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  • WPF / Silverlight Binding when setting DataTemplate programically

    - by Daniel
    I have my little designer tool (my program). On the left side I have TreeView and on the right site I have Accordion. When I select a node I want to dynamically build Accordion Items based on Properties from DataContext of selected node. Selecting nodes works fine, and when I use this sample code for testing it works also. XAML code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> <layoutToolkit:AccordionItem Header="Controller Info"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </layoutToolkit:AccordionItem> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; //e.NewValue is a class that contains Name property } } } But the problem occurs when I'm trying to achive this using DateTemplate and dynamically build AccordingItem, the Binding is not working: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous" /> and DataTemplate in my ResourceDictionary <DataTemplate x:Key="dtSceneNodeContent"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { ResourceDictionary rd = new ResourceDictionary(); rd.Source = new Uri("/SilverGL.GUI;component/SilverGLDesignerResourceDictionary.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; AccordionItem accController = new AccordionItem(); accController.Header = "Controller Info"; accController.ContentTemplate = rd["dtSceneNodeContent"] as DataTemplate; accPanel.Items.Add(accController); } else { // Other type of node } } } I really need help with this issue. Thanks for any support.

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  • GUI Application becomes unresponsive while http request is being done

    - by JW
    I have just made my first proper little desktop GUI application that basically wraps a GUI (php-gtk) interface around a SimpleTest Web Test case to make it act as a remote testing client. Each time the local The Web Test case runs, it sends an HTTP request to another SimpleTest case (that has an XHTML interface) sitting on my server. The application, allows me to run one local test that collates information from multiple remote tests. It just has a 'Start Test' button, 'Stop Test' button and a setting to increase/decrease the number of remote tests conducted in each HTTP Request. Each test-run takes about an hour to complete. The trouble is, most of the time the application is making http requests. Furthermore, whenever an HTTP Request is being made, the application's GUI is unresponsive. I have taken to making the application wait a few seconds (iterating through the Gtk::main_iteration ) between requests in order to give the user time to re-size the window, press the Stop button, etc. But, this makes the whole test run take a lot a longer than is necessary. <?php require_once('simpletest/web_tester.php'); class TestRemoteTestingClient extends WebTestCase { function testRunIterations() { ... $this->assertTrue($this->get($nextUrl), 'getting from pointer:'. $this->_remoteMementoPointer); $this->assertResponse(200, "checking response for " . $nextUrl ); $this->assertText('RemoteNodeGreen'); $this->doGtkIterationsForMinNSeconds($secs); ... } public function doGtkIterationsForMinNSeconds($secs) { $this->appendStatusMessage("Waiting " . $secs); $start = time(); $end = $start + $secs; while( (time() < $end) ) { $this->appendStatusMessage("Waiting " . ($end - time())); while(gtk::events_pending()) Gtk::main_iteration(); } } } Is there a way to keep the application responsive whilst, at the same time making an HTTP request? I am considering splitting the application into two, where: Test Controller Application - Acts as a settings-writer / report-reader and this writes to settings file and reads a report file. Test Runner Application - Acts as a settings-reader / report-writer and, for each iteration reads the settings file, Runs the test, then write a report. So to tell it to close down - I'd: Press the Stop Button on the 'Test Controller Application', which writes to the settings file, which is read by the 'Test Runner Application' which stops, then writes to the report file to say it stopped the 'Test Controller Application' reads the report and updates the status and so on... However, before I go ahead and split the application in two - I am wondering if there is any other obvious way to deal with, this issue. I suspect it is probably quite common and a well-trodden path. Also is there an easier way to send messages between two applications?

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  • SharePoint: Problem with BaseFieldControl

    - by Anoop
    Hi All, In below code in a Gird First column is BaseFieldControl from a column of type Choice of SPList. Secound column is a text box control with textchange event. Both the controls are created at rowdatabound event of gridview. Now the problem is that when Steps: 1) select any of the value from BaseFieldControl(DropDownList) which is rendered from Choice Column of SPList 2) enter any thing in textbox in another column of grid. 3) textchanged event fires up and in textchange event rebound the grid. Problem: the selected value becomes the first item or the default value(if any). but if i do not rebound the grid at text changed event it works fine. Please suggest what to do. using System; using Microsoft.SharePoint; using Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Data; namespace SharePointProjectTest.Layouts.SharePointProjectTest { public partial class TestBFC : LayoutsPageBase { GridView grid = null; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { grid = new GridView(); grid.ShowFooter = true; grid.ShowHeader = true; grid.AutoGenerateColumns = true; grid.ID = "grdView"; grid.RowDataBound += new GridViewRowEventHandler(grid_RowDataBound); grid.Width = Unit.Pixel(900); MasterPage holder = (MasterPage)Page.Controls[0]; holder.FindControl("PlaceHolderMain").Controls.Add(grid); DataTable ds = new DataTable(); ds.Columns.Add("Choice"); //ds.Columns.Add("person"); ds.Columns.Add("Curr"); for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { DataRow dr = ds.NewRow(); ds.Rows.Add(dr); } grid.DataSource = ds; grid.DataBind(); } catch (Exception ex) { } } void tx_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable ds = new DataTable(); ds.Columns.Add("Choice"); ds.Columns.Add("Curr"); for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { DataRow dr = ds.NewRow(); ds.Rows.Add(dr); } grid.DataSource = ds; grid.DataBind(); } void grid_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { SPWeb web = SPContext.Current.Web; SPList list = web.Lists["Source for test"]; SPField field = list.Fields["Choice"]; SPListItem item=list.Items.Add(); BaseFieldControl control = (BaseFieldControl)GetSharePointControls(field, list, item, SPControlMode.New); if (control != null) { e.Row.Cells[0].Controls.Add(control); } TextBox tx = new TextBox(); tx.AutoPostBack = true; tx.ID = "Curr"; tx.TextChanged += new EventHandler(tx_TextChanged); e.Row.Cells[1].Controls.Add(tx); } } public static Control GetSharePointControls(SPField field, SPList list, SPListItem item, SPControlMode mode) { if (field == null || field.FieldRenderingControl == null || field.Hidden) return null; try { BaseFieldControl webControl = field.FieldRenderingControl; webControl.ListId = list.ID; webControl.ItemId = item.ID; webControl.FieldName = field.Title; webControl.ID = "id_" + field.InternalName; webControl.ControlMode = mode; webControl.EnableViewState = true; return webControl; } catch (Exception ex) { return null; } } } }

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  • Uses of a C++ Arithmetic Promotion Header

