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• How do I batch-downsize images on linux, while keeping small images small?

  - by Gabriel

  I have a whole lot of photos and it's time to clean up the mess and free some disk space. I know mogrify is great to batch-resize things down. The problem is, in some directories I have small images mixed with the big ones. I'd like to batch-downsize all the big one but not upsize the small ones. As an example, I have a rep with tens of MBs-pictures in the 3000x2000s. Some of them I have already downsized so I could email them. They may be 1024x768. I'd like to downsize the big ones to 1600x1200, a disk-space-to-quality tradeoff I like. But then, with mogrify or convert, the small ones will be upsized, which would be a waste of disk space. I found some tricky ways to use identify with cut and some scripting to filter the small pics out and mogrify the others, but man, there's got a way to tell mogrify not to upsize my pics... How ? Is there some other tool better suited ?

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• Is there a better way to do bonded vlan tagged interfaces with XEN

  - by AJ01

  We have a number of XEN servers all running CentOS or RHEL. The VM's that they run are all required to be on their own VLAN for no other reason than the customer expects them to be. Long story short however, I can't change this right now. We are also required to have bonding enabled on the interfaces. So to accommodat this we enslave eth1 and eth2 to bond0. We then create a seperate interface called bond0.VLANID where VLANID corresponds to the correct vlan; eg ifcfg-bond0.204 DEVICE=bond0.204 BOOTPROTO=static ONBOOT=yes VLAN=yes BRIDGE=xenvlan204 Bridge to XEN As you will see, we eventually have to bridge this out to XEN, and we do this by adding another interface called xenvlan204 (in this instance) which contains; ifcfg-xenvlan204 DEVICE=xenvlan204 BOOTPROTO=none ONBOOT=yes TYPE=bridge XEN Vm Config Finally in our XEN config for each VM, we add vif = [ "bridge=xenvlan204" ] This then allows the vm host to access that particular vlan The Problem We've noticed a few problems with this setup. One being that we currently create the interfaces manually. Which means if we add more vlan enabled interfaces and bridges we usually have to restart xend which is something I'm not so hot about. Also lower level staff have their heads melted by the number of interfaces and the risk of a mistake occurring is high. Secondly, it can take sometime for a host to come up if it has a number of vlan taged interfaces. Thirdly, its just not scaling well on the management aspects The Question Is there a better more flexible way to do this (in particular with Xen that ships with centos 5.3, 5.4 and 5.5 as we have to support all three) that leverages either scripting or other solutions to allow an arbitrary amount of interfaces to be created when a vm is instanced. Your advise and expertise is more that welcomed.

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• What if you used the wrong language?

  - by HS

  A reply to another question made me remember a project from some years ago when it turned out that Java was not the right tool to use. I typically only learn a new language when I have a problem that it solves better than the ones I already know. [...] Then I write whatever program I wanted to learn that language for in the first place. [...] By the time I've gotten my target program written, I've usually got a decent handle on the language, not to mention any other features it has, and I've got other ideas to use it for. I did just that back then with Java, because the client thought it to be the right language to use (platform independent) and initial evaluation confirmed that. However, much later in the project there were some issue (can't really remember all the details by now). So, the project that started as a nice learning experience turned into a nightmare toward the end. I was at the brink of switching over to my trusted C++ and doing a complete rewrite. The client was not so much of a problem to convince back then, but my supervisor was strongly opposed because of all the work that already went into the Java version. In hindsight, he was right and the project was complete more or less with the intended features kind of working, but it was the project that I am least proud of by now. Long story short: what do you think, when is it too much and the switch to another technology is worthwhile? I personally would estimate the point of no return to be around 50% of the planned effort, but really want to know, if anyone has real experience with such a switch. And to answer the inevitable question: I do not really care, if the technology switched to is proven or another new thing. The latter would basically need more initial scrutiny based on the past experiences in the problematic project.

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• How to save timers with connection to OrderId?

