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  • How does mercurial's bisect work when the range includes branching?

    - by Joshua Goldberg
    If the bisect range includes multiple branches, how does hg bisect's search work. Does it effectively bisect each sub-branch (I would think that would be inefficient)? For instance, borrowing, with gratitude, a diagram from an answer to this related question, what if the bisect got to changeset 7 on the "good" right-side branch first. @ 12:8ae1fff407c8:bad6 | o 11:27edd4ba0a78:bad5 | o 10:312ba3d6eb29:bad4 |\ | o 9:68ae20ea0c02:good33 | | | o 8:916e977fa594:good32 | | | o 7:b9d00094223f:good31 | | o | 6:a7cab1800465:bad3 | | o | 5:a84e45045a29:bad2 | | o | 4:d0a381a67072:bad1 | | o | 3:54349a6276cc:good4 |/ o 2:4588e394e325:good3 | o 1:de79725cb39a:good2 | o 0:2641cc78ce7a:good1 Will it then look only between 7 and 12, missing the real first-bad that we care about? (thus using "dumb" numerical order) or is it smart enough to use the full topography and to know that the first bad could be below 7 on the right-side branch, or could still be anywhere on the left-side branch. The purpose of my question is both (a) just to understand the algorithm better, and (b) to understand whether I can liberally extend my initial bisect range without thinking hard about what branch I go to. I've been in high-branching bisect situations where it kept asking me after every test to extend beyond the next merge, so that the whole procedure was essentially O(n). I'm wondering if I can just throw the first "good" marker way back past some nest of merges without thinking about it much, and whether that would save time and give correct results.

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  • Show / Hiding Divs

    - by Rob
    After cobbling together a few questions I've managed to get this far to showing / hiding divs: $(document).ready(function(){ $('.box').hide(); $('#categories').onMouseOver(function() { $('.box').hide(); $('#div' + $(this).val()).show(); }); }); HTML: <div id="categories"> <div id="btn-top20"><a href="">Top 20 Villas</a></div> <div id="btn-villaspec"><a href="">Villa Specials</a></div> <div id="btn-staffpicks"><a href="">Our Staff Picks</a></div> </div> <div id="category-content"> <div id="divarea1" class="box"> Content 1 </div> <div id="divarea2" class="box"> Content 2 </div> <div id="divarea3" class="box"> Content 3 </div> </div> What am I missing?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

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  • How to get MySQL database to appear on index.php

    - by Teddy Truong
    Hi, I have a submission form on my website (index.php) and I have the data(user submissions) being stored into a MySQL database. Right now, I have the user submitting a post and then the page directs them to an update.php which shows what they inputed. However, I want all of the data in the database in MySQL to be shown on the index.php. It's a lot like a comment system. User submits a post... and sees their post above the other submitted posts all on the same page. I think I'm missing AJAX... ? Here is the code for index.php <div align="center"> <p>&nbsp;</p> <h2 align="center" class="Title"><em><strong>REDACTED</strong></em></h2> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="update.php"> <hr /> <label><br /> <form action="update.php" method="post"> REDACTED: <input type="text" name="text" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </label> </form> </div> On update.php I have this: ?php $text = $_POST['text']; $myString = "REDACTED"; mysql_connect ("db----.net", "-----3", "------------") or die ('Error: ' . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("-----------"); $query="INSERT INTO TextArea (ID, text) VALUES ('NULL', '".$text."')"; mysql_query($query) or die ('Error updating database'); echo " $myString "," $text "; ?> Thanks a lot!

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  • .NET Splash screen issues

    - by CODe
    I have a splash screen for my C# database application that is called via the Shown event. The splash screen contains some information that is preprocessed when the main form's constructor is called, hence why I'm using the Shown event, because that information should be available. However, when the splash screen is shown, the main form is whited out, and the menu bar, bottom menu bar, and even the gray background are all white and invisible. It looks like the program is hanging, but after the 5 second delay I have built in, the banner goes away and the program is shown normally. Also, on the banner, I have labels that are not shown when the splash screen displays... Here is my code, some reasoning behind why it isn't working would help greatly. SPLASH SCREEN CODE : public partial class StartupBanner : Form { public StartupBanner(int missingNum, int expiredNum) { InitializeComponent(); missingLabel.Text = missingNum.ToString() + " MISSING POLICIES"; expiredLabel.Text = expiredNum.ToString() + " EXPIRED POLICIES"; } } CALLING CODE : private void MainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { StartupBanner startup = new StartupBanner(missingPoliciesNum, expiredPoliciesNum); startup.MdiParent = this; startup.Show(); Thread.Sleep(5000); startup.Close(); } Using startup.ShowDialog() shows the correct label information on the splash screen, but that locks up the application, and I need the splash to go away after about 5 seconds, which is why it's a splash. ;)