    - by OlduvaiHand
    I've been playing around with a set of templates for determining the correct promotion type given two primitive types in C++. The idea is that if you define a custom numeric template, you could use these to determine the return type of, say, the operator+ function based on the class passed to the templates. For example: // Custom numeric class template <class T> struct Complex { Complex(T real, T imag) : r(real), i(imag) {} T r, i; // Other implementation stuff }; // Generic arithmetic promotion template template <class T, class U> struct ArithmeticPromotion { typedef typename X type; // I realize this is incorrect, but the point is it would // figure out what X would be via trait testing, etc }; // Specialization of arithmetic promotion template template <> class ArithmeticPromotion<long long, unsigned long> { typedef typename unsigned long long type; } // Arithmetic promotion template actually being used template <class T, class U> Complex<typename ArithmeticPromotion<T, U>::type> operator+ (Complex<T>& lhs, Complex<U>& rhs) { return Complex<typename ArithmeticPromotion<T, U>::type>(lhs.r + rhs.r, lhs.i + rhs.i); } If you use these promotion templates, you can more or less treat your user defined types as if they're primitives with the same promotion rules being applied to them. So, I guess the question I have is would this be something that could be useful? And if so, what sorts of common tasks would you want templated out for ease of use? I'm working on the assumption that just having the promotion templates alone would be insufficient for practical adoption. Incidentally, Boost has something similar in its math/tools/promotion header, but it's really more for getting values ready to be passed to the standard C math functions (that expect either 2 ints or 2 doubles) and bypasses all of the integral types. Is something that simple preferable to having complete control over how your objects are being converted? TL;DR: What sorts of helper templates would you expect to find in an arithmetic promotion header beyond the machinery that does the promotion itself?

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  • Git repo planning questions

    - by masonk
    At work, development uses perforce to handle code sharing. I won't say "revision control", because we aren't allowed to check in changes until they are ready for regression testing. In order to get my personal change sets under revision control, I've been given the go-ahead to build my own git and initialize the client view of the perforce depot as a git repo. There are some difficulties in doing this, however. The client view lives in a subfolder of ~, (~/p4), and I want to put ~ under revision control as well, with its own separate history. I can't figure out how to keep the history for ~ separate from ~/p4 without using a submodule. The problem with a submodule is that it looks like I have to go make a repository that will become the submodule and then git submodule add <repo> <path>. But there is nowhere to make the submodule's repository except in ~. There seems to be no safe place to create the initial client view of the depot with git p4 clone. (I'm working off of the assumption that initing or cloning a repo into a subdirectory of a git repo is not supported. At least, I can find nothing authoritative on nested git repos.) edit: Is merely ignoring ~/p4 in the repo rooted at ~ enough to allow me to init a nested repo in ~/p4? My __git_ps1 function still thinks I'm in a git repository when I visit an ignored subdirectory of a git repo, so I'm inclined to think not. I need the "remote" repository created by git p4 sync to be a branch in ~/p4. We are required to keep all of our code in ~/p4 so that it doesn't get backed up. Can I pull from a "remote" branch that is really a local branch? This one is just for convenience, but I thought I could learn something by asking it. For 99% of the project, I just want to start the with the p4 head revision as the inital commit object. For the other 1%, I would like to suck down the entire p4 history so that I can browse it in git. IOW, after I'm done initalizing it, the initial commit of remotes/p4/master branch will contain: revision 1 of //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/* revision X of other files in //depot/prod/*, where X is the head revision and the remotes/p4/master branch contains Y commits, where Y is the number of changelists that had a file in //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/*, with each commit in the history corresponding to one of those p4 changelists, and HEAD looking like p4's head.

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  • Domain Validation in a CQRS architecture

    - by Jupaol
    Basically I want to know if there is a better way to validate my domain entities. This is how I am planning to do it but I would like your opinion The first approach I considered was: class Customer : EntityBase<Customer> { public void ChangeEmail(string email) { if(string.IsNullOrWhitespace(email)) throw new DomainException(“...”); if(!email.IsEmail()) throw new DomainException(); if(email.Contains(“@mailinator.com”)) throw new DomainException(); } } I actually do not like this validation because even when I am encapsulating the validation logic in the correct entity, this is violating the Open/Close principle (Open for extension but Close for modification) and I have found that violating this principle, code maintenance becomes a real pain when the application grows up in complexity. Why? Because domain rules change more often than we would like to admit, and if the rules are hidden and embedded in an entity like this, they are hard to test, hard to read, hard to maintain but the real reason why I do not like this approach is: if the validation rules change, I have to come and edit my domain entity. This has been a really simple example but in RL the validation could be more complex So following the philosophy of Udi Dahan, making roles explicit, and the recommendation from Eric Evans in the blue book, the next try was to implement the specification pattern, something like this class EmailDomainIsAllowedSpecification : IDomainSpecification<Customer> { private INotAllowedEmailDomainsResolver invalidEmailDomainsResolver; public bool IsSatisfiedBy(Customer customer) { return !this.invalidEmailDomainsResolver.GetInvalidEmailDomains().Contains(customer.Email); } } But then I realize that in order to follow this approach I had to mutate my entities first in order to pass the value being valdiated, in this case the email, but mutating them would cause my domain events being fired which I wouldn’t like to happen until the new email is valid So after considering these approaches, I came out with this one, since I am going to implement a CQRS architecture: class EmailDomainIsAllowedValidator : IDomainInvariantValidator<Customer, ChangeEmailCommand> { public void IsValid(Customer entity, ChangeEmailCommand command) { if(!command.Email.HasValidDomain()) throw new DomainException(“...”); } } Well that’s the main idea, the entity is passed to the validator in case we need some value from the entity to perform the validation, the command contains the data coming from the user and since the validators are considered injectable objects they could have external dependencies injected if the validation requires it. Now the dilemma, I am happy with a design like this because my validation is encapsulated in individual objects which brings many advantages: easy unit test, easy to maintain, domain invariants are explicitly expressed using the Ubiquitous Language, easy to extend, validation logic is centralized and validators can be used together to enforce complex domain rules. And even when I know I am placing the validation of my entities outside of them (You could argue a code smell - Anemic Domain) but I think the trade-off is acceptable But there is one thing that I have not figured out how to implement it in a clean way. How should I use this components... Since they will be injected, they won’t fit naturally inside my domain entities, so basically I see two options: Pass the validators to each method of my entity Validate my objects externally (from the command handler) I am not happy with the option 1 so I would explain how I would do it with the option 2 class ChangeEmailCommandHandler : ICommandHandler<ChangeEmailCommand> { public void Execute(ChangeEmailCommand command) { private IEnumerable<IDomainInvariantValidator> validators; // here I would get the validators required for this command injected, and in here I would validate them, something like this using (var t = this.unitOfWork.BeginTransaction()) { var customer = this.unitOfWork.Get<Customer>(command.CustomerId); this.validators.ForEach(x =. x.IsValid(customer, command)); // here I know the command is valid // the call to ChangeEmail will fire domain events as needed customer.ChangeEmail(command.Email); t.Commit(); } } } Well this is it. Can you give me your thoughts about this or share your experiences with Domain entities validation EDIT I think it is not clear from my question, but the real problem is: Hiding the domain rules has serious implications in the future maintainability of the application, and also domain rules change often during the life-cycle of the app. Hence implementing them with this in mind would let us extend them easily. Now imagine in the future a rules engine is implemented, if the rules are encapsulated outside of the domain entities, this change would be easier to implement

