Search Results

Search found 13788 results on 552 pages for 'instance'.

Page 461/552 | < Previous Page | 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468  | Next Page >

• Is MarshalByRefObject special?

  - by Vilx-

  .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

  Read the article

• How do I access the names of VB6 modules from code?

  - by Mark Bertenshaw

  Hi All - It is unlikely that there is an answer for this one, but I'm asking anyway. I am currently maintaining some code, which is likely to be refactored soon. Before that happens, I want to make the standard error handling code, which is injected by an Add-In, more efficient and take up less space. One thing that annoys me is that every module has a constant called m_ksModuleName that is used to construct a big string, which is then rethrown from the error handler so we can trace the error stack. This is all template code, i.e. repetivitve, but I could easily strip it down to a procedure call. Now, I have fixed the code so that you can pass the Me reference to the procedure - but you can't do that for the BAS modules. Nor can you access the project name (the part which would be passed as part of a ProgramID, for instance) - although you get given it when you raise an error yourself. All these strings are contained in the EXE, DLL or OCX - believe me, I've used a debugger to find them. But how can I access these in code? -- Mark Bertenshaw

  Read the article

• Binding value for NSTableView, but tooltip gets set as well

  - by Mark

  I've set up an NSTableView in Interface Builder to be populated from an NSArray. Each value of the array represents one row in the table. The value is bound correctly, but as a side effect, the table cell's tooltip is set to the string representation of the bound object. In my case, the NSArray contains NSDictiorany objects and the tooltip looks like it could be the [... description] output of that dictionary. Very ugly... I don't want the tooltip to be set at all. I have other tables that have plain NSString values bound to them and they don't have a tooltip set automatically. Is there some Interface Builder magic going on? I tried to start with a blank project - same problem. I should add that the table cell is a custom implementation of NSTextFieldCell that uses an NSButtonCell instance to draw an image and a label into the table. The values are retrieved from the dictionary bound as value. Why is the tooltip set when I only bind the "value" attribute? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• How to find an XPath query to Element/Element without namespaces (XmlSerializer, fragment)?

  - by Veksi

  Assume this simple XML fragment in which there may or may not be the xml declaration and has exactly one NodeElement as a root node, followed by exactly one other NodeElement, which may contain an assortment of various number of different kinds of elements. <?xml version="1.0"> <NodeElement xmlns="xyz"> <NodeElement xmlns=""> <SomeElement></SomeElement> </NodeElement> </NodeElement> How could I go about selecting the inner NodeElement and its contents without the namespace? For instance, "//*[local-name()='NodeElement/NodeElement[1]']" (and other variations I've tried) doesn't seem to yield results. As for in general the thing that I'm really trying to accomplish is to Deserialize a fragment of a larger XML document contained in a XmlDocument. Something like the following var doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.LoadXml(File.ReadAllText(@"trickynodefile.xml")); //ReadAllText to avoid Unicode trouble. var n = doc.SelectSingleNode("//*[local-name()='NodeElement/NodeElement[1]']"); using(var reader = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(n.OuterXml))) { var obj = new XmlSerializer(typeof(NodeElementNodeElement)).Deserialize(reader); I believe I'm missing just the right XPath expression, which seem to be rather elusive. Any help much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

  - by Dite

  A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

  Read the article

• Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

  - by Paul Matthews

  I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

  Read the article

• Storing a jpa entity where only the timestamp changes results in updates rather than inserts (desire

  - by David Schlenk

  I have a JPA entity that stores a fk id, a boolean and a timestamp: @Entity public class ChannelInUse implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(nullable = false) private Channel channel; private boolean inUse = false; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date inUseAt = new Date(); ... } I want every new instance of this entity to result in a new row in the table. For whatever reason no matter what I do it always results in the row getting updated with a new timestamp value rather than creating a new row. Even tried to just use a native query to run an insert but channel's ID wasn't populated yet so I gave up on that. I've tried using an embedded id class consisting of channel.getId and inUseAt. My equals and hashcode for are: public boolean equals(Object obj){ if(this == obj) return true; if(!(obj instanceof ChannelInUse)) return false; ChannelInUse ciu = (ChannelInUse) obj; return ( (this.inUseAt == null ? ciu.inUseAt == null : this.inUseAt.equals(ciu.inUseAt)) && (this.inUse == ciu.inUse) && (this.channel == null ? ciu.channel == null : this.channel.equals(ciu.channel)) ); } /** * hashcode generated from at, channel and inUse properties. */ public int hashCode(){ int hash = 1; hash = hash * 31 + (this.inUseAt == null ? 0 : this.inUseAt.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (this.channel == null ? 0 : this.channel.hashCode()); if(inUse) hash = hash * 31 + 1; else hash = hash * 31 + 0; return hash; } } I've tried using hibernate's Entity annotation with mutable=false. I'm probably just not understanding what makes an entity unique or something. Hit the google pretty hard but can't figure this one out.