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  • django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

    - by Scott Rogowski
    I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

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  • How to embed XBase expressions in an Xtext DSL

    - by Marcus Mathioudakis
    I am writing a simple little DSL for specifying constraints on messages, and Have been trying without success for a while to embed XBase expressions into the language. The Grammar looks like this: grammar org.xtext.businessrules.BusinessRules with org.eclipse.xtext.xbase.Xbase //import "http://www.eclipse.org/xtext/xbase/Xbase" as xbase import "http://www.eclipse.org/xtext/common/JavaVMTypes" as jvmTypes generate businessRules "http://www.xtext.org/businessrules/BusinessRules" Start: rules+=Constraint*; Constraint: {Constraint} 'FOR' 'PAYLOAD' payload=PAYLOAD 'ELEMENT' element=ID 'CONSTRAINED BY' constraint=XExpression; PAYLOAD: "SimulationSessionEvents" |"stacons" |"any" ; Range: 'above' min=INT ('below' max=INT)? |'below' max=INT ('above' min=INT)? ; When trying to parse a file such as: FOR PAYLOAD SimulationSessionEvents ELEMENT matrix CONSTRAINED BY ... I can't get it to work for ... = any kind of Arithmetic expression, although it works for ...= loop or if expression, or even just a number. As soon as I do something like '-5' or '4-5' it says Couldn't resolve reference to JvmIdentifiableElement '-', even though the Xbase.xtext Grammar looks like it allows these expressions. I don't think I'm missing any Jars, as it doesn't complain when I run the mwe workflow, but only when trying to parse the input file. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Strongly Typed Controls in .NET

    - by Tigraine
    I am working on a Windows Forms app for quite some time now, and I really find myself doing more typecasts in the GUI code than I ever did in my underlying business code. What I mean becomes apparent if you watch the ComboBox control that accepts some vague "object" as it's item. Then you go off and may display some DisplayMember and a ValueMember and so on. If I want to retrieve that value later I need to typecast my object back to what it was. Like with strings getting the value takes string value = (string)combobox1.SelectedItem; Since there are generics in the Framework for quite some time now, I still wonder why in the Hell not one control from the standard toolbox is generic. I also find myself using the .Tag property on ListViewItems all the time to keep the displayed domain object. But everytime I need to access that object I then need another typecast. Why cant I just create a ComboBox or ListView with items of type ListViewItem Am I missing something here or is this just another example of not perfectly well thought through controls?

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  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

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  • Stage untracked files for commit without staging tracked file changes

    - by Blair Holloway
    Oftentimes, when using git, I find myself in this situation: I have changes to several files, but I only want to commit parts of them. I have added several untracked files, which I want to track and commit. Solving the first part is easy; I run: git add -p Then, I choose which hunks to stage, and which hunks remain in my working tree, but unstaged. However, git's patch mode skips over untracked files. What I would like to do is something like: git add --untracked But no such option appears to exist. If I have, say, six untracked files, I could stage them using add in interactive mode and the add untracked option, like so: git add -i a<CR> 1<CR> 2<CR> 3<CR> 4<CR> 5<CR> 6<CR> <CR> q<CR> I feel like there is, or should be, a quicker way of doing this, though. What am I missing?

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  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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  • Rails3 renders a js.erb template with a text/html content-type instead of text/javascript

    - by Yannis
    Hi, I'm building a new app with 3.0.0.beta3. I simply try to render a js.erb template to an Ajax request for the following action (in publications_controller.rb): def get_pubmed_data entry = Bio::PubMed.query(params[:pmid])# searches PubMed and get entry @publication = Bio::MEDLINE.new(entry) # creates Bio::MEDLINE object from entry text flash[:warning] = "No publication found."if @publication.title.blank? and @publication.authors.blank? and @publication.journal.blank? respond_to do |format| format.js end end Currently, my get_pubmed_data.js.erb template is simply alert('<%= @publication.title %>') The server is responding with the following alert('Evidence for a herpes simplex virus-specific factor controlling the transcription of deoxypyrimidine kinase.') which is perfectly fine except that nothing happen in the browser, probably because the content-type of the response is 'text/html' instead of 'text/javascript' as shown by the response header partially reproduced here: Status 200 Keep-Alive timeout=5, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Is this a bug or am I missing something? Thanks for your help!