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  • A couple questions using fwrite/fread with data structures

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I'm using fwrite() and fread() for the first time to write some data structures to disk and I have a couple of questions about best practices and proper ways of doing things. What I'm writing to disk (so I can later read it back) is all user profiles inserted in a Graph structure. Each graph vertex is of the following type: typedef struct sUserProfile { char name[NAME_SZ]; char address[ADDRESS_SZ]; int socialNumber; char password[PASSWORD_SZ]; HashTable *mailbox; short msgCount; } UserProfile; And this is how I'm currently writing all the profiles to disk: void ioWriteNetworkState(SocialNetwork *social) { Vertex *currPtr = social->usersNetwork->vertices; UserProfile *user; FILE *fp = fopen("save/profiles.dat", "w"); if(!fp) { perror("fopen"); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } fwrite(&(social->usersCount), sizeof(int), 1, fp); while(currPtr) { user = (UserProfile*)currPtr->value; fwrite(&(user->socialNumber), sizeof(int), 1, fp); fwrite(user->name, sizeof(char)*strlen(user->name), 1, fp); fwrite(user->address, sizeof(char)*strlen(user->address), 1, fp); fwrite(user->password, sizeof(char)*strlen(user->password), 1, fp); fwrite(&(user->msgCount), sizeof(short), 1, fp); break; currPtr = currPtr->next; } fclose(fp); } Notes: The first fwrite() you see will write the total user count in the graph so I know how much data I need to read back. The break is there for testing purposes. There's thousands of users and I'm still experimenting with the code. My questions: After reading this I decided to use fwrite() on each element instead of writing the whole structure. I also avoid writing the pointer to to the mailbox as I don't need to save that pointer. So, is this the way to go? Multiple fwrite()'s instead of a global one for the whole structure? Isn't that slower? How do I read back this content? I know I have to use fread() but I don't know the size of the strings, cause I used strlen() to write them. I could write the output of strlen() before writing the string, but is there any better way without extra writes?

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  • Lock-Free, Wait-Free and Wait-freedom algorithms for non-blocking multi-thread synchronization.

    - by GJ
    In multi thread programming we can find different terms for data transfer synchronization between two or more threads/tasks. When exactly we can say that some algorithem is: 1)Lock-Free 2)Wait-Free 3)Wait-Freedom I understand what means Lock-free but when we can say that some synchronization algorithm is Wait-Free or Wait-Freedom? I have made some code (ring buffer) for multi-thread synchronization and it use Lock-Free methods but: 1) Algorithm predicts maximum execution time of this routine. 2) Therad which call this routine at beginning set unique reference, what mean that is inside of this routine. 3) Other threads which are calling the same routine check this reference and if is set than count the CPU tick count (measure time) of first involved thread. If that time is to long interrupt the current work of involved thread and overrides him job. 4) Thread which not finished job because was interrupted from task scheduler (is reposed) at the end check the reference if not belongs to him repeat the job again. So this algorithm is not really Lock-free but there is no memory lock in use, and other involved threads can wait (or not) certain time before overide the job of reposed thread. Added RingBuffer.InsertLeft function: function TgjRingBuffer.InsertLeft(const link: pointer): integer; var AtStartReference: cardinal; CPUTimeStamp : int64; CurrentLeft : pointer; CurrentReference: cardinal; NewLeft : PReferencedPtr; Reference : cardinal; label TryAgain; begin Reference := GetThreadId + 1; //Reference.bit0 := 1 with rbRingBuffer^ do begin TryAgain: //Set Left.Reference with respect to all other cores :) CPUTimeStamp := GetCPUTimeStamp + LoopTicks; AtStartReference := Left.Reference OR 1; //Reference.bit0 := 1 repeat CurrentReference := Left.Reference; until (CurrentReference AND 1 = 0)or (GetCPUTimeStamp - CPUTimeStamp > 0); //No threads present in ring buffer or current thread timeout if ((CurrentReference AND 1 <> 0) and (AtStartReference <> CurrentReference)) or not CAS32(CurrentReference, Reference, Left.Reference) then goto TryAgain; //Calculate RingBuffer NewLeft address CurrentLeft := Left.Link; NewLeft := pointer(cardinal(CurrentLeft) - SizeOf(TReferencedPtr)); if cardinal(NewLeft) < cardinal(@Buffer) then NewLeft := EndBuffer; //Calcolate distance result := integer(Right.Link) - Integer(NewLeft); //Check buffer full if result = 0 then //Clear Reference if task still own reference if CAS32(Reference, 0, Left.Reference) then Exit else goto TryAgain; //Set NewLeft.Reference NewLeft^.Reference := Reference; SFence; //Try to set link and try to exchange NewLeft and clear Reference if task own reference if (Reference <> Left.Reference) or not CAS64(NewLeft^.Link, Reference, link, Reference, NewLeft^) or not CAS64(CurrentLeft, Reference, NewLeft, 0, Left) then goto TryAgain; //Calcolate result if result < 0 then result := Length - integer(cardinal(not Result) div SizeOf(TReferencedPtr)) else result := cardinal(result) div SizeOf(TReferencedPtr); end; //with end; { TgjRingBuffer.InsertLeft } RingBuffer unit you can find here: RingBuffer, CAS functions: FockFreePrimitives, and test program: RingBufferFlowTest Thanks in advance, GJ

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  • How to write this JavaScript code without eval?

