Search Results

Search found 13068 results on 523 pages for 'copy and paste'.

Page 463/523 | < Previous Page | 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470  | Next Page >

  • Compiling 32-bit Program on VS 2008

    - by gordonwd
    I've been developing on VC++ 2003 on an XP PC but am now on Windows 7 and bought a cheap legal copy of VS 2008 to continue work on the same project. My product has to continue to run on customers' XP systems, so I'm strictly interested in a 32-bit executable. The first issue I ran into was the PRJ0003 error "spawning cl.exe". I had to add the path to this file to the VC++ Directories settings (it appears in both a bin\amd64 and bin\x86_amd64 directory, but I don't think it matters output-wise which I use?). The issue I now have (not counting a tedious cleanup to convert strcpy to strcpy_s, etc.) is that I'm not clear on whether I'm generating a 32-bit or 64-bit exe out of this. My project properties are set to a target of "Win32", so I assume that all is well. Is this correct? I have read some discussions about this, but it's never quite clear if they are talking about whether the compiler itself is running x64 vs. x86, or whether the compiled code is x64 vs. x86, and how this is differentiated. So am I doing the right thing to generate a 32-bit, Win32, x-86 program?

    Read the article

  • How do I display core data on second view controller?

    - by jon
    I am working on my first core data iPhone application. I am using a navigation controller, and the root view controller displays 4 rows. Clicking the first row takes me to a second table view controller. However, when I click the back button, repeat the row tap, click the back button again, and tap the row a third time, I get an error. I have been researching this for a week with no success. I can reproduce the error easily: Create a new Navigation-based Application, use Core Data for storage, call it MyTest which creates MyTestAppDelegate and RootViewController. Add new UIViewController subclass, with UITableViewController and xib, call it ListViewController. Copy code from RootViewController.h and .m to ListViewController.h and .m., changing the file names appropriately. To simplify the code, I removed the trailing “_” from all variables. In RootViewController, I added #import ListViewController.h, set up an array to display 4 rows and navigate to ListViewController when clicking the first row. In ListViewController.m, I added #import MyTestAppDelegate.h” and the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (managedObjectContext == nil) { managedObjectContext = [(MyTestAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; } .. } The sequence that causes the error is tap row, return, tap row, return, tap row - error. managedObjectContext is synthesized for the third time. I appreciate your patience and your help, as this makes no sense to me. ADDENDUM: I may have a partial solution. http://www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/41688-accessing-app-delegates-managed-object-context.html If I do not release the managedObjectContext in the .m file, the error goes away. Is that ok or will that cause me issues? - (void)dealloc { [fetchedResultsController release]; // [managedObjectContext release]; [super dealloc]; } ADDENDUM 2: See solution below. Sorry for the formatting issues - this was my first post.

    Read the article

  • Using new (this) to reuse constructors

    - by Brandon Bodnar
    This came up recently in a class for which I am a teaching assistant. We were teaching the students how to do copy constructors in c++, and the students who were originally taught java asked if you can call one constructor from another. I know the answer to this is no, as they are using the pedantic flag for their code in class, and the old standards do not have support for this. I found on Stackoverflow and other sites a suggestion to fake this using new (this) such as follows class MyClass { private: int * storedValue; public: MyClass(int initialValue = 0) { storedValue = new int(initialValue); } ~ MyClass() { delete storedValue; } MyClass(const MyClass &b) { new (this) MyClass(*(b.storedValue)); } int value() { return *storedValue; } }; This is really simple code, and obviously does not save any code by reusing the constructor, but it is just for example. My question is if this is even standard compliant, and if there are any edge cases that should be considered that would prevent this from being sound code?