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  • Force a view change from a button when using UITabBarController

    - by user342197
    Hello - When using a UITabBarController, when the user enters some data on View1 and presses a button, I need to perform some calculations and present the results on View2. I have an AppDelegate, View1Controller, View2Controller, and View3Controller (View3 is a basically static view). My AppDelgate declares UITabBarController *rootController; On View1, I have the calculations being performed in an IBAction for buttonPressed; however, I can't seem to force the view to switch to View2 programmatically. I have done a lot of searching for similar problems, and think I should be doing something like "self.rootController.selectedIndex = 1"; however,when I do this from within buttonPressed on my View1Controller, I get an error "request for member rootController in something not in a structure or union". I think I'm missing something basic here... probably need do do something with my AppDelegate, but I'm banging my head against the wall. Can anyone provide some guidance in this situation...like key things I should do in View1Controller header and implementation with reference to my AppDelgate? Thank you!

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  • What's a good Java-based Master-Slave communication mechanism?

    - by plecong
    I'm creating a Java application that requires master-slave communication between JVMs, possibly residing on the same physical machine. There will be a "master" server running inside a JEE application server (i.e. JBoss) that will have "slave" clients connect to it and dynamically register itself for communication (that is the master will not know the IP addresses/ports of the slaves so cannot be configured in advance). The master server acts as a controller that will dole work out to the slaves and the slaves will periodically respond with notifications, so there would be bi-directional communication. I was originally thinking of RPC-based systems where each side would be a server, but it could get complicated, so I'd prefer a mechanism where there's an open socket and they talk back and forth. I'm looking for a communication mechanism that would be low-latency where the messages would be mostly primitive types, so no serious serialization is necessary. Here's what I've looked at: RMI JMS: Built-in to Java, the "slave" clients would connect to the existing ConnectionFactory in the application server. JAX-WS/RS: Both master and slave would be servers exposing an RPC interface for bi-directional communication. JGroups/Hazelcast: Use shared distributed data structures to facilitate communication. Memcached/MongoDB: Use these as "queues" to facilitate communication, though the clients would have to poll so there would be some latency. Thrift: This does seem to keep a persistent connection, but not sure how to integrate/embed a Thrift server into JBoss WebSocket/Raw Socket: This would work, but require a lot more custom code than I'd like. Is there any technology I'm missing? Edit: Also looked at: JMX: Have the client connect to JBoss' JMX server and receive JMX notifications for bidirectional comms.

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  • why is css not being applied to this jquery anchor button?

    - by Tim
    I must be missing something very basic in the CSS. My jQuery anchor button is functional, but it's rendering as a simple underlined label, not asa rounded-corner UI button. I would be grateful if someone could point out the error in this simple example. Thanks !DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <HTML LANG="en-US"> <HEAD> <TITLE>button test</TITLE> <META http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="Sat, 22 May 2010 00:00:11 GMT"> <link href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <SCRIPT type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function() { $('a','.test').click(function(){showIntro();return false;}); }); function showIntro() { document.location.href="intro.htm"; } </script> <body> <div class='test'><a href="#">Button</a></div> </body> </html>

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  • Why thread in background is not waiting for task to complete?

    - by Haris Hasan
    I am playing with async await feature of C#. Things work as expected when I use it with UI thread. But when I use it in a non-UI thread it doesn't work as expected. Consider the code below private void Click_Button(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += BgDoWork; bg.RunWorkerCompleted += BgOnRunWorkerCompleted; bg.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void BgOnRunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs runWorkerCompletedEventArgs) { } private async void BgDoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs doWorkEventArgs) { await Method(); } private static async Task Method() { for (int i = int.MinValue; i < int.MaxValue; i++) { var http = new HttpClient(); var tsk = await http.GetAsync("http://www.ebay.com"); } } When I execute this code, background thread don't wait for long running task in Method to complete. Instead it instantly executes the BgOnRunWorkerCompleted after calling Method. Why is that so? What am I missing here? P.S: I am not interested in alternate ways or correct ways of doing this. I want to know what is actually happening behind the scene in this case? Why is it not waiting?