  Read the article

• getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

  - by ideagent

  I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

  Read the article

• Specifying character

  - by danutenshu

  So below I have a code in C++ that is supposed to invert the arguments in a vector, but not the sequence. I have listed my problems as sidenotes in the code below. The invert function is supposed to invert each argument, and then the main function just outputs the inverted words in same order For instance, program("one two three four")=ruof eerth owt eno #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; int invert(string normal) { string inverted; for (int num=normal.size()-1; num>=0; num--) { inverted.append(normal[num]); //I don't know how to get each character //I need another command for append } return **inverted**; <---- } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { string text; for (int a=1; a<argc; a++) { text.append(invert(argv[a])); //Can't run the invert function text.append(" "); } cout << text << endl; return 0; }

  Read the article

• Qt/C++ - confused about caller/callee, object ownership

  - by Isabel

  I am creating a GUI to manipulate a robot arm. The location of the arm can be described by 6 floats (describing the positions of the various arm joints. The interface consists of a QGraphicsView with a diagram of the arm (which can be clicked to change the arm position - adjusting the 6 floats). The interface also has 6 lineEdit boxes, to also adjust those values separately. When the graphics view is clicked, and when the line edit boxes are changed, I'd like the line edit boxes / graphics view to stay in synchronisation. This brings me to confusion about how to store the 6 floats, and trigger events when they're updated. My current idea is this: The robot arm's location should be represented by a class, RobotArmLocation. Objects of this class then have methods such as obj.ShoulderRotation() and obj.SetShoulderRotation(). The MainWindow has a single instance of RobotArmLocation. Next is the bit I'm more confused about, how to join everything up. I am thinking: The MainWindow has a ArmLocationChanged slot. This is signalled whenever the location object is changed. The diagram class will have a SetRobotArmLocation(RobotArmLocation &loc). When the diagram is changed, it's free to change the location object, and fire a signal to the ArmLocationChanged slot. Likewise, changing any of the text boxes will fire a signal to that ArmLocationChanged slot. The slot then has code to synchronise all the elements. This kind of seems like a mess to me, does anyone have any other suggestions? I've also thought of the following, does it have any merrit? The RobotArmLocation class has a ValueChanged slot, the diagram and textboxes can use that directly, and bypass the MainWindow directly (seems cleaner?) thanks for any wisdom!

  Read the article

• Database Programming in C#, returning output from Stored Proc

  - by jpavlov

  I am working at gaining an understanding at how to interface stored procedures with applications. My example is simple, but it doesn't display my columns and rows in the command prompt, instead it display System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader. How do I display the rows from my stored procudure? ----Stored Proc-- ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.SelectID AS SELECT * FROM tb_User; ----- Below is the code: using System; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.IO; namespace ExecuteStoredProc { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { SqlConnection cnnUserMan; SqlCommand cmmUser; //SqlDataReader drdUser; //Instantiate and open the connection cnnUserMan = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=c:\\Program Files\\Microsoft SQL Server\\MSSQL10.SQLEXPRESS\\MSSQL\\DATA\\UserDB.mdf; Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True"); cnnUserMan.Open(); //Instantiate and initialize command cmmUser = new SqlCommand("SelectID", cnnUserMan); cmmUser.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; //drdUser = cmmUser.ExecuteReader(); Console.WriteLine(cmmUser.ExecuteReader()); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Thanks.

  Read the article

• how to allow unamed user in svn authz file?

