Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 453/2164 | < Previous Page | 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460  | Next Page >

  • Pass List of models to controller ASP.NET MVC 5

    - by user3697231
    I have a view where user can enter some data. But problem is this: Let's say you have 3 text box on view. Every time user can fill multiple times this 3 text boxes. To clarify, let's say user fills this 3 text boxes and press button which adds on form again these 3 text boxes. Now when user clicks submit this form is sent to controller, but how do I sent List of models as parameter. My architecture for this problem is something like this: MyModel public int ID { get;set; } public string Something { get; set; } /*This three textboxes can user set multiple times*/ /*Perhaps i Can create new model with these properties and then /*put List of that model as property here, but how to fill that list inside view ??*/ public string TextBoxOneValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxTwoValue { get; set; } public string TextBoxThreeValue { get; set; } Now, i was thinking that i Create PartialView with this 3 text boxes, and then when user clicks button on view another PartialView is loaded. And now, let's say I have Two partial views loaded, and user clicks submit, how that I pass list with values of these 3 text boxes to controller ??

    Read the article

  • Performance of stored proc when updating columns selectively based on parameters?

    - by kprobst
    I'm trying to figure out if this is relatively well-performing T-SQL (this is SQL Server 2008). I need to create a stored procedure that updates a table. The proc accepts as many parameters as there are columns in the table, and with the exception of the PK column, they all default to NULL. The body of the procedure looks like this: CREATE PROCEDURE proc_repo_update @object_id bigint ,@object_name varchar(50) = NULL ,@object_type char(2) = NULL ,@object_weight int = NULL ,@owner_id int = NULL -- ...etc AS BEGIN update object_repo set object_name = ISNULL(@object_name, object_name) ,object_type = ISNULL(@object_type, object_type) ,object_weight = ISNULL(@object_weight, object_weight) ,owner_id = ISNULL(@owner_id, owner_id) -- ...etc where object_id = @object_id return @@ROWCOUNT END So basically: Update a column only if its corresponding parameter was provided, and leave the rest alone. This works well enough, but as the ISNULL call will return the value of the column if the received parameter was null, will SQL Server optimize this somehow? This might be a performance bottleneck on the application where the table might be updated heavily (insertion will be uncommon so the performance there is not a problem). So I'm trying to figure out what's the best way to do this. Is there a way to condition the column expressions with something like CASE WHEN or something? The table will be indexed up the wazoo as well for read performance. Is this the best approach? My alternative at this point is to create the UPDATE expression in code (e.g. inline SQL) and execute it against the server. This would solve my doubts about performance, but I'd rather leave this in a stored proc if possible.

    Read the article

  • SQL Duplicates Issue

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. I.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' tbl_product ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) tbl_productratedetail ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

    Read the article

  • In the meantime, to be or not to be ... productive!

    - by Jan Kuboschek
    I just moved back to Europe from the US after living there for 7 years. Apart from major adjustment issues, I'm currently looking for a job over here. I'm mainly interested in (IT) Consulting and, since these jobs typically require programming knowledge, such as Java, I'm trying to think of something productive to write (perhaps to demo my skills) while I'm waiting for my interviews (starting in two weeks. Folks here are a bit slower than in the US apparently...). I graduated from college about a year and a half ago and have a 4 year degree in international management/economics and about 3/4 of a 2 year degree in computer science finished. I've written my fair share of web software over the years, but nothing concrete that I could show, especially not in Java. Now, I've never had the problem of not having any idea what to write. Basic games I could write, but I'm not sure how well that'll come over when I walk into my interview and say "hey, I was bored. Take a look at my multiplayer space invaders game! Wanna try beating me??". Any thoughts? I browsed SourceForge the other day to find a nice little project to contribute to, but decided that I don't want to commit to someone else's project at this time. Any ideas, perhaps from someone who has been, or currently is, in a similar position would be much appreciated. Oh, and lastly: Instead of developing a program or two to demonstrate my skills, I could spend my time brushing up on UML and Perl. Any suggestions regarding that? Writing a demo vs. learning something new?