    - by karlthorwald
    How to write this JavaScript code without eval? var typeOfString = eval("typeof " + that.modules[modName].varName); if (typeOfString !== "undefined") { doSomething(); } The point is that the name of the var that I want to check for is in a string. Maybe it is simple but I don't know how. Edit: Thank you for the very interesting answers so far. I will follow your suggestions and integrate this into my code and do some testing and report. Could take a while. Edit2: I had another look at the could and maybe itis better I show you a bigger picture. I am greatful for the experts to explain so beautiful, it is better with more code: MYNAMESPACE.Loader = ( function() { function C() { this.modules = {}; this.required = {}; this.waitCount = 0; this.appendUrl = ''; this.docHead = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; } function insert() { var that = this; //insert all script tags to the head now! //loop over all modules: for (var modName in this.required) { if(this.required.hasOwnProperty(modName)){ if (this.required[modName] === 'required') { this.required[modName] = 'loading'; this.waitCount = this.waitCount + 1; this.insertModule(modName); } } } //now poll until everything is loaded or //until timout this.intervalId = 0; var checkFunction = function() { if (that.waitCount === 0) { clearInterval(that.intervalId); that.onSuccess(); return; } for (var modName in that.required) { if(that.required.hasOwnProperty(modName)){ if (that.required[modName] === 'loading') { var typeOfString = eval("typeof " + that.modules[modName].varName); if (typeOfString !== "undefined") { //module is loaded! that.required[modName] = 'ok'; that.waitCount = that.waitCount - 1; if (that.waitCount === 0) { clearInterval(that.intervalId); that.onSuccess(); return; } } } } } }; //execute the function twice a second to check if all is loaded: this.intervalId = setInterval(checkFunction, 500); //further execution will be in checkFunction, //so nothing left to do here } C.prototype.insert = insert; //there are more functions here... return C; }()); var myLoader = new MYNAMESPACE.Loader(); //some more lines here... myLoader.insert();

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  • How can I get image data from QTKit without color or gamma correction in Snow Leopard?

    - by Nick Haddad
    Since Snow Leopard, QTKit is now returning color corrected image data from functions like QTMovies frameImageAtTime:withAttributes:error:. Given an uncompressed AVI file, the same image data is displayed with larger pixel values in Snow Leopard vs. Leopard. Currently I'm using frameImageAtTime to get an NSImage, then ask for the tiffRepresentation of that image. After doing this, pixel values are slightly higher in Snow Leopard. For example, a file with the following pixel value in Leopard: [0 180 0] Now has a pixel value like: [0 192 0] Is there any way to ask a QTMovie for video frames that are not color corrected? Should I be asking for a CGImageRef, CIImage, or CVPixelBufferRef instead? Is there a way to disable color correction altogether prior to reading in the video files? I've attempted to work around this issue by drawing into a NSBitmapImageRep with the NSCalibratedColroSpace, but that only gets my part of the way there: // Create a movie NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys : nsFileName, QTMovieFileNameAttribute, [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO], QTMovieOpenAsyncOKAttribute, [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO], QTMovieLoopsAttribute, [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO], QTMovieLoopsBackAndForthAttribute, (id)nil]; _theMovie = [[QTMovie alloc] initWithAttributes:dict error:&error]; // .... NSMutableDictionary *imageAttributes = [NSMutableDictionary dictionary]; [imageAttributes setObject:QTMovieFrameImageTypeNSImage forKey:QTMovieFrameImageType]; [imageAttributes setObject:[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"NSBitmapImageRep"] forKey: QTMovieFrameImageRepresentationsType]; [imageAttributes setObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:QTMovieFrameImageHighQuality]; NSError* err = nil; NSImage* image = (NSImage*)[_theMovie frameImageAtTime:frameTime withAttributes:imageAttributes error:&err]; // copy NSImage into an NSBitmapImageRep (Objective-C) NSBitmapImageRep* bitmap = [[image representations] objectAtIndex:0]; // Draw into a colorspace we know about NSBitmapImageRep *bitmapWhoseFormatIKnow = [[NSBitmapImageRep alloc] initWithBitmapDataPlanes:NULL pixelsWide:getWidth() pixelsHigh:getHeight() bitsPerSample:8 samplesPerPixel:4 hasAlpha:YES isPlanar:NO colorSpaceName:NSCalibratedRGBColorSpace bitmapFormat:0 bytesPerRow:(getWidth() * 4) bitsPerPixel:32]; [NSGraphicsContext saveGraphicsState]; [NSGraphicsContext setCurrentContext:[NSGraphicsContext graphicsContextWithBitmapImageRep:bitmapWhoseFormatIKnow]]; [bitmap draw]; [NSGraphicsContext restoreGraphicsState]; This does convert back to a 'Non color corrected' colorspace, but the color values NOT are exactly the same as what is stored in the Uncompressed AVI files we are testing with. Also this is much less efficient because it is converting from RGB - "Device RGB" - RGB. Also, I am working in a 64-bit application, so dropping down to the Quicktime-C API is not an option. Thanks for your help.

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  • How to make a table, which is wider than screen size, scrollable and keep header row fixed?

    - by understack
    I've a table with 2 columns and each column is 800px wide. I want to show this table in 800x50 window. So there should be horizontal and vertical scrollbar to view complete table. While I've found few related solutions (this and this) on SO, they only work if table width is smaller than screen size. In my case screen size is 1200px and total table width is 1600px. How could I do this? i want to achieve something like this. EDIT Oops, I forgot to add one more requirement. Sorry. I want the header of the table to remain fixed while user scrolls table. EDIT2 I've tried below mentioned solutions to wrap in a div, but in this case vertical scrollbar doesn't show up. Please see this table with wrapper div. It seems this problem only occurs if table width is bigger than screen size. I'm testing on FF3.6. EDIT3 current table code: <div style="overflow:scroll; width:800px;height:50px" > <table style="width:1600px" border="1"> <thead> <tr> <th style="width:800px">id_1</th> <th style="width:800px">id_1</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody style=""> <tr><td>1200</td><td>1200</td></tr> <tr><td>1200</td><td>1200</td></tr> <tr><td>1200</td><td>1200</td></tr> <tr><td>1200</td><td>1200</td></tr> <tr><td>1200</td><td>1200</td></tr> <tr><td>1200</td><td>1200</td></tr> </tbody> </table> </div>

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  • XNA: Load and read a XML file?