  - by Adrian Serafin

  Hi! I have a system where clients can make orders. After making order they have 60 minutes to pay fot it before it will be deleted. On the server side when order is made i create timer and set elapsed time to 60 minutes System.Timer.Timers timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000*60*60); timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Elapsed += HandleElapsed; timer.Start(); Because I want to be able to dispose timer if client decides to pay and I want to be able to cancel order if he doesn't I keep two Dictionaries: Dictionary<int, Timer> _orderTimer; Dictionary<Timer, int> _timerOrder; Then when client pay's I can access Timer by orderId with O(1) thanks to _orderTimer dictionary and when time elapsed I can access order with O(1) thanks to _timerOrder dictionary. My question is: Is it good aproach? Assuming that max number of rows I have to keep in dictionary in one moment will be 50000? Maybe it would be better to derive from Timer class, add property called OrderId, keep it all in List and search for order/timer using linq? Or maybe you I should do this in different way?

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• Null reference exceptions in .net

  - by Carlo

  Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

  - by Sergey

  My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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• Run a script on user connection on the VM host

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I have a server running a Virtual Desktop Managed Pool, what I would like to do is when a user logs in I would like a script to check the number of available VMs and if below a threashold add additional VMs to the pool. The script to check the load and add to the pool is not the problem, I have that already figured out: $collectionName = "Test1"; $rdvh = "vmHost.example.com"; $minAvailableVMs = 2; Import-Module RemoteDesktop; $pool = Get-VirtualDesktopCollection -CollectionName $collectionName; $availableVMs = $pool.Size - ($pool.Size * $pool.PercentInUse / 100); $status = Get-VirtualDesktopCollectionJobStatus $collectionName #only add new servers if we are below the threashold and in the JOB_COMPLETEED state if($availableVMs -lt $minAvailableVMs -and $status.Status -eq [Microsoft.RemoteDesktopServices.Management.VirtualDesktopCollectionJobStatus]::JOB_COMPLETED) { Add-RDVirtualDesktopToCollection -CollectionName $collectionName -VirtualDesktopAllocation @{"$rdvh" = 1} } The problem I am having is, how do I run the above script on the Virtualization Host/Connection Broker/Some other server when a user connects?. I don't think it would be appropriate to run this as a logon script inside the VM, I think there is a way to do this on the management side but I don't know the new scripting interface in Server 2012 R2 well enough to know which commandlets I should look for to schedule this. EDIT: I know System Center is perfect for this but I do not have a license and was denied when I asked for it to be added to the budget.

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• Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

  - by David Griffiths

  I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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• Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts?

  - by Gerrit

  Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts? I own a desktop, laptop, iPod, smartphone and a web-client all downloading StackOverflow Podcasts. (among others) They all tell me which episodes are available and which are already played. Everything is a horrible mess, ofcourse. My iPod is somewhat in sync with my desktop, but everything else is a random jungle. The same problem with e-mail is solved by IMAP. Every device gets content and meta-information from one server, and stays in sync with it. Per device, I can set preferences (do or do not download the complete archive including junkmail). Can we implement the IMAP approach for podcasts? Or is there a better metaphore/standard to solve this problem? How will the adoption-strategy look like? (by the way: except for the Windows smartphone, I own a full Apple-stack of products. Even then, I run into this problem) UPDATE The RSS-to-Imap link to sourceforge looks promesting, but very alpha/experimental. UPDATE 2 The one thing RSS is missing is the command/method/parameter/attribute to delete/unread items. RSS can only add, not remove. If RSS(N+1) (3?) could add a value for unread="true|false", it would be solved. If I cache all my RSS-feeds on my own server, and add the attribute myself, I only would have to convince iTunes and every other client to respect that.

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• relative url in wcf service binding

  - by Jeremy

  I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

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• HttpUtility.HtmlEncode doesn't encode everything

  - by Anthony

  I am interacting with a web server using a desktop client program in C# and .Net 3.5. I am using Fiddler to see what traffic the web browser sends, and emulate that. Sadly this server is old, and is a bit confused about the notions of charsets and utf-8. Mostly it uses Latin-1. When I enter data into the Web browser containing "special" chars, like "O p ? 8 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?" fiddler show me that they are being transmitted as follows from browser to server: "&#9800; &#9801; &#9802; &#9803; &#9804; &#9805; &#9806; &#9807; &#9808; &#9809; &#9810; &#9811; " But for my client, HttpUtility.HtmlEncode does not convert these characters, it leaves them as is. What do I need to call to convert "?" to &#9800; and so on?