    Read the article

  • jQuery innerHTML does not work properly (!)

    - by Kayes
    I was trying to build an <a> tag and set it in a <td> of a table. The string is built perfectly but when I set this as the innerHTML using jQuery, the string gets broken. I can't figure out why this is happening? Any clues? Here's the string I want to set in the <td>: <a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65', '498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1')'>Edit</a> But here is how it looks after setting as innerHTML: <A onclick="return EditIssueItemBatch(" ?498ba483-ca06-4b23-b3a9-0085e4760ff1?)? 1c1e27a2-beac-4772-a26f-6a7e05529a65?,>Edit</A> And the following is my code-snippet.. var tr = $("#itemIssueBatchListTable > tbody:last").children()[data.Index + 1]; ... ... var strBuff = []; strBuff.push("<a onclick='return EditIssueItemBatch('"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.ItemCode_FK); strBuff.push("', '"); strBuff.push(data.ItemIssueBatch.StockDetCode_FK); strBuff.push("')'>Edit</a>"); tr.cells[9].innerHTML = strBuff.join(""); ... ...

    Read the article

  • When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • 1.8.x Ruby on Rails RESTful nested admin page and form_for problems

    - by Loomer
    So I am creating a website that I want to have an admin directory in rails 1.8.x and I'm struggling a bit to get the form_for to link to the right controller. I am trying to be RESTful. What I basically want is an admin page that has a summary of actions which can then administer sub models such as: /admin (a summary of events) /admin/sales (edit sales on the site) /admin/sales/0 (the normal RESTful stuff) I can't use namespaces since they were introduced in Rails 2.0 (production site that I don't want to mess with updating rails and all that). Anyway, what I have in the routes.rb is: map.resource :admin do |admin| admin.resources :sales end I am using the map.resource as a singleton as recommended by another site. The problem comes in when I try to use the form_for to link to the subresource RESTfully. If i do : form_for(:sales, @sale) it never links to the right controller no matter what I try. I have also tried: form_for [@admin, @sale] do |f| and that doe not work either (I am guessing since admin is a singleton which does not have a model, it's just a placeholder for the admin controller). Am I supposed to add a prefix or something? Or something into the sales controller to specify that it is a subcontroller to admin? Is there an easier way to do this without manually creating a bunch of routes? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • How do I call Matlab in a script on Windows?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I'm working on a project that uses several languages: SQL for querying a database Perl/Ruby for quick-and-dirty processing of the data from the database and some other bookkeeping Matlab for matrix-oriented computations Various statistics languages (SAS/R/SPSS) for processing the Matlab output Each language fits its niche well and we already have a fair amount of code in each. Right now, there's a lot of manual work to run all these steps that would be much better scripted. I've already done this on Linux, and it works relatively well. On Linux: matlab -nosplash -nodesktop -r "command" or echo "command" | matlab -nosplash -nodesktop ...opens Matlab in a "command line" mode. (That is, no windows are created -- it just reads from STDIN, executes, and outputs to STDOUT/STDERR.) My problem is that on Windows (XP and 7), this same code opens up a window and doesn't read from / write to the command line. It just stares me blankly in the face, totally ignoring STDIN and STDOUT. How can I script running Matlab commands on Windows? I basically want something that will do: ruby database_query.rb perl legacy_code.pl ruby other_stuff.rb matlab processing_step_1.m matlab processing_step_2.m # etc, etc. I've found out that Matlab has an -automation flag on Windows to start an "automation server". That sounds like overkill for my purposes, and I'd like something that works on both platforms. What options do I have for automating Matlab in this workflow?

    Read the article

  • Need method to seek next/previous records id without cycling through all records.