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having difficulty doing this seemingly simple task. I want to load XML files with the same ease of loading art assets: content = new ContentManager(Services); content.RootDirectory = "Content"; background = content.Load<Texture2D>("images\\ice"); I'm not sure how to do this. This tutorial seems helpful, but how do I get a StorageDevice instance? I do have something working now, but it feels pretty hacky: public IDictionary<string, string> Get(string typeName) { IDictionary<String, String> result = new Dictionary<String, String>(); xmlReader.Read(); // get past the XML declaration string element = null; string text = null; while (xmlReader.Read()) { switch (xmlReader.NodeType) { case XmlNodeType.Element: element = xmlReader.Name; break; case XmlNodeType.Text: text = xmlReader.Value; break; } if (text != null && element != null) { result[element] = text; text = null; element = null; } } return result; } I apply this to the following XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <zombies> <zombie> <health>100</health> <positionX>23</positionX> <positionY>12</positionY> <speed>2</speed> </zombie> </zombies> And it is able to pass this unit test: internal virtual IPersistentState CreateIPersistentState(string fullpath) { IPersistentState target = new ReadWriteXML(File.Open(fullpath, FileMode.Open)); return target; } /// <summary> ///A test for Get with one zombie. ///</summary> //[TestMethod()] public void SimpleGetTest() { string fullPath = "C:\\pathTo\\Data\\SavedZombies.xml"; IPersistentState target = CreateIPersistentState(fullPath); string typeName = "zombie"; IDictionary<string, string> expected = new Dictionary<string, string>(); expected["health"] = "100"; expected["positionX"] = "23"; expected["positionY"] = "12"; expected["speed"] = "2"; IDictionary<string, string> actual = target.Get(typeName); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> entry in expected) { Assert.AreEqual(entry.Value, expected[entry.Key]); } } Downsides to the current approach: file loading is done poorly, and matching keys to values seems like it's way more effort than necessary. Also, I suspect this approach would fall apart with more than one entry in the XML.

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  • Experienced developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • Hotmail SMTP not working with javamail

    - by yashdosi
    I am trying to write a simple Java program to send emails from my hotmail account using JavaMail API. Here is my code : import java.util.Properties; import javax.mail.Message; import javax.mail.MessagingException; import javax.mail.PasswordAuthentication; import javax.mail.Session; import javax.mail.Transport; import javax.mail.internet.InternetAddress; import javax.mail.internet.MimeMessage; public class HotMailSend { public static void main(String args[]) { final String username = HOTMAIL.username; final String password = HOTMAIL.password; Properties props = new Properties(); props.setProperty("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.setProperty("mail.smtp.starttls.enable", "true"); props.setProperty("mail.smtp.host", "smtp.live.com"); props.setProperty("mail.smtp.port", "587"); Session session = Session.getInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication(username, password); } }); try { Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress(HOTMAIL.username)); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, InternetAddress.parse(GMAIL.username)); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Hey Buddy..!!!," + "\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); System.out.println("Done"); } catch (MessagingException e) { throw new RuntimeException(e); } } } And here is the error I am getting : Exception in thread "main" java.lang.RuntimeException: javax.mail.MessagingException: Can't send command to SMTP host; nested exception is: java.net.SocketException: Connection closed by remote host at HotMailSend.main(HotMailSend.java:45) Caused by: javax.mail.MessagingException: Can't send command to SMTP host; nested exception is: java.net.SocketException: Connection closed by remote host at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.sendCommand(SMTPTransport.java:2163) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.sendCommand(SMTPTransport.java:2150) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.close(SMTPTransport.java:1220) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:197) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at HotMailSend.main(HotMailSend.java:40) Caused by: java.net.SocketException: Connection closed by remote host at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.checkWrite(SSLSocketImpl.java:1307) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.AppOutputStream.write(AppOutputStream.java:43) at com.sun.mail.util.TraceOutputStream.write(TraceOutputStream.java:114) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.flushBuffer(BufferedOutputStream.java:65) at java.io.BufferedOutputStream.flush(BufferedOutputStream.java:123) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.sendCommand(SMTPTransport.java:2161) ... 5 more

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  • javascript problems when generating html reports from within java

    - by posdef
    Hi, I have been working on a Java project in which the reports will be generated in HTML, so I am implementing methods for creating these reports. One important functionality is to be able to have as much info as possible in the tables, but still not clutter too much. In other words the details should be available if the user wishes to take a look at them but not necessarily visible by default. I have done some searching and testing and found an interesting template for hiding/showing content with the use of CSS and javascript, the problem is that when I try the resultant html page the scripts dont work. I am not sure if it's due a problem in Java or in the javascript itself. I have compared the html code that java produces to the source where I found the template, they seem to match pretty well. Below are bits of my java code that generates the javascript and the content, i would greatly appreciate if anyone can point out the possible reasons for this problem: //goes to head private void addShowHideScript() throws IOException{ StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"JavaScript\">\n"); sb.append("<!--function HideContent(d) {\n"); sb.append("document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"none\";}\n"); sb.append("function ShowContent(d) {\n"); sb.append("document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"block\";}\n"); sb.append("function ReverseDisplay(d) {\n"); sb.append("if(document.getElementById(d).style.display==\"none\")\n"); sb.append("{ document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"block\"; }\n"); sb.append("else { document.getElementById(d).style.display=\"none\"; }\n}\n"); sb.append("//--></script>\n"); out.write(sb.toString()); out.newLine(); } // body private String linkShowHideContent(String pathname, String divname){ StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append("<a href=\"javascript:ReverseDisplay('"); sb.append(divname); sb.append("')\">"); sb.append(pathname); sb.append("</a>"); return sb.toString(); } // content out.write(linkShowHideContent("hidden content", "ex")); out.write("<div id=\"ex\" style=\"display:block;\">"); out.write("<p>Content goes here.</p></div>");

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  • Variable sized packet structs with vectors

    - by Rev316
    Lately I've been diving into network programming, and I'm having some difficulty constructing a packet with a variable "data" property. Several prior questions have helped tremendously, but I'm still lacking some implementation details. I'm trying to avoid using variable sized arrays, and just use a vector. But I can't get it to be transmitted correctly, and I believe it's somewhere during serialization. Now for some code. Packet Header class Packet { public: void* Serialize(); bool Deserialize(void *message); unsigned int sender_id; unsigned int sequence_number; std::vector<char> data; }; Packet ImpL typedef struct { unsigned int sender_id; unsigned int sequence_number; std::vector<char> data; } Packet; void* Packet::Serialize(int size) { Packet* p = (Packet *) malloc(8 + 30); p->sender_id = htonl(this->sender_id); p->sequence_number = htonl(this->sequence_number); p->data.assign(size,'&'); //just for testing purposes } bool Packet::Deserialize(void *message) { Packet *s = (Packet*)message; this->sender_id = ntohl(s->sender_id); this->sequence_number = ntohl(s->sequence_number); this->data = s->data; } During execution, I simply create a packet, assign it's members, and send/receive accordingly. The above methods are only responsible for serialization. Unfortunately, the data never gets transferred. Couple of things to point out here. I'm guessing the malloc is wrong, but I'm not sure how else to compute it (i.e. what other value it would be). Other than that, I'm unsure of the proper way to use a vector in this fashion, and would love for someone to show me how (code examples please!) :) Edit: I've awarded the question to the most comprehensive answer regarding the implementation with a vector data property. Appreciate all the responses!