    Read the article

  • GetLocalValueEnumerator() Not Returning All Properties

    - by a_hardin
    I am trying to perform validation in my WPF application using the solution in Detecting WPF Validation Errors. public static bool IsValid(DependencyObject parent) { // Validate all the bindings on the parent bool valid = true; LocalValueEnumerator localValues = parent.GetLocalValueEnumerator(); while (localValues.MoveNext()) { LocalValueEntry entry = localValues.Current; if (BindingOperations.IsDataBound(parent, entry.Property)) { Binding binding = BindingOperations.GetBinding(parent, entry.Property); foreach (ValidationRule rule in binding.ValidationRules) { ValidationResult result = rule.Validate(parent.GetValue(entry.Property), null); if (!result.IsValid) { BindingExpression expression = BindingOperations.GetBindingExpression(parent, entry.Property); System.Windows.Controls.Validation.MarkInvalid(expression, new ValidationError(rule, expression, result.ErrorContent, null)); valid = false; } } } } // Validate all the bindings on the children for (int i = 0; i != VisualTreeHelper.GetChildrenCount(parent); ++i) { DependencyObject child = VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(parent, i); if (!IsValid(child)) { valid = false; } } return valid; } The problem I am running into is that when I step through the code for a TextBox, I'm not getting the Text property. The only properties I get are "PageHeight", "Instance", and "UndoManagerInstance". Therefore, I can not Validate the rules for the binding on the TextBox. Does anyone have any idea why I wouldn't be getting the correct properties? Is there another way to force validaton on controls in WPF? I haven't been able to find anyone else who has had this problem. Update: The TextBoxes I am trying to validate are within a DataTemplate. I found that if I copy one of the TextBoxes and place it directly in the Window, I am able to get the data. Using Woodstock, I saw that the data source for the TextBoxes in the template is "ParentTemplate", but it's "Local" for the TextBox outside of the template. So, the question now is, how can I get the DependencyProperties for controls inside a DataTemplate?

    Read the article

  • How to stream authenticated content with MediaPlayer on Android

    - by 102790073222983779908
    I've seen quite a few posts askign this question on SO but there doesn't seem to be a definitive answer (or at least an answer I like!) I've got content protected behind basic auth (username/password) -- I can download it fine using the various HTTP download clases but for the life of me I can't sort out how to tell media player to stream it (and provide the authentication). I saw one post that suggested it wasn't possible since the MediaPlayer is all native code and doesn't things like the Authenticator. There are plenty of examples of how to first download to a cached copy and then play that back but....That sort of sucks (and the files maybe 100's of MB's). I saw at least one proposal to download it in smalish chunks and then start & stop the playback (redirecting to the new file) but that sort of sucks also since there would (I presume) be a stutter (I haven't tried it though) The best idea I have at this point is to start downloading to a cache file and then when it's 'full enough' start up playback while I continue to fill the file.... I hope that this works (but again, haven't tried it). Am I missing something obvious? It's so painful to have all the various pieces almost working and I sort of convinced myself that there had to be a way to natively stream protected content (or have it take a already established & qualified InputStream) but it appears no joy. BTW I'm a Mac/iPhone guy and a newb at Android so I'm still fighting a bit of Java learning.... Excuse me if I'm missing somthing obvious. -john

    Read the article

  • Modify url in browser using javascript?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Is it possible to change the url in the user's browser without actually loading a page, using javascript? I don't think it is (could lead to unwanted behavior), I'm in a situation where this would be convenient though: I have a web app which displays reports generated by users. Layout roughly looks like: ----------------------------------------------------------- Column 1 | Column 2 ----------------------------------------------------------- Report A | Report B | Currently selected report contents here. Report C | right now the user would be looking at a url like: www.mysite.com/user123 To see the above page. When the user clicks the report names in column 1, I load the contents of that report in column 2 using ajax. This is convenient for the user, but the url in their browser remains unchanged. The users want to copy the url for a report to share with friends, so I suppose I could provide a button to generate a url for them, but it would just be more convenient for them to have it already as the url in their browser, something like: www.mysite.com/user123/reportb the alternate is to not load the contents of the report in column 2 using ajax, but rather a full page refresh. This would at least have a linkable url ready for the user in their url bar, but not as convenient as using ajax. Thanks