    - by dqhendricks
    I am using MySQL and PHP. I have a MySQL blog post result set with id fields, and publish_date fields. I display one blog post per page, and the script knows which blog post to display based on $_GET['id'], which correlates to each blog entry's id field. I would like to reference them by id in the url, because I would like each blog post to have a perminant url. I would like to order the blog posts by publish date (descending). Now, on each page there will be next and previous links, which contain the $_GET['id'] value for the next and previous blog posts. How can I figure out what the id of the next and previous blog posts (determined by it's publish_date order) without cycling through each mysql result row? I can't mysql_data_seek(), because I do not know the row index of the current blog post id. I do not want to store a row index in a GET variable because the urls would no longer be perminant. I obviously cannot store the row index in a SESSION variable because then direct links to specific blog posts would have broken next and previous links. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

    Read the article

  • Creating UTF-8 files in Java from a runnable Jar

    - by RuntimeError
    I have a little Java project where I've set the properties of the class files to UTF-8 (I use a lot of foreign characters not found on the default CP1252). The goal is to create a text file (in Windows) containing a list of items. When running the class files from Eclipse itself (hitting Ctrl+F11) it creates the file flawlessly and opening it in another editor (I'm using Notepad++) I can see the characters as I wanted. +--------------------------------------------------+ ¦ Universidade2010 (18/18)¦ ¦ hidden: 0¦ +--------------------------------------------------¦ But, when I export the project (using Eclipse) as a runnable Jar and run it using 'javaw -jar project.jar' the new file created is a mess of question marks ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? ? Universidade2010 (19/19)? ? hidden: 0? ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? I've followed some tips on how to use UTF-8 (which seems to be broken by default on Java) to try to correct this so now I'm using Writer w = new OutputStreamWriter(fos, "UTF-8"); and writing the BOM header to the file like in this question already answered but still without luck when exporting to Jar Am I missing some property or command-line command so Java knows I want to create UTF-8 files by default ?

    Read the article

  • stdio data from write not making it into a file

    - by user1551209
    I'm having a problem with using stdio commands for manipulating data in a file. I short, when I write data into a file, write returns an int indicating that it was successful, but when I read it back out I only get the old data. Here's a stripped down version of the code: fd = open(filename,O_RDWR|O_APPEND); struct dE *cDE = malloc(sizeof(struct dE)); //Read present data printf("\nreading values at %d\n",off); printf("SeekStatus <%d>\n",lseek(fd,off,SEEK_SET)); printf("ReadStatus <%d>\n",read(fd,cDE,deSize)); printf("current Key/Data <%d/%s>\n",cDE->key,cDE->data); printf("\nwriting new values\n"); //Change the values locally cDE->key = //something new cDE->data = //something new //Write them back printf("SeekStatus <%d>\n",lseek(fd,off,SEEK_SET)); printf("WriteStatus <%d>\n",write(fd,cDE,deSize)); //Re-read to make sure that it got written back printf("\nre-reading values at %d\n",off); printf("SeekStatus <%d>\n",lseek(fd,off,SEEK_SET)); printf("ReadStatus <%d>\n",read(fd,cDE,deSize)); printf("current Key/Data <%d/%s>\n",cDE->key,cDE->data); Furthermore, here's the dE struct in case you're wondering: struct dE { int key; char data[DataSize]; }; This prints: reading values at 1072 SeekStatus <1072> ReadStatus <32> current Key/Data <27/old> writing new values SeekStatus <1072> WriteStatus <32> re-reading values at 1072 SeekStatus <1072> ReadStatus <32> current Key/Data <27/old>

    Read the article

  • Why can’t I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error right at the start when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

    Read the article

  • How to save errors with the handleError in CakePHP 2.0?

    - by jags1988cr
    I have a big problem. Well, I'm trying to save the errors that happen in my web application. For example (only a example), if I make a division by zero, or happens an error in a query or something like that. So, I wanna catch that and save it in the database. But the handleError of CakePHP is static, so I can't use $this-MyModel-saveError(...). In my /app/Lib/AppError.php I have this: class AppError extends ErrorHandler { public $uses = array('Errors.Error'); public static function handleError($code, $description, $file = null, $line = null, $context = null) { //This print the error: echo "Code: ".$code." Description: ".$description." File: ".$file." Line: ".$line."<br>"; //I want to do this, (save to the database): $this->Error->saveError($code, $description, $file, $line); } } Without the $this-Error-saveError($code, $description, $file, $line); it works but I not only want to show the error. I think need an example or something like that. Please help me. Regards and thank you. Thanks... P.D.: Sorry for the English, I'm an english student...