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  • JDBC CommunicationsException with MySQL Database

    - by Dominik Siebel
    I'm having a little trouble with my MySQL- Connection- Pooling. This is the case: Different jobs are scheduled via Quartz. All jobs connect to different databases which works fine the whole day while the nightly scheduled jobs fail with a CommunicationsException... Quartz-Jobs: Job1 runs 0 0 6,10,14,18 * * ? Job2 runs 0 30 10,18 * * ? Job3 runs 0 0 5 * * ? As you can see the last job runs at 18 taking about 1 hour to run. The first job at 5am is the one that fails. I already tried all kinds of parameter-combinations in my resource config this is the one I am running right now: <!-- Database 1 (MySQL) --> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="100" maxIdle="30" maxWait="10000" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" type="javax.sql.DataSource" name="jdbc/appDbProd" username="****" password="****" url="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/appDbProd?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> <!-- Database 2 (MySQL) --> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="100" maxIdle="30" maxWait="10000" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" type="javax.sql.DataSource" name="jdbc/prodDbCopy" username="****" password="****" url="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/prodDbCopy?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> <!-- Database 3 (MSSQL)--> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="30" maxIdle="30" maxWait="100" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" name="jdbc/catalogDb" username="****" password="****" type="javax.sql.DataSource" url="jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://127.0.0.1:1433;databaseName=catalog;useNdTLMv2=false" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> For obvious reasons I changed IPs, Usernames and Passwords but they can be assumed to be correct, seeing that the application runs successfully the whole day. The most annoying thing is: The first job that runs first queries Database2 successfully but fails to query Database1 for some reason (CommunicationsException): Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: The last packet successfully received from the server was 39,376,539 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 39,376,539 milliseconds ago. is longer than the server configured value of 'wait_timeout'. You should consider either expiring and/or testing connection validity before use in your application, increasing the server configured values for client timeouts, or using the Connector/J connection property 'autoReconnect=true' to avoid this problem. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Optimizing mathematics on arrays of floats in Ada 95 with GNAT

    - by mat_geek
    Consider the bellow code. This code is supposed to be processing data at a fixed rate, in one second batches, It is part of an overal system and can't take up too much time. When running over 100 lots of 1 seconds worth of data the program takes 35 seconds (or 35%), executing this function in a loop. The test loop is timed specifically with Ada.RealTime. The data is pregenerated so the majority of the execution time is definatetly in this loop. How do I improce the code to get the processing time down to a minimum? The code will be running on an Intel Pentium-M which is a P3 with SSE2. package FF is new Ada.Numerics.Generic_Elementary_Functions(Float); N : constant Integer := 820; type A is array(1 .. N) of Float; type A3 is array(1 .. 3) of A; procedure F(state : in out A3; result : out A3; l : in A; r : in A) is s : Float; t : Float; begin for i in 1 .. N loop t := l(i) + r(i); t := t / 2.0; state(1)(i) := t; state(2)(i) := t * 0.25 + state(2)(i) * 0.75; state(3)(i) := t * 1.0 /64.0 + state(2)(i) * 63.0 /64.0; for r in 1 .. 3 loop s := state(r)(i); t := FF."**"(s, 6.0) + 14.0; if t > MAX then t := MAX; elsif t < MIN then t := MIN; end if; result(r)(i) := FF.Log(t, 2.0); end loop; end loop; end; psuedocode for testing create two arrays of 80 random A3 arrays, called ls and rs; init the state and result A3 array record the realtime time now, called last for i in 1 .. 100 loop for j in 1 .. 80 loop F(state, result, ls(j), rs(j)); end loop; end loop; record the realtime time now, called curr output the duration between curr and last

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  • How to write specs with MSpec for code that changes Thread.CurrentPrincipal?

    - by Dan Jensen
    I've been converting some old specs to MSpec (were using NUnit/SpecUnit). The specs are for a view model, and the view model in question does some custom security checking. We have a helper method in our specs which will setup fake security credentials for the Thread.CurrentPrincipal. This worked fine in the old unit tests, but fails in MSpec. Specifically, I'm getting this exception: "System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException: Type is not resolved for member" It happens when part of the SUT tries to read the app config file. If I comment out the line which sets the CurrentPrincipal (or simply call it after the part that checks the config file), the error goes away, but the tests fail due to lack of credentials. Similarly, if I set the CurrentPrincipal to null, the error goes away, but again the tests fail because the credentials aren't set. I've googled this, and found some posts about making sure the custom principal is serializable when it crosses AppDomain boundaries (usually in reference to web apps). In our case, this is not a web app, and I'm not crossing any AppDomains. Our pincipal object is also serializable. I downloaded the source for MSpec, and found that the ConsoleRunner calls a class named AppDomainRunner. I haven't debugged into it, but it looks like it's running the specs in different app domains. So does anyone have any ideas on how I can overcome this? I really like MSpec, and would love to use it exclusively. But I need to be able to supply fake security credentials while running the tests. Thanks! Update: here's the spec class: [Subject(typeof(CountryPickerViewModel))] public class When_the_user_makes_a_selection : PickerViewModelSpecsBase { protected static CountryPickerViewModel picker; Establish context = () => { SetupFakeSecurityCredentials(); CreateFactoryStubs(); StubLookupServicer<ICountryLookupServicer>() .WithData(BuildActiveItems(new [] { "USA", "UK" })); picker = new CountryPickerViewModel(ViewFactory, ViewModelFactory, BusinessLogicFactory, CacheFactory); }; Because of = () => picker.SelectedItem = picker.Items[0]; Behaves_like<Picker_that_has_a_selected_item> a_picker_with_a_selection; } We have a number of these "picker" view models, all of which exhibit some common behavior. So I'm using the Behaviors feature of MSpec. This particular class is simulating the user selecting something from the (WPF) control which is bound to this VM. The SetupFakeSecurityCredentials() method is simply setting Thread.CurrentPrincipal to an instance of our custom principal, where the prinipal has been populated will full-access rights. Here's a fake CountryPickerViewModel which is enough to cause the error: public class CountryPickerViewModel { public CountryPickerViewModel(IViewFactory viewFactory, IViewModelFactory viewModelFactory, ICoreBusinessLogicFactory businessLogicFactory, ICacheFactory cacheFactory) { Items = new Collection<int>(); var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator<object>(); } public int SelectedItem { get; set; } public Collection<int> Items { get; private set; } } It's the ValidationFactory call which blows up. ValidationFactory is an Enterprise Library object, which tries to access the config.