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  • memory leak in php script

    - by Jasper De Bruijn
    Hi, I have a php script that runs a mysql query, then loops the result, and in that loop also runs several queries: $sqlstr = "SELECT * FROM user_pred WHERE uprType != 2 AND uprTurn=$turn ORDER BY uprUserTeamIdFK"; $utmres = mysql_query($sqlstr) or trigger_error($termerror = __FILE__." - ".__LINE__.": ".mysql_error()); while($utmrow = mysql_fetch_array($utmres, MYSQL_ASSOC)) { // some stuff happens here // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1241<br/>\n"; $sqlstr = "UPDATE user_roundscores SET ursUpdDate=NOW(),ursScore=$score WHERE ursUserTeamIdFK=$userteamid"; if(!mysql_query($sqlstr)) { $err_crit++; $cLog->WriteLogFile("Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid\n"); echo "Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid<br>\n"; break; } unset($sqlstr); // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1253<br/>\n"; // some stuff happens here too } The update query never fails. For some reason, between the two calls of memory_get_usage, there is some memory added. Because the big loop runs about 500.000 or more times, in the end it really adds up to alot of memory. Is there anything I'm missing here? could it herhaps be that the memory is not actually added between the two calls, but at another point in the script? Edit: some extra info: Before the loop it's at about 5mb, after the loop about 440mb, and every update query adds about 250 bytes. (the rest of the memory gets added at other places in the loop). The reason I didn't post more of the "other stuff" is because its about 300 lines of code. I posted this part because it looks to be where the most memory is added.

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  • How to write a Criteria Query when there's an <any> association

    - by Bevan
    I'm having some trouble constructing the correct Criteria to do a particular query - after an afternoon of consultation with Professor Google, I'm hoping that someone can point me in the right direction. I have two entities of interest: OutputTsDef and NamedAttribute What I'm trying to do is to find all OutputTsDef that have a particular NamedAttribute value. I can write a detached Criteria to find all NamedAttributes that have a given name and value: var attributesCriteria = DetachedCriteria.For<INamedAttribute>() .Add(Expression.Eq("Name", "some name")) .Add(Expression.Eq("Value", "some value")); How do I inject this in to a query for OutputTsDef to restrict the results? var criteria = nHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(typeof(IOutputTsDefEntity)); // What do I write here? var results = criteria.List(); NamedAttribute looks like this - note the use of [Any] as we can have NamedAttributes on many kinds of entity. [AttributeIdentifier("DbKey", Name = "Id.Column", Value = "NamedAttributeID")] [Class(Table = "NamedAttributes")] public class NamedAttribute : BusinessEntity, INamedAttribute { [Any(0, Name = "Entity", MetaType = "System.String", IdType = "System.Int32")] [MetaValue(1, Class = "Sample.OutputTsDef, Sample.Entities", Value = "OTD")] [MetaValue(2, Class = "Sample.OutputTimeSeriesAttributesEntity, Sample.Entities", Value = "OTA")] [Column(3, Name = "OwnerType")] [Column(4, Name = "OwnerKey")] public virtual IBusinessEntity Entity { get; set; } [Property(Column = "Name")] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [Property(Column = "Value")] public virtual string Value { get; set; } ... omitted ... } In regular SQL, I'd just include an extra "where" clause like this: where OutputTsDefId in ( select distinct OwnerKey from NamedAttributes where Name = ? and Value = ? and OwnerType = 'OTD' ) What am I missing? (Question also posted to the NHUsers mailing list - I'll copy any useful information from there, here.)

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  • Update database settings in properties file in Spring

    - by mvg
    Hi all, I am trying to create a Database Manager page which shows the database details on page load and updates the database settings when the user press submit I followed this tutorial and set the database settings in properties file. I managed to update the database settings in properties file programmatically. When I retrieved the database settings using the following code DriverManagerDataSource databaseSource = (DriverManagerDataSource)context.getBean("dataSource"); databaseSource.getUsername(); I managed to get the old value and unable to get the new value This is the mapping in applicationContext.xml file <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="location"> <value>classpath:/bundle/database.properties</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driverClassName}" /> <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}" /> <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}" /> <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}" /> </bean> I checked the properties file and found it to be updated with the latest input. What am I missing? Thanks in advance P.S I am using JSF1.2 with Spring 3 Update Just making my requirement simple. I am creating a setparate dbsettings page, so that when user wishes to connect to different database he/she can just enter the details in dbsettings page and connect

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  • [MFC] Creating multiple dialogs in an MFC app with no main Window, they become children of each othe

    - by John
    (title updated) Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000) Running in the debugger, if I manually change pParentWnd back to 0 in CDialog::CreateIndirect, everything works fine... but how do I stop it happening in the first place?