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• Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

  - by Ved

  Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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• Clickonce redirect

  - by David Hagan

  Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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• Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

  - by OUHSD Webmaster

  Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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• Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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• javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

  - by Bill Dawes

  Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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• Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

  - by codeka

  I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby: end of file reached (EOFError)

  - by Michael Conigliaro

  Hello, I have some very simple Ruby code that is attempting to do XML-RPC over SSL: require 'xmlrpc/client' require 'pp' server = XMLRPC::Client.new2("https://%s:%d/" % [ 'api.ultradns.net', 8755 ]) pp server.call2('UDNS_OpenConnection', 'sponsor', 'username', 'password') The problem is that it always results in the following EOFError exception: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:135:in `sysread': end of file reached (EOFError) So it appears that after doing the POST, I don't get anything back. Interestingly, this is the behavior I would expect if I tried to make an HTTP connection on the HTTPS port (or visa versa), and I actually do get the same exact exception if I change the protocol. Everything I've looked at indicates that using "https://" in the URL is enough to enable SSL, but I'm starting wonder if I've missed something. Note that Even though the credentials I'm using in the RPC are made up, I'm expecting to at least get back an XML error page (similar to if you access https://api.ultradns.net:8755/ with a web browser). I've tried running this code on OSX and Linux with the exact same result, so I have to conclude that I'm just doing something wrong here. Does anyone have any examples of doing XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby?

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• 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

  - by BlazingFrog

  I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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• Pump Messages During Long Operations + C# (it is urgent)

  - by Newbie

  Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? It is very urgent. Thanks

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• Work around for MessageNotReadableException in Java

  - by Hari

  Hi, I am building a small api around the JMS API for a project of mine. Essentially, we are building code that will handle the connection logic, and will simplify publishing messages by providing a method like Client.send(String message). One of the ideas being discussed right now is that we provide a means for the users to attach interceptors to this client. We will apply the interceptors after preparing the JMS message and before publishing it. For example, if we want to timestamp a message and wrote an interceptor for that, then this is how we would apply that ...some code ... Message message = session.createMessage() ..do all the current processing on the message and set the body for(interceptor:listOfInterceptors){ interceptor.apply(message) } One of the intrerceptors we though of was to compress the message body. But when we try to read the body of the message in the interceptor, we are getting a MessageNotReadableException. In the past, I normally compressed the content before setting it as the body of the message - so never had to worry about this exception. Is there any way of getting around this exception?

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• How to use JQuery Validate to create a popup with all form error when the submit button is clicked?

  - by Larry

  I am using the JQuery Validation plugin for client side form validation. In addition to the colorful styling on invalid form fields, my client requires that a popup message be shown. I only want to show this message when the submit button is click because it would drive the user crazy otherwise. I tried the following code, but errorList is always empty. Anyone know the correct way to do something similar. function popupFormErrors(formId) { var validator = $(formId).validate(); var message = ''; for (var i = 0; i < validator.errorList.length - 1; i++) { message += validator.errorList[i].message + '\n'; } if (message.length > 0) { alert(message); } } $('#btn-form-submit').click(function(){ $('#form-register').submit(); popupFormErrors('#btn-form-submit'); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, ... }); Update From the info in the accepted answer I came up with this. var submitClicked = false; $('#btn-form-submit').click(function() { submitClicked = true; $('#form-register').submit(); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, showErrors: function(errorsObj) { this.defaultShowErrors(); if (submitClicked) { submitClicked = false; ... create popup from errorsObj... } } ... });

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• JAX-RS --- How to return JSON and HTTP Status code together?

  - by masato-san

  I'm writing REST web app (Netbean6.9, JAX-RS, Toplink-essential) and trying to return JSON and Http status code. I have code ready and working just to return JSON when HTTP GET Method is called from client. Code snippet @Path("get/id") @GET @Produces("application/json") public M_?? getMachineToUpdate(@PathParam("id") String id) { //some code to return JSON . . return myJson But I also want to return HTTP status code (500, 200, 204 etc) along with returning JSON. I tried using HttpServletResponse object, response.sendError("error message", 500); But this made browser to think it's real 500 so output web page was regular Http 500 error page. What I want to is just to return status code so that my Javascript on client side can handle some logic depending on what HTTP status code is returned. (maybe just to display the error code and message on html page.) Is it possible to do so? or should HTTP status code not be used for such thing?

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