    Read the article

  • How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

    - by kazanaki
    Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • Point covering problem

    - by Sean
    I recently had this problem on a test: given a set of points m (all on the x-axis) and a set n of lines with endpoints [l, r] (again on the x-axis), find the minimum subset of n such that all points are covered by a line. Prove that your solution always finds the minimum subset. The algorithm I wrote for it was something to the effect of: (say lines are stored as arrays with the left endpoint in position 0 and the right in position 1) algorithm coverPoints(set[] m, set[][] n): chosenLines = [] while m is not empty: minX = min(m) bestLine = n[0] for i=1 to length of n: if n[i][0] <= m and n[i][1] > bestLine[1] then bestLine = n[i] add bestLine to chosenLines for i=0 to length of m: if m <= bestLine[1] then delete m[i] from m return chosenLines I'm just not sure if this always finds the minimum solution. It's a simple greedy algorithm so my gut tells me it won't, but one of my friends who is much better than me at this says that for this problem a greedy algorithm like this always finds the minimal solution. For proving mine always finds the minimal solution I did a very hand wavy proof by contradiction where I made an assumption that probably isn't true at all. I forget exactly what I did. If this isn't a minimal solution, is there a way to do it in less than something like O(n!) time? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Java constructor using generic types

    - by user37903
    I'm having a hard time wrapping my head around Java generic types. Here's a simple piece of code that in my mind should work, but I'm obviously doing something wrong. Eclipse reports this error in BreweryList.java: The method initBreweryFromObject() is undefined for the type <T> The idea is to fill a Vector with instances of objects that are a subclass of the Brewery class, so the invocation would be something like: BreweryList breweryList = new BreweryList(BrewerySubClass.class, list); BreweryList.java package com.beerme.test; import java.util.Vector; public class BreweryList<T extends Brewery> extends Vector<T> { public BreweryList(Class<T> c, Object[] j) { super(); for (int i = 0; i < j.length; i++) { T item = c.newInstance(); // initBreweryFromObject() is an instance method // of Brewery, of which <T> is a subclass (right?) c.initBreweryFromObject(); // "The method initBreweryFromObject() is undefined // for the type <T>" } } } Brewery.java package com.beerme.test; public class Brewery { public Brewery() { super(); } protected void breweryMethod() { } } BrewerySubClass.java package com.beerme.test; public class BrewerySubClass extends Brewery { public BrewerySubClass() { super(); } public void androidMethod() { } } I'm sure this is a complete-generics-noob question, but I'm stuck. Thanks for any tips!

    Read the article

  • efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

    - by user168715
    The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

    Read the article

  • Reducing Duplicated Code

    - by cam
    I have some code that works on the color structure like this public void ChangeColor() { thisColor.R = thisColor.R + 5; } Now I need to make a method that changes a different variable depending on what it is passed. Here is what the code looks like now. public void ChangeColor(int RGBValue) { switch(RGBValue) { case 1: thisColor.R = thisColor.R + 5; break; case 2: thiscolor.B = thisColor.B + 5; break; } } Now, this is something I would normally never question, I'd just throw a #region statement around it and call it a day, but this is just an example of what I have, the actual function is quite long. I want it to look like this: public void ChangeColor(int RGBValue) { thiscolor.RGBValue = thiscolor.RGBValue; } So essentially the value would refer to the variable being used. Is there a name for this? Is this what Reflection is for? Or something like that... Is there a way to do this?