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  • Fluent NHibernate Many to one mapping

    - by Jit
    I am creating a NHibenate application with one to many relationship. Like City and State data. City table CREATE TABLE [dbo].[State]( [StateId] [varchar](2) NOT NULL primary key, [StateName] [varchar](20) NULL) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[City]( [Id] [int] primary key IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL , [State_id] [varchar](2) NULL refrences State(StateId), [CityName] [varchar](50) NULL) My mapping is follows public CityMapping() { Id(x = x.Id); Map(x = x.State_id); Map(x = x.CityName); HasMany(x = x.EmployeePreferedLocations) .Inverse() .Cascade.SaveUpdate() ; References(x = x.State) //.Cascade.All(); //.Class(typeof(State)) //.Not.Nullable() .Cascade.None() .Column("State_id") ; } public StateMapping() { Id(x => x.StateId) .GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.StateName); HasMany(x => x.Jobs) .Inverse(); //.Cascade.SaveUpdate(); HasMany(x => x.EmployeePreferedLocations) .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.Cities) // .Inverse() .Cascade.SaveUpdate() //.Not.LazyLoad() ; } Models are as follows: [Serializable] public partial class City { public virtual System.String CityName { get; set; } public virtual System.Int32 Id { get; set; } public virtual System.String State_id { get; set; } public virtual IList<EmployeePreferedLocation> EmployeePreferedLocations { get; set; } public virtual JobPortal.Data.Domain.Model.State State { get; set; } public City(){} } public partial class State { public virtual System.String StateId { get; set; } public virtual System.String StateName { get; set; } public virtual IList<City> Cities { get; set; } public virtual IList<EmployeePreferedLocation> EmployeePreferedLocations { get; set; } public virtual IList<Job> Jobs { get; set; } public State() { Cities = new List<City>(); EmployeePreferedLocations = new List<EmployeePreferedLocation>(); Jobs = new List<Job>(); } //public virtual void AddCity(City city) //{ // city.State = this; // Cities.Add(city); //} } My Unit Testing code is below. City city = new City(); IRepository<State> rState = new Repository<State>(); Dictionary<string, string> critetia = new Dictionary<string, string>(); critetia.Add("StateId", "TX"); State frState = rState.GetByCriteria(critetia); city.CityName = "Waco"; city.State = frState; IRepository<City> rCity = new Repository<City>(); rCity.SaveOrUpdate(city); City frCity = rCity.GetById(city.Id); The problem is , I am not able to insert record. The error is below. "Invalid index 2 for this SqlParameterCollection with Count=2." But the error will not come if I comment State_id mapping field in the CityMapping file. I donot know what mistake is I did. If do not give the mapping Map(x = x.State_id); the value of this field is null, which is desired. Please help me how to solve this issue.

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  • Prevent SQL Injection in Dynamic column names

    - by Mr Shoubs
    I can't get away without writing some dynamic sql conditions in a part of my system (using Postgres). My question is how best to avoid SQL Injection with the method I am currently using. EDIT (Reasoning): There are many of columns in a number of tables (a number which grows (only) and is maintained elsewhere). I need a method of allowing the user to decide which (predefined) column they want to query (and if necessary apply string functions to). The query itself is far too complex for the user to write themselves, nor do they have access to the db. There are 1000's of users with varying requirements and I need to remain as flexible as possible - I shouldn't have to revisit the code unless the main query needs to change - Also, there is no way of knowing what conditions the user will need to use. I have objects (received via web service) that generates a condition (the generation method is below - it isn't perfect yet) for some large sql queries. The _FieldName is user editable (parameter name was, but it didn't need to be) and I am worried it could be an attack vector. I put double quotes (see quoted identifier) around the field name in an attempt to sanitize the string, this way it can never be a key word. I could also look up the field name against a list of fields, but it would be difficult to maintain on a timely basis. Unfortunately the user must enter the condition criteria, I am sure there must be more I can add to the sanatize method? and does quoting the column name make it safe? (my limited testing seems to think so). an example built condition would be "AND upper(brandloaded.make) like 'O%' and upper(brandloaded.make) not like 'OTHERBRAND'" ... Any help or suggestions are appreciated. Public Function GetCondition() As String Dim sb As New Text.StringBuilder 'put quote around the table name in an attempt to prevent some sql injection 'http://www.postgresql.org/docs/8.2/static/sql-syntax-lexical.html sb.AppendFormat(" {0} ""{1}"" ", _LogicOperator.ToString, _FieldName) Select Case _ConditionOperator Case ConditionOperatorOptions.Equals sb.Append(" = ") ... End Select sb.AppendFormat(" {0} ", Me.UniqueParameterName) 'for parameter Return Me.Sanitize(sb) End Function Private Function Sanitize(ByVal sb As Text.StringBuilder) As String 'compare against a similar blacklist mentioned here: http://forums.asp.net/t/1254125.aspx sb.Replace(";", "") sb.Replace("'", "") sb.Replace("\", "") sb.Replace(Chr(8), "") Return sb.ToString End Function Public ReadOnly Property UniqueParameterName() As String Get Return String.Concat(":" _UniqueIdentifier) End Get End Property

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  • Impersonation on Windows 2000 to Windows XP Leaves Connections Open