    Read the article

  • PHP: cannot matching string "<br />

    - by Patrick
    hi, I'm having problems with string matching in PHP. I've 2 html elements in my page, I've copy pasted here the content with Firebug <div class="field-item odd"> <div class="field-label-inline-first"> Year:</div> 2009 </div> <div class="field-item odd"> <div class="field-label-inline-first"> Synopsis:</div> &lt;br /&gt; </div> This php line works perfectly (the element with 2009 is detected) <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '2009') : echo "ok"; ?> However I'm not able to match the string containing element: <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '<br />') : echo "ok"; ?> //doesn't work <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '&lt;br /&gt;') : echo "ok"; ?> //again doesn't work any tip ? To give you some context: The strings are produced by CKEditor, an editor I'm using in my Drupal back-end. When I leave empty this editor, the tag is displayed on the string as plain text (because I set "plain text" as formatting option in the back-end) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Opera bug with JS autoselecting text (if more than 1 div)

    - by E L
    Here is HTML code. It supposed to select all text in "Container" div <B onclick="SelectText(document.getElementById('Container'));">select all text</B> <Div id="Container"> <Div>123456</Div> <Div>123456</Div> <Div onclick="SelectText();">123456</Div> </Div> here is JS code of the SelectText() function function SelectText(target){ if(target==null){ var e = window.event || e; if (!e) var e = window.event; var target=e.target || e.srcElement; } var rng, sel; if ( document.createRange ) { rng = document.createRange(); rng.selectNode( target ); sel = window.getSelection(); sel.removeAllRanges(); sel.addRange( rng ); } else { var rng = document.body.createTextRange(); rng.moveToElementText( target ); rng.select(); } } Problem is that in Opera 12.02 when "select all text" is clicked, all text seems like selected, but it's not selected (I can't rightclick it and copy). (terrific, but IE works fine with it) Why not in Opera?!!! And what can I do to make Opera 12.02 believe that all text in "Container" is selected?

    Read the article

  • JS file called twice in Wordpress

    - by Dxr Tw
    I'm trying to reduce number of requests by reducing number of JS files on WP site. I successfully combined around 7 javascript files into one (site.js). Now, I'm using a plugin which has its own JS file (pluginA.js), I want to include (pluginA.js) in that site.js. However, if I simply copy pluginA JS content to site.js and then change location to /files/site.js, firebug's NET tab shows that site.js is requested/called twice. I presume this is due to wp_enqueue_script. How can I make it not call site.js second time but just look into already loaded site.js? Maybe there's alternative to wp_enqueue_script? Plugin's php file: add_action( 'wp_enqueue_scripts', 'testplugin_scripts'); function testplugin_scripts() { /*global $testplugin_version; */ $default_selector = 'li:has(ul) > a'; $default_selector_leaf = 'li li li:not(:has(ul)) > a'; wp_enqueue_scripts('test-plugin', site_url('/files/site.js', __FILE__), array('jquery'), $testplugin_version); $params = array( 'selector' => apply_filters('testplugin_selector', $default_selector), 'selector_leaf' => apply_filters('testplugin_selector_leaf', $default_selector_leaf) ); wp_localize_script('test-plugin', 'testplugin_params', $params); }

    Read the article

  • How do you get the solution directory in C# (VS 2008) in code?

