superficial and I look forward to having some light shed on my problem.

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• jsf custom control strange behaviour

  - by Cristian Boariu

  hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link> &#160; <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

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• Rails - Dynamic name routes namespace

  - by Kuro

  Hi, Using Rails 2.3, I'm trying to configure my routes but I uncounter some difficulties. I would like to have something like : http:// mydomain.com/mycontroller/myaction/myid That should respond with controllers in :front namespace http:// mydomain.com/aname/mycontroller/myaction/mydi That should respond with controllers in :custom namespace I try something like this, but I'm totaly wrong : map.namespace :front, :path_prefix => "" do |f| f.root :controller => :home, :action => :index f.resources :home ... end map.namespace :custom, :path_prefix => "" do |m| m.root :controller => :home, :action => :index m.resources :home ... m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action/:id' m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action/:id' m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action/:id.:format' m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action.:format' end I put matching instruction in custom namespace but I'm not sure it's the right place for it. I think I really don't get the way to customize fields in url matching and I don't know how to find documentation about Rails 2.3, most of my research drove me to Rails 3 doc about the topic... Somebody to help me ?

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• Is it possible to send back a json array along with seperate variables

  - by Scarface

  Hey guys I have an ajax jquery function that receives data from a php script. I want to return an array with all the online users which is retrieved from a mysql statement, and I want to send other separate variables I need for other purposes along with it. If anyone has any ideas, I would greatly appreciate it. NOTE: the example below is to illustrate what I want to do, I understand that json-encoding the array with other variables is dysfunctional. JQUERY $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "parameters", url: "retrieval.php", dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('#div1').html(json.array); $('#div2').html(json.variable1); $('#div3').html(json.variable2); } }) PHP $qryuserscount1="SELECT * FROM active_users"; $userscount1=mysql_query($qryuserscount1); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($userscount1)) { $onlineuser= $row['username']; $id=$row['id']; $data[]=$onlineuser.$id; //for example there are 3 users, should send 3 entries back } $data['variable1']='something'; $data['variable2']='something else'; $out = json_encode($data); print $out;

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• Random Alpha numeric generator

  - by AAA

  Hi, I want to give our users in the database a unique alpha-numeric id. I am using the code below, will this always generate a unique id? Below is the old and updated version of the code: New php: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Old PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Will this first code guarantee uniqueness?

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• Python - Access a class from a list using a key

  - by Fake Name

  Is there any way to make a list of classes behave like a set in python? Basically, I'm working on a piece of software that does some involved string comparison, and I have a custom class for handling the strings. Therefore, there is an instance of the class for each string. As a result, I have a large list containing all these classes. I would like to be able to access them like list[key], where in this case, the key is a string the class is based off of. It seems to me that I sould be able to do this somewhat easily, by adding something like __cmp__ to the class, but either I'm being obtuse (likely), or Im missing someting in the docs. Basically, I want to be able to do something like this (Python prompt example): >>class a: ... def __init__(self, x): ... self.var = x ... >>> from test import a >>> cl = set([a("Hello"), a("World"), a("Pie")]) >>> print cl set([<test.a instance at 0x00C866C0>, <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8>, <test.a instance at 0x00C86710>]) >>> cl["World"] <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8> Thanks!

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• Receiving 404 error when trying to get to MVC application in local IIS

  - by Corey Sunwold

  I have an existing web site setup on my local IIS built with web forms setup in this format: -MainSite -Application1 -Application2 -Application3 There are separate applications in each location, so MainSite has an application, and Application1 has another application and so on. This way development on different applications in the same site can be broken out. I want to add a new Application that is MVC instead of web forms. I created a new MVC project which runs in Cassini just fine, but when I create a new IIS application for it and point it to the MVC project I am unable to navigate to it in the browser and get a 404 error. I am expecting to be able to navigate to http://MainSite/NewMVCApplication/. I want the root of NewMVCApplication to point to my Contacts Controller. My global.asax in the new MVC application currently looks like this: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Root", // Route name "", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Contacts", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } }

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• Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

  - by John Sullivan

  Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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• How to add "missing" columns in a column group in reporting services?

  - by Gimly

  Hello, I'm trying to create a report that displays for each months of the year the quantity of goods sold. I have a query that returns the list of goods sold for each month, it looks something like this : SELECT Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month, SUM(SellingHistory.QuantitySold) FROM SellingHistory JOIN Seller on SellingHistory.SellerId = Seller.SellerId WHERE SellingHistory.Year = @Year GOUP BY Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month What I want to do is display a report that has a column for each months + a total column that will display for each Seller the quantity sold in the selected month. Seller Name | Jan | Feb | Mar | Apr | May | Jun | Jul | Aug | Sep | Oct | Nov | Dec | Total What I managed to do is using a matrix and a column group (group on Month) to display the columns for existing data, if I have data from January to March, it will display the 3 first columns and the total. What I would like to do is always display all the columns. I thought about making that by adding the missing months in the SQL request, but I find that a bit weird and I'm sure there must be some "cleanest" solution as this is something that must be quite frequent. Thanks. PS: I'm using SQL Server Express 2008

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• Rails dealing with blank params at controller level

  - by stephenmurdoch

  I have a User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password # validation lets users update accounts without entering password validates :password, presence: { on: :create }, allow_blank: { on: :update } validates :password_confirmation, presence: { if: :password_digest_changed? } end I also have a password_reset_controller: def update # this is emailed to the user by the create action - not shown @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) # user is signed in if password and confirmation pass validations sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Can you see the problem here? A user can submit a blank a password/confirmation and rails will sign them in, because the User model allows blank on update. It's not a security concern, since an attacker would still need access to a user's email account before they could get anywhere near this action, but my problem is that a user submitting 6 blank chars would be signed in, and their password would not be changed for them, which could lead to confusion later on. So, I've come up with the following solution, and I'd like to check if there's a better way of doing it, before I push to production: def update @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) # if user submits blank password, add an error, and render edit action if params[:user][:password].blank? @user.errors.add(:password_digest, "can't be blank.") render :edit elsif @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Should I be checking for nil as well as blank? Are there any rails patterns or idiomatic ruby techniques for solving this? [Fwiw, I've got required: true on the html inputs, but want this handled server side too.]

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• Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

  - by Juan C. Rois

  Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

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