    - by Tallek
    I'm running on a Windows 2000 Pro SP4 box (off domain) and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box (on domain). I'm using code very similar to the WindowsImpersonationContextFacade in the question posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/879704/how-can-i-temporarily-impersonate-a-user-to-open-a-file. I am using impersonation to remotely start and stop windows services as well as access network shares (for some automated integration tests). To get this working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. Everything worked beautifully ( Windows XP on domain to Windows XP on domain, Windows XP on domain to Windows Server 2003 off domain, and even Windows XP on domain to Windows 2000 off domain). The one issue was running on Windows 2000 Pro SP4 off the domain and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box running on the domain. To get the Windows 2000 piece working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50 and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. This seemed to get me 95% of the way there, i could now impersonate the local user on the XP box and start/stop services as well as access a network share using the impersonated credentials. I'm running in to one problem though, calling Undo impersonation and closing the token handle seems to leave the connection to the remote box open. After about 10 or so impersonation calls, further impersonation attempts will fail with an error saying something about too many connections are currently open. If i look at the Computer Management - System Tools - Shared Folders - Sessions on my remote Windows XP box, i can see about 10 sessions open to the Windows 2000 box. I can manually close these (i think they may eventually close themselves, but not very quickly) and then impersonation begins working again few more times. This open session issue doesn't seem to be a problem in any of my other test scenarios, just when running locally on a Windows 2000 box. Any ideas? Edit 1: After some more testing and trying out many different things, this seems to be an issue with open sessions not being reused. On Windows 2000 only, every call to LogonUser to get a token and then using that token to impersonate seems to result in a new session being created. I'm guessing Windows XP & Windows Server 2003 are reusing open sessions since i don't seem to be having any issues with them. If I call LogonUser once, then cache the token, I seem to be able to make as many calls to impersonate as I need using the cached token without running in to the "too many connections" issue. This seems like an ugly work around though since i can't call CloseHandle() on my token every time i perform impersonation. Anybody have any thoughts or ideas, or am i stuck with this ugly hack? Thanks

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  • Android - Start service on boot

    - by Gady
    From everything I've seen on Stack Exchange and elsewhere, I have everything set up correctly to start an IntentService when Android OS boots. Unfortunately it is not starting on boot, and I'm not getting any errors. Maybe the experts can help... Manifest: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.phx.batterylogger" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" android:installLocation="internalOnly"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="8" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.RECEIVE_BOOT_COMPLETED" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.BATTERY_STATS" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <service android:name=".BatteryLogger"/> <receiver android:name=".StartupIntentReceiver"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.BOOT_COMPLETED" /> </intent-filter> </receiver> </application> </manifest> BroadcastReceiver for Startup: package com.phx.batterylogger; import android.content.BroadcastReceiver; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; public class StartupIntentReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Intent serviceIntent = new Intent(context, BatteryLogger.class); context.startService(serviceIntent); } } UPDATE: I tried just about all of the suggestions below, and I added logging such as Log.v("BatteryLogger", "Got to onReceive, about to start service"); to the onReceive handler of the StartupIntentReceiver, and nothing is ever logged. So it isn't even making it to the BroadcastReceiver. I think I'm deploying the APK and testing correctly, just running Debug in Eclipse and the console says it successfully installs it to my Xoom tablet at \BatteryLogger\bin\BatteryLogger.apk. Then to test, I reboot the tablet and then look at the logs in DDMS and check the Running Services in the OS settings. Does this all sound correct, or am I missing something? Again, any help is much appreciated.

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  • How to delete multiple files with msbuild/web deployment project?

    - by Alex
    I have an odd issue with how msbuild is behaving with a VS2008 Web Deployment Project and would like to know why it seems to randomly misbehave. I need to remove a number of files from a deployment folder that should only exist in my development environment. The files have been generated by the web application during dev/testing and are not included in my Visual Studio project/solution. The configuration I am using is as follows: <!-- Partial extract from Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Web Deployment Project --> <ItemGroup> <DeleteAfterBuild Include="$(OutputPath)data\errors\*.xml" /> <!-- Folder 1: 36 files --> <DeleteAfterBuild Include="$(OutputPath)data\logos\*.*" /> <!-- Folder 2: 2 files --> <DeleteAfterBuild Include="$(OutputPath)banners\*.*" /> <!-- Folder 3: 1 file --> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="AfterBuild"> <Message Text="------ AfterBuild process starting ------" Importance="high" /> <Delete Files="@(DeleteAfterBuild)"> <Output TaskParameter="DeletedFiles" PropertyName="deleted" /> </Delete> <Message Text="DELETED FILES: $(deleted)" Importance="high" /> <Message Text="------ AfterBuild process complete ------" Importance="high" /> </Target> The problem I have is that when I do a build/rebuild of the Web Deployment Project it "sometimes" removes all the files but other times it will not remove anything! Or it will remove only one or two of the three folders in the DeleteAfterBuild item group. There seems to be no consistency in when the build process decides to remove the files or not. When I've edited the configuration to include only Folder 1 (for example), it removes all the files correctly. Then adding Folder 2 and 3, it starts removing all the files as I want. Then, seeming at random times, I'll rebuild the project and it won't remove any of the files! I have tried moving these items to the ExcludeFromBuild item group (which is probably where it should be) but it gives me the same unpredictable result. Has anyone experienced this? Am I doing something wrong? Why does this happen?

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  • Delphi LoadLibrary Failing to find DLL other directory - any good options?

    - by Chris Thornton
    Two Delphi programs need to load foo.dll, which contains some code that injects a client-auth certificate into a SOAP request. foo.dll resides in c:\fooapp\foo.dll and is normally loaded by c:\fooapp\foo.exe. That works fine. The other program needs the same functionality, but it resides in c:\program files\unwantedstepchild\sadapp.exe. Both aps load the DLL with this code: FOOLib := LoadLibrary('foo.dll'); ... If FOOLib <> 0 then begin FOOProc := GetProcAddress(FOOLib , 'xInjectCert'); FOOProc(myHttpRequest, Data, CertName); end; It works great for foo.exe, as the dll is right there. sadapp.exe fails to load the library, so FOOLib is 0, and the rest never gets called. The sadapp.exe program therefore silently fails to inject the cert, and when we test against production, it the cert is missing, do the connection fails. Obviously, we should have fully-qualified the path to the DLL. Without going into a lot of details, there were aspects of the testing that masked this problem until recently, and now it's basically too late to fix in code, as that would require a full regression test, and there isn't time for that. Since we've painted ourselves into a corner, I need to know if there are any options that I've overlooked. While we can't change the code (for this release), we CAN tweak the installer. I've found that placing c:\fooapp into the path works. As does adding a second copy of foo.dll directly into c:\program files\unwantedstepchild. c:\fooapp\foo.exe will always be running while sadapp.exe is running, so I was hoping that Windows would find it that way, but apparently not. Is there a way to tell Windows that I really want that same DLL? Maybe a manifest or something? This is the sort of "magic bullet" that I'm looking for. I know I can: Modify the windows path, probably in the installer. That's ugly. Add a second copy of the DLL, directly into the unwantedstepchild folder. Also ugly Delay the project while we code and test a proper fix. Unacceptable. Other? Thanks for any guidance, especially with "Other". I understand that this issue is not necessarily specific to Delphi. Thanks!

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