  - by dtrosset

  I have a subversion server running with apache. It authenticates users using LDAP in apache configuration and uses SVN authorizations to limit user access to certain repositories. This works perfectly. Apache DAV svn SVNParentPath /srv/svn SVNListParentPath Off SVNPathAuthz Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Subversion Repository" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPBindDN # private stuff AuthLDAPBindPassword # private stuff AuthLDAPURL # private stuff Require valid-user AuthzSVNAccessFile /etc/apache2/dav_svn.authz Subversion [groups] soft = me, and, all, other, developpers Adding anonymous access from one machine Now, I have a service I want to setup (rietveld, for code reviews) that needs to have an anonymous access to the repository. As this is a web service, accesses are always done from the same server. Thus I added apache configuration to allow all accesses from this machine. This did not work until I add an additional line in the authorization file to allow read access to user -. Apache <Limit GET PROPFIND OPTIONS REPORT> Order allow,deny Allow from # private IP address Satisfy Any </Limit> Subversion [Software:/] @soft = rw - = r # <-- This is the added line For instance, before I add this, all users were authenticated, and thus had a name. Now, some accesses are done without a user name! I found this - user name in the apache log files. But does this line equals to * = r that I absolutely do not want to enable, or does it only allows the anonymous unnamed user (that is allowed access only from the rietveld server)?

  Read the article

• How to design authentication in a thick client, to be fail safe?

  - by Jay

  Here's a use case: I have a desktop application (built using Eclipse RCP) which on start, pops open a dialog box with 'UserName' and 'Password' fields in it. Once the end user, inputs his UserName and Password, a server is contacted (a spring remote-servlet, with the client side being a spring httpclient: similar to the approaches here.), and authentication is performed on the server side. A few questions related to the above mentioned scenario: If said this authentication service were to go down, what would be the best way to handle further proceedings? Authentication is something that I cannot do away with. Would running the desktop client in a "limited" mode be a good idea? For instance, important features/menus/views will be disabled, rest of the application will be accessible? Should I have a back up authentication service running on a different machine, working as a backup? What are the general best-practices in this scenario? I remember reading about google gears and how it would let you edit and do stuff offline - should something like this be designed? Please let me know your design/architectural comments/suggestions. Appreciate your help.

  Read the article

• How to implement Administrator rights in Java Application?

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am developing a Data Modeling Software that is implemented in Java. This application converts the textual data (stored in a database) to graphical form so that users can interpret the data in a more efficient form. Now, this application will be accessed by 3 kinds of persons: 1. Managers (who can fill the database with data and they can also view the visual form of the data after entering the data into the database) 2. Viewers (who can only view the visual form of data that has been filled by managers) 3. Administrators (who can create and manage other administrators, managers and viewers) Now, how to implement 3 diff. views of the same application. Note: Managers, Viewers and Administrators can be located in any part of the world and should access the application through internet. One idea that came in my mind is as follows: Step1: Code all the business logic in EJBs so that it can be used in distributed environment (means which can be accessed by several users through internet) Step2: Code 3 Swing GUI Clients: One for administrators, one for managers and one for viewers. These 3 GUI clients can access business logic written in EJBs. Step3: Distribute the clients corresponding to their users. For instance, manager client to managers. =================================QUESTIONS======================================= Q1. Is the above approach is correct? Q2. This is very common functionality that various softwares have. So, Do they implement this kind of functionality through this way or any other way? Q3. If any other approach would be more better, then what is that approach?

  Read the article

• java: libraries for immutable functional-style data structures

  - by Jason S

  This is very similar to another question (Functional Data Structures in Java) but the answers there are not particularly useful. I need to use immutable versions of the standard Java collections (e.g. HashMap / TreeMap / ArrayList / LinkedList / HashSet / TreeSet). By "immutable" I mean immutable in the functional sense (e.g. purely functional data structures), where updating operations on the data structure do not change the original data, but instead return a new instance of the same kind of data structure. Also typically new and old instances of the data structure will share immutable data to be efficient in time and space. From what I can tell my options include: Functional Java Scala Clojure but I'm not sure whether any of these are particularly appealing to me. I have a few requirements/desirements: the collections in question should be usable directly in Java (with the appropriate libraries in the classpath). FJ would work for me; I'm not sure if I can use Scala's or Clojure's data structures in Java w/o having to use the compilers/interpreters from those languages and w/o having to write Scala or Clojure code. Core operations on lists/maps/sets should be possible w/o having to create function objects with confusing syntaxes (FJ looks slightly iffy) They should be efficient in time and space. I'm looking for a library which ideally has done some performance testing. FJ's TreeMap is based on a red-black tree, not sure how that rates. Documentation / tutorials should be good enough so someone can get started quickly using the data structures. FJ fails on that front. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