    - by IsaacB
    Hi, Got an annoying problem here. I've got an NHibernate/Forms application I'm working through SVN. I made some of my own controls, but when I drag and drop those (or view some form editors where I have already dragged and dropped) onto some of my other controls, Visual studio decides it needs to execute some of the code I wrote, including the part that looks for hibernate.cfg.xml. I have no idea why this is, but (sometimes!) when it executes the code during my form load or drag and drop it switches the current directory to C:\program files\vs 9.0\common7\ide, and then nhibernate throws an exception that it can't find hibernate.cfg.xml, because I'm searching for that in a relative path. Now, I don't want to hard code the location of hibernate.cfg.xml, or just copy hibernate.cfg.xml to the ide directory (which will work). I want a solution that gets the solutions directory while the current directory is common7\ide. Something that will let someone view my forms in the designer on a fresh checkout to an arbitrary directory on an arbitrary machine. And no, I'm not about to load the controls in code. I have so many controls within controls that it is a nightmare to line everything up without it. I tried a pre build event that made a file that has the solution directory in it, but of course how can I find that from common7\ide? All the projects files need to be in the solution directory because of svn. Thanks for your help guys, I've already spent a few hours fiddling with this in vain.

    Read the article

  • Access problem with NSMutableArray

    - by pbcoder
    Hi, my problem is that I can't access my NSMutableArray in - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath {}. I create my NSMutableArray here: nodes = [xmlDoc nodesForXPath:@"/xml/items/item/short_desc" error:nil]; if (nodes != nil && [nodes count] >= 1) { for (int i = 0; i < [nodes count]; i++) { CXMLElement *resultElement = [nodes objectAtIndex:i]; result = [[[[resultElement attributeForName:@"data"] stringValue] copy] autorelease]; [short_desc addObject:result]; } } and I can print out the content of short_desc everywhere with: NSLog([short_desc objectAtIndex:0]); but not in: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ..... NSString *date = [name objectAtIndex:0]; labelDate.text = date; ..... return cell;} if I use: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ..... NSString *date = @"text..."; labelDate.text = date; ..... return cell;} it works correctly. ANY SOLUTION FOR THIS PROBLEM???

    Read the article

  • STLifying C++ classes

    - by shambulator
    I'm trying to write a class which contains several std::vectors as data members, and provides a subset of vector's interface to access them: class Mesh { public: private: std::vector<Vector3> positions; std::vector<Vector3> normals; // Several other members along the same lines }; The main thing you can do with a mesh is add positions, normals and other stuff to it. In order to allow an STL-like way of accessing a Mesh (add from arrays, other containers, etc.), I'm toying with the idea of adding methods like this: public: template<class InIter> void AddNormals(InIter first, InIter last); Problem is, from what I understand of templates, these methods will have to be defined in the header file (seems to make sense; without a concrete iterator type, the compiler doesn't know how to generate object code for the obvious implementation of this method). Is this actually a problem? My gut reaction is not to go around sticking huge chunks of code in header files, but my C++ is a little rusty with not much STL experience outside toy examples, and I'm not sure what "acceptable" C++ coding practice is on this. Is there a better way to expose this functionality while retaining an STL-like generic programming flavour? One way would be something like this: (end list) class RestrictedVector<T> { public: RestrictedVector(std::vector<T> wrapped) : wrapped(wrapped) {} template <class InIter> void Add(InIter first, InIter last) { std::copy(first, last, std::back_insert_iterator(wrapped)); } private: std::vector<T> wrapped; }; and then expose instances of these on Mesh instead, but that's starting to reek a little of overengineering :P Any advice is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Singleton pattern in C++

    - by skydoor
    I have a question about the singleton pattern. I saw two cases concerning the static member in the singleton class. First it is an object, like this class CMySingleton { public: static CMySingleton& Instance() { static CMySingleton singleton; return singleton; } // Other non-static member functions private: CMySingleton() {} // Private constructor ~CMySingleton() {} CMySingleton(const CMySingleton&); // Prevent copy-construction CMySingleton& operator=(const CMySingleton&); // Prevent assignment }; One is an pointer, like this class GlobalClass { int m_value; static GlobalClass *s_instance; GlobalClass(int v = 0) { m_value = v; } public: int get_value() { return m_value; } void set_value(int v) { m_value = v; } static GlobalClass *instance() { if (!s_instance) s_instance = new GlobalClass; return s_instance; } }; What's the difference between the two cases? Which one is correct?