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  • Single intent to let user take picture OR pick image from gallery in Android

    - by Damian
    I'm developing an app for Android 2.1 upwards. I want to enable my users to select a profile picture within my app (I'm not using the contacts framework). The ideal solution would be to fire an intent that enables the user to select an image from the gallery, but if an appropriate image is not available then use the camera to take a picture (or vice-versa i.e. allow user to take picture but if they know they already have a suitable image already, let them drop into the gallery and pick said image). Currently I can do one or the other but not both. If I go directly into camera mode using MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE then there is no option to drop into the gallery. If I go directly to the gallery using Intent.ACTION_PICK then I can pick an image but if I click the camera button (in top right hand corner of gallery) then a new camera intent is fired. So, any picture that is taken is not returned directly to my application. (Sure you can press the back button to drop back into the gallery and select image from there but this is an extra unnecessary step and is not at all intuitive). So is there a way to combine both or am I going to have to offer a menu to do one or the other from within my application? Seems like it would be a common use case...surely I'm missing something?

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  • Should we deploy a Webkit browser for our intranet applications?

    - by Jeff Meatball Yang
    At my place of employment, we are increasingly finding it difficult to develop for IE, which was historically the easiest browser to target, from an intranet-app point of view. It was already deployed. It already understood NTLM authentication, thus well integrated with our domain-level security. It had neat, albeit non-standard features such as XMLDOM and XmlHTTP. Now, we are increasingly irritated by issues presented by IE: There are several versions: IE 7, 8, and soon 9 beta, which all have slightly different issues related to performance, functionality (especially re:security and zones), and aesthetics. IE 7 and 8 are slower than Webkit-based browsers. Period. There are technology limitations such as missing canvas element, CSS bugs, etc. that make it hard to use 3rd party packages or even consistently write code across IE versions. Users are increasingly using Firefox or Chrome, even for intranet use. Does anyone have experience with making a transition? Any advice would be welcome.

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  • What is a good approach to preloading data?

    - by Bob Horn
    Are there best practices out there for loading data into a database, to be used with a new installation of an application? For example, for application foo to run, it needs some basic data before it can even be started. I've used a couple options in the past: TSQL for every row that needs to be preloaded: IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM Master.Site WHERE Name = @SiteName) INSERT INTO [Master].[Site] ([EnterpriseID], [Name], [LastModifiedTime], [LastModifiedUser]) VALUES (@EnterpriseId, @SiteName, GETDATE(), @LastModifiedUser) Another option is a spreadsheet. Each tab represents a table, and data is entered into the spreadsheet as we realize we need it. Then, a program can read this spreadsheet and populate the DB. There are complicating factors, including the relationships between tables. So, it's not as simple as loading tables by themselves. For example, if we create Security.Member rows, then we want to add those members to Security.Role, we need a way of maintaining that relationship. Another factor is that not all databases will be missing this data. Some locations will already have most of the data, and others (that may be new locations around the world), will start from scratch. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • Nhibernate - stuck with detached criteria (asp.net mvc 1 with nhibernate 2) c#

    - by Jen
    OK so I can't find a good example of this so I can better understand how to use detached criteria (assuming that's what I want to use in the first place). I have 2 tables. Placement and PlacementSupervisor My PlacementSupervisor table has a FK of PlacementID which relates to Placement.PlacementID - though my nhibernate model class has PlacementSupervisor . Placement (rather than specifically specifying a property of placement ID - not sure if this is important). What I am trying to do is - if values are passed through for the supervisor ID I want to restrict placements with that supervisor id. Have tried: ICriteria query = m_PlacementRepository.QueryAlias("p") .... if (criteria.SupervisorId > 0 && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(criteria.SupervisorTypeId)) { DetachedCriteria entityQuery = DetachedCriteria.For<PlacementSupervisor>("sup") .Add(Restrictions.And( Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorId", criteria.SupervisorId), Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorTypeId", criteria.SupervisorTypeId) )) .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .AddPropertyAlias("Placement.PlacementId", "PlacementId") ); query.Add(Subqueries.PropertyIn("p.PlacementId", entityQuery)); } Which just gives me the error: Could not find a matching criteria info provider to: (sup.supervisorId = 5 and sup.supervisorTypeId = U) Firstly supervisorTypeId is a string. Secondly I don't understand how to achieve what I'm trying to do so have just been trying various combinations of projections, and property aliases and subquery options..as I don't get how I'm supposed to join to another table/entity when the FK key sits in the second table. Can someone point me in the right direction. It seems like such an easy thing to do from a data perspective that hopefully I'm just missing something obvious!!

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