  - by worlds-apart89

  I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

  Read the article

• Java - Removing duplicates in an ArrayList

  - by Will

  I'm working on a program that uses an ArrayList to store Strings. The program prompts the user with a menu and allows the user to choose an operation to perform. Such operations are adding Strings to the List, printing the entries etc. What I want to be able to do is create a method called removeDuplicates().This method will search the ArrayList and remove any duplicated values. I want to leave one instance of the duplicated value(s) within the list. I also want this method to return the total number of duplicates removed. I've been trying to use nested loops to accomplish this but I've been running into trouble because when entries get deleted, the indexing of the ArrayList gets altered and things don't work as they should. I know conceptually what I need to do but I'm having trouble implementing this idea in code. Here is some pseudo code: start with first entry; check each subsequent entry in the list and see if it matches the first entry; remove each subsequent entry in the list that matches the first entry; after all entries have been examined, move on to the second entry; check each entry in the list and see if it matches the second entry; remove each entry in the list that matches the second entry; repeat for entry in the list Here's the code I have so far: public int removeDuplicates() { int duplicates = 0; for ( int i = 0; i < strings.size(); i++ ) { for ( int j = 0; j < strings.size(); j++ ) { if ( i == j ) { // i & j refer to same entry so do nothing } else if ( strings.get( j ).equals( strings.get( i ) ) ) { strings.remove( j ); duplicates++; } } } return duplicates; }

  Read the article

• transmit a java.lang.reflect.Proxy over a network

  - by panzi

  Is there a convenient way to transmit an object including its code (the class) over a network (not just the instance data)? Don't ask me why I want to do this. It's in an assignment. I asked several times if that is really what they meant and the didn't rephrase their answer so I guess they really want us to transmit code (not just the field data) over a network. To be honest I have no clue why we need a Proxy in this assignment anyway, just writing a simple class would do IMO. The assignment says that we should instantiate the proxy on the server and transmit it to the client (and yes, they talk about a java.lang.reflect.Proxy, they name this class). Because there is no class file for a proxy I can't deploy that. I guess I would have to somehow read out the bytecode of the generated Proxy, transmit it to the client and then load it. Which makes absolutely no sense at all, but this seems what they want us to do. I don't get why.

  Read the article

• How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

  - by stimpy77

  Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

  Read the article

• Finding What You Need in R: function arguments/parameters from outside the function's package

  - by doug

  Often in R, there are a dozen functions scattered across as many packages--all of which have the same purpose but of course differ in accuracy, performance, theoretical rigor, and so on. How do you gather all of these in one place before you start your task? So for instance: the generic plot function. Setting secondary ticks is much easier (IMHO) using a function outside of the base package, minor.tick(nx=n, ny=n, tick.ratio=n), found in Hmisc. Of course, that doesn't show up in plot's docstring. Likewise, the data-input arguments to 'plot' can be supplied by an object returned from the function 'hexbin', again, from a library outside of the base installation (where 'plot' resides). What would be great obviously is a programmatic way to gather these function arguments from the various libraries and put them in a single namespace. edit: (trying to re-state my example just above more clearly:) the arguments to plot supplied in the base package for, e.g., setting the axis tick frequency are xaxp/yaxp; however, one can also set a/t/f via a function outside of the base package, again, as in the minor.tick function from the Hmisc package--but you wouldn't know that just from looking at the plot method signature. Is there a meta function in R for this? So far, as i come across them, i've been manually gathering them in a TextMate 'snippet' (along with the attendant library imports). This isn't that difficult or time consuming, but i can only update my snippet as i find out about these additional arguments/parameters. Is there a canonical R way to do this, or at least an easier way? Just in case that wasn't clear, i am not talking about the case where multiple packages provide functions directed to the same statistic or view (e.g., 'boxplot' in the base package; 'boxplot.matrix' in gplots; and 'bplots' in Rlab). What i am talking is the case in which the function name is the same across two or more packages.