    Read the article

  • Remove the hash after Ajax loading (I'm ajaxing wordpress 8-) )

    - by Alberto
    Hi everybody, I followed this great tutorial to"ajax" my blog:http://www.deluxeblogtips.com/2010/05/how-to-ajaxify-wordpress-theme.html But it creates some problems and I think the problem is in the hash that ajax creates. So, after the content is loaded, how can I remove the hash from the url? I copy my code here: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var $mainContent = $("#content"), siteUrl = "http://" + top.location.host.toString(), url = ''; $(document).delegate("a[href^='"+siteUrl+"']:not([href*=/wp-admin/]):not([href*=/wp-login.php]):not([href$=/feed/]):not([href*=/go.php]):not(.comment-reply-link)", "click", function() { location.hash = this.pathname; $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); $("#searchform").submit(function(e) { location.hash = '?s=' + $("#search").val(); e.preventDefault(); }); $(window).bind('hashchange', function(){ url = window.location.hash.substring(1); if (!url) { return; } url = url + " #inside"; $mainContent.html('<div id="loader">Caricamento in corso...</div>').load(url, function() { //$mainContent.animate({opacity: "1"}); scriptss(); }); }); $(window).trigger('hashchange'); }); Thank all very much!

    Read the article

  • C++ const-reference semantics?

    - by Kristoffer
    Consider the sample application below. It demonstrates what I would call a flawed class design. #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct B { B() : m_value(1) {} long m_value; }; struct A { const B& GetB() const { return m_B; } void Foo(const B &b) { // assert(this != &b); m_B.m_value += b.m_value; m_B.m_value += b.m_value; } protected: B m_B; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { A a; cout << "Original value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; cout << "Expected value: 3" << endl; a.Foo(a.GetB()); cout << "Actual value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; return 0; } Output: Original value: 1 Expected value: 3 Actual value: 4 Obviously, the programmer is fooled by the constness of b. By mistake b points to this, which yields the undesired behavior. My question: What const-rules should you follow when designing getters/setters? My suggestion: Never return a reference to a member variable if it can be set by reference through a member function. Hence, either return by value or pass parameters by value. (Modern compilers will optimize away the extra copy anyway.)

    Read the article

  • Bizarre C++ compiler problem

    - by Yassin
    Hi, I have the following C++ code: typedef istream_iterator<string> isi; // (1) vector<string> lineas(isi(cin), isi()); // (2) //vector<string> lineas; //copy(isi(cin), isi(), back_inserter(lineas)); typedef vector<string>::iterator vci; for (vci it = lineas.begin(); it != lineas.end(); ++it) cout &lt;&lt; *it &lt;&lt; endl; However, I get the error while compiling: test.cpp: In function 'int main(int, char**)': test.cpp:16: error: request for member 'begin' in 'lineas', which is of non-class type 'std::vector<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::allocator<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > >(main(int, char**)::isi, main(int, char**)::isi (*)())' test.cpp:16: error: request for member 'end' in 'lineas', which is of non-class type 'std::vector<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >, std::allocator<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > > >(main(int, char**)::isi, main(int, char**)::isi (*)())' However, if I replace (1) by (2), it compiles. I'm using g++ 4.4.0 What's wrong?

    Read the article

  • hash tables and 2d vectors

    - by Sunil
    I want to push a 2d vector into a hash table row by row and later search for a row (vector) in the hash table and want to be able to find it. I want to do something like #include <iostream> #include <set> #include <vector> using namespace std; int main(){ std::set < vector<int> > myset; vector< vector<int> > v; int k = 0; for ( int i = 0; i < 5; i++ ) { v.push_back ( vector<int>() ); for ( int j = 0; j < 5; j++ ) v[i].push_back ( k++ ); } for ( int i = 0; i < 5; i++ ) { std::copy(v[i].begin(),v[i].end(),std::inserter(myset)); // This is not correct but what is the right way ? // and also here, I want to search for a particular vector if it exists in the table. for ex. the second row of vector v. } return 0; } I'm not sure how to insert and look up a vector in a set. So if nybody could guide me, it will be helpful. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can't grab foreign key during after_create callback because it doesn't exist yet!