    Read the article

  • MVC3 html.TextBox

    - by BigTommy79
    I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

    Read the article

  • Communicating with a running python daemon

    - by hanksims
    I wrote a small Python application that runs as a daemon. It utilizes threading and queues. I'm looking for general approaches to altering this application so that I can communicate with it while it's running. Mostly I'd like to be able to monitor its health. In a nutshell, I'd like to be able to do something like this: python application.py start # launches the daemon Later, I'd like to be able to come along and do something like: python application.py check_queue_size # return info from the daemonized process To be clear, I don't have any problem implementing the Django-inspired syntax. What I don't have any idea how to do is to send signals to the daemonized process (start), or how to write the daemon to handle and respond to such signals. Like I said above, I'm looking for general approaches. The only one I can see right now is telling the daemon constantly log everything that might be needed to a file, but I hope there's a less messy way to go about it. UPDATE: Wow, a lot of great answers. Thanks so much. I think I'll look at both Pyro and the web.py/Werkzeug approaches, since Twisted is a little more than I want to bite off at this point. The next conceptual challenge, I suppose, is how to go about talking to my worker threads without hanging them up. Thanks again.

    Read the article

  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

    Read the article

  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

    Read the article

  • SWT Browser Drag and Drop

    - by scottalas
    I'm trying to use drag-n-drop with an embedded SWT Browser, so that my application can drag hyperlinks from the Browser to another Control. I've been able to set up the destination to receive data from an external browser, but the internal does not seem to participate in the drag-n-drop. Any ideas? I would guess that I need something like a selection listener to track when something is grabbed in the browser, or some way to ask the browser what is currently selected, perhaps using javascript. My current setup of the Browser is simplistic, looking like this: browser = new Browser(top, SWT.NONE); // MOZILLA createDragSource(browser); // below // a selection listener never receives events: browser.addListener(SWT.Selection, new Listener() { @Override public void handleEvent(Event event) { System.out.println("Selection listener event"); } }); ... private void createDragSource(final Browser browser) { Transfer[] types = new Transfer[] { URLTransfer.getInstance(), HTMLTransfer.getInstance(), TextTransfer.getInstance(), ImageTransfer.getInstance(), }; int mode = DND.DROP_COPY | DND.DROP_LINK | DND.DROP_MOVE; DragSource dragSource = new DragSource(browser, mode); dragSource.setTransfer(types); dragSource.addDragListener(new DragSourceListener() { public void dragStart(DragSourceEvent event) { System.out.println("source.dragStart"); } public void dragSetData(DragSourceEvent event) { System.out.println("source.dragSetData"); // Is there a way to get the Browser's drag item here? } public void dragFinished(DragSourceEvent event) { System.out.println("source.dragFinished"); //do nothing } }); } Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • performance issue: difference between select s.* vs select *

    - by kamil
    Recently I had some problem in performance of my query. The thing is described here: poor Hibernate select performance comparing to running directly - how debug? After long time of struggling, I've finally discovered that the query with select prefix like: select sth.* from Something as sth... Is 300x times slower then query started this way: select * from Something as sth.. Could somebody help me, and asnwer why is that so? Some external documents on this would be really useful. The table used for testing was: SALES_UNIT table contains some basic info abot sales unit node such as name and etc. The only association is to table SALES_UNIT_TYPE, as ManyToOne. The primary key is ID and field VALID_FROM_DTTM which is date. SALES_UNIT_RELATION contains relation PARENT-CHILD between sales unit nodes. Consists of SALES_UNIT_PARENT_ID, SALES_UNIT_CHILD_ID and VALID_TO_DTTM/VALID_FROM_DTTM. No association with any tables. The PK here is ..PARENT_ID, ..CHILD_ID and VALID_FROM_DTTM The actual query I've done was: select s.* from sales_unit s left join sales_unit_relation r on (s.sales_unit_id = r.sales_unit_child_id) where r.sales_unit_child_id is null select * from sales_unit s left join sales_unit_relation r on (s.sales_unit_id = r.sales_unit_child_id) where r.sales_unit_child_id is null Same query, both uses left join and only difference is with select.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460  | Next Page >