  Read the article

• Creating a HTTP handler for IIS that transparently forwards request to different port?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have a public web server with the following software installed: IIS7 on port 80 Subversion over apache on port 81 TeamCity over apache on port 82 Unfortunately, both Subversion and TeamCity comes with their own web server installations, and they work flawlessly, so I don't really want to try to move them all to run under IIS, if that is even possible. However, I was looking at IIS and I noticed the HTTP redirect part, and I was wondering... Would it be possible for me to create a HTTP handler, and install it on a sub-domain under IIS7, so that all requests to, say, http://svn.vkarlsen.no/anything/here is passed to my HTTP handler, which then subsequently creates a request to http://localhost:81/anything/here, retrieves the data, and passes it on to the original requestee? In other words, I would like IIS to handle transparent forwards to port 81 and 82, without using the redirection features. For instance, Subversion doesn't like HTTP redirect and just says that the repository has been moved, and I need to relocate my working copy. That's not what I want. If anyone thinks this can be done, does anyone have any links to topics I need to read up on? I think I can manage the actual request parts, even with authentication, but I have no idea how to create a HTTP handler. Also bear in mind that I need to handle sub-paths and documents beneath the top-level domain, so http://svn.vkarlsen.no/whatever/here needs to be handled by a single handler, I cannot create copies of the handler for all sub-directories since paths are created from time to time.

  Read the article

• Conditional insert as a single database transaction in HSQLDB 1.8?

  - by Kevin Pauli

  I'm using a particular database table like a "Set" data structure, i.e., you can attempt to insert the same row several times, but it will only contain one instance. The primary key is a natural key. For example, I want the following series of operations to work fine, and result in only one row for Oklahoma: insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Texas'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); I am of course getting an error due to the duplicate primary key on subsequent inserts of the same value. Is there a way to make the insert conditional, so that these errors are not thrown? I.e. only do the the insert if the natural key does not already exist? I know I could do a where clause and a subquery to test for the row's existence first, but it seems that would be expensive. That's 2 physical operations for one logical "conditional insert" operation. Anything like this in SQL? FYI I am using HSQLDB 1.8

  Read the article

• Which isolation level should I use for the following insert-if-not-present transaction?

  - by Steve Guidi

  I've written a linq-to-sql program that essentially performs an ETL task, and I've noticed many places where parallelization will improve its performance. However, I'm concerned about preventing uniquness constraint violations when two threads perform the following task (psuedo code). Record CreateRecord(string recordText) { using (MyDataContext database = GetDatabase()) { Record existingRecord = database.MyTable.FirstOrDefault(record.KeyPredicate()); if(existingRecord == null) { existingRecord = CreateRecord(recordText); database.MyTable.InsertOnSubmit(existingRecord); } database.SubmitChanges(); return existingRecord; } } In general, this code executes a SELECT statement to test for record existance, followed by an INSERT statement if the record doesn't exist. It is encapsulated by an implicit transaction. When two threads run this code for the same instance of recordText, I want to prevent them from simultaneously determining that the record doesn't exist, thereby both attempting to create the same record. An isolation level and explicit transaction will work well, except I'm not certain which isolation level I should use -- Serializable should work, but seems too strict. Is there a better choice?

  Read the article

• Can anyone get app-engine plugin working with Grails on mac os x?

  - by tim

  I have been trying for 4 days to get app-engine and grails working together on my mac to no avail. I am using latest groovy/grails and appengine sdk versions. Im following the app-engine plugin step by step on the grails site.. http://grails.org/plugin/app-engine Groovy Version: 1.7.1 JVM: 1.5.0_22 Grails 1.3.0.RC1 echo $APPENGINE_HOME reveals /Users/markstim/appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2 I perform the following steps 1. grails create-app myapp 2. cd myapp; grails list-plugins reveals hibernate 1.3.0.RC1 -- Hibernate for Grails tomcat 1.3.0.RC1 -- Apache Tomcat plugin for Grails add the following line to Config.groovy google.appengine.application="myapp" install the plugin for app-engine grails install-plugin app-engine and answer 'jpa' when asked (no errors yet) installed plugins list now looks like app-engine 0.8.9 -- Grails AppEngine plugin gorm-jpa 0.7.1 -- GORM-JPA Plugin then grails run-app and get this error as the server is coming up... [java] WARNING: Nested in org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'pluginManager' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]: Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.codehaus.groovy.grails.exceptions.NewInstanceCreationException: Could not create a new instance of class [GormJpaGrailsPlugin]!: [java] java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org.grails.jpa.JpaPluginSupport then if i navigate to localhost:8080 I get HTTP ERROR: 503 Problem accessing /myapp. Reason: SERVICE_UNAVAILABLE Powered by Jetty://

  Read the article

• How to Object Array to List

  - by Peter Black

  (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468  | Next Page >