    - by Randy
    I have some models all linked together in memory (parent:child:child:child) and saved at the same time by saving the top-most parent. This works fine. I'd like to tap into the after_create callback of one of the children to populate a changelog table. One of the attributes I need to copy/push into the changelog table is the child's foreign_key to it's direct parent, but it doesn't exist at the time after_create fires!?! Without the after_create callback, I can look in the log and see that the child is being saved before it's parent (foreign key blank) then the parent is inserted... then the child is updated with the id from the parent. The child's after_create is firing at the right time, but it happens before Rails has had a chance to update the child with the foreign_key. Is there any way to force Rails to save such a linkage of models in a certain order? ie.parent, then child (parent foreign_key exists), then that child's child (again, foreign_key is accessible) etc. ?? If not, how would I have my routine fire after a record is created AND get the foreign_key? Seems a callback like this would be helpful: after_create_with_foreign_keys

    Read the article

  • Color difference between vista and Win7

    - by MSGrimpeur
    Have an indicator in the form of an image which is displayed in a graphics viewport. The indicator can be any colour the user selects so we created a single image with a pallette and change a specific color in the pallette to the one the user picks using the following code. /// <summary> /// Copies the image and sets transparency and fill colour of the copy. The image is intended to be a simple filled shape such as a square /// with the inside all in one colour. /// </summary> /// <remarks>Assumes the fill colour to be changed is Red, /// black is the boundary colour and off white (RGB 233,233,233) is the colour to be made transparent</remarks> /// <param name="image"></param> /// <param name="fillColour"></param> /// <returns></returns> protected Bitmap CopyWithStyle(Bitmap image, Color fillColour) { ColorPalette selectionIndicatorPalette = image.Palette; int fillColourIndex = selectionIndicatorPalette.IndexOf(Color.Red); selectionIndicatorPalette.Entries[fillColourIndex] = fillColour; image.Palette = selectionIndicatorPalette; Bitmap tempImage = image; tempImage.MakeTransparent(transparentColour); return tempImage; } To be honest I'm not sure if this is a bit cludgy and there is some smarter approach or not, so any thoughts there would help. However the main issue is that this appears to work fine on Win7 but in vista and XP the color does not change. Has any one seen this before. I've found one or two articles that suggest there are some differences in ARGB between them but nothing particularly concrete. Any help greatfully accepted.

    Read the article

  • Calling child constructor by casting (ChildClass)parentObject; to track revisions

    - by FreshCode
    To track revisions of a Page class, I have a PageRevision class which inherits from Page and adds a revision ID (Guid RevisionID;). If possible, how should I cast an existing Page object to a PageRevision and ensure that the PageRevision constructor is called to create a new revision ID? I could could have a PageRevision(Page page) constructor which generates the Guid and copies all the Page attributes, but I want to automate it, especially if a Page class has many attributes (and I later add one, and forget to modify the copy constructor). Desired use Page page = new Page(123, "Page Title", "Page Body"); // where 123 is page ID PageRevision revision = (PageRevision)page; // now revision.RevisionID should be a new Guid. Page, PageRevision classes: public class Page { public int ID { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Body { get; set; } } public class PageRevision : Page { public Guid RevisionID { get; set; } public PageRevision() { this.RevisionID = Guid.NewGuid(); } }

    Read the article

  • Best strategies for reading J code

    - by estanford
    I've been using J for a few months now, and I find that reading unfamiliar code (e.g. that I didn't write myself) is one of the most challenging aspects of the language, particularly when it's in tacit. After a while, I came up with this strategy: 1) Copy the code segment into a word document 2) Take each operator from (1) and place it on a separate line, so that it reads vertically 3) Replace each operator with its verbal description in the Vocabulary page 4) Do a rough translation from J syntax into English grammar 5) Use the translation to identify conceptually related components and separate them with line breaks 6) Write a description of what each component from (5) is supposed to do, in plain English prose 7) Write a description of what the whole program is supposed to do, based on (6) 8) Write an explanation of why the code from (1) can be said to represent the design concept from (7). Although I learn a lot from this process, I find it to be rather arduous and time-consuming -- especially if someone designed their program using a concept I never encountered before. So I wonder: do other people in the J community have favorite ways to figure out obscure code? If so, what are the advantages and disadvantages of these methods?

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework: Navigation XML and duplicate page elements

    - by jakenoble
    Hi In XML I'd normal expect the following to be perfectly valid and navigable in a meaningful way using something like PHP's DomDocument: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configdata> <page> <name>Home</name> </page> <page> <name>Log in</name> </page> </configdata> This is not the case when using Zend_Navigation. Each <page> element needs to have a unique name, so you would need to do: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configdata> <page_home> <name>Home</name> </page_home> <page_log_in> <name>Log in</name> </page_log_in> </configdata> This works, but is very annoying. I'd much rather have multiple page elements which can have the same name and can be easily copy and pasted when creating many pages for navigation. Why does each one need a unique name? Is there a way of not having to have a unique name?

    Read the article

  • How to transform huge xml files in java?

    - by fx42
    As the title says it, I have a huge xml file (GBs) <root> <keep> <stuff> ... </stuff> <morestuff> ... </morestuff> </keep> <discard> <stuff> ... </stuff> <morestuff> ... </morestuff> </discard> </root> and I'd like to transform it into a much smaller one which retains only a few of the elements. My parser should do the following: 1. Parse through the file until a relevant element starts. 2. Copy the whole relevant element (with children) to the output file. go to 1. step 1 is easy with SAX and impossible for DOM-parsers. step 2 is annoying with SAX, but easy with the DOM-Parser or XSLT. so what? - is there a neat way to combine SAX and DOM-Parser to do the task?

    Read the article

  • Truncating a file while it's being used (Linux)

    - by Hobo
    I have a process that's writing a lot of data to stdout, which I'm redirecting to a log file. I'd like to limit the size of the file by occasionally copying the current file to a new name and truncating it. My usual techniques of truncating a file, like cp /dev/null file don't work, presumably because the process is using it. Is there some way I can truncate the file? Or delete it and somehow associate the process' stdout with a new file? FWIW, it's a third party product that I can't modify to change its logging model. EDIT redirecting over the file seems to have the same issue as the copy above - the file returns to its previous size next time it's written to: ls -l sample.log ; echo > sample.log ; ls -l sample.log ; sleep 10 ; ls -l sample.log -rw-rw-r-- 1 user group 1291999 Jun 11 2009 sample.log -rw-rw-r-- 1 user group 1 Jun 11 2009 sample.log -rw-rw-r-- 1 user group 1292311 Jun 11 2009 sample.log

    Read the article

  • Mercurial on shared network drive?

    - by user1164199
    Right now I have my repo on my local drive. In order to back it up, I have to copy .hg to a window's network drive. At Is it a good idea to put Mercurial Repository in shared Network drive?, Lasse Karlsen said the repo shouldn't be on a shared folder on a network server because "mercurial cannot reliably hold locks in all situations". Would this still be an issue when the repository is only updated by a single user? If so, can someone explain to me why the corruption happens? A while back our IT had problem setting up a mercurial server. I am very fond of mercurial (it has a great interface and is very easy to work with), but if it's going to be such a pain in the neck to set up for multiple users, I am willing to look for something else. Does anyone have any suggestions (with reasons)? I am looking for a revision control program that has the following attributes: 2. Good interface (allow you to easily see revision and changes to the code over multiple revisions). 3. Work as a local repo or a network repo. 4. IT will feel comfortable installing on their network. Thanks, Stephen

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470  | Next Page >