Search Results

Search found 32130 results on 1286 pages for 'method chaining'.

Page 463/1286 | < Previous Page | 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470  | Next Page >

  • Java XML Output - proper indenting for child items

    - by Dr1Ku
    Hello, I'd like to serialize some simple data model into xml, I've been using the standard java.org.w3c -related code (see below), the indentation is better than no "OutputKeys.INDENT", yet there is one little thing that remains - proper indentation for child elements. I know that this has been asked before on stackoverflow , yet that configuration did not work for me, this is the code I'm using : DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.newDocument(); doc = addItemsToDocument(doc); // The addItemsToDocument method adds childElements to the document. TransformerFactory transformerFactory = TransformerFactory.newInstance(); transformerFactory.setAttribute("indent-number", new Integer(4)); // switching to setAttribute("indent-number", 4); doesn't help Transformer transformer = transformerFactory.newTransformer(); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.METHOD, "xml"); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.INDENT, "yes"); DOMSource source = new DOMSource(doc); StreamResult result = new StreamResult(outFile); // outFile is a regular File outFile = new File("some/path/foo.xml"); transformer.transform(source, result); The output produced is : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <stuffcontainer> <stuff description="something" duration="240" title="abc"> <otherstuff /> </stuff> </stuffcontainer> Whereas I would want it (for more clarity) like : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <stuffcontainer> <stuff description="something" duration="240" title="abc"> <otherstuff /> </stuff> </stuffcontainer> I was just wondering if there is a way of doing this, make it properly indented for the child elements. Thank you in advance ! Happy Easter coding :-) !

    Read the article

  • What does the JS function 'postMessage()' do when called on an html object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. I found adobe talking about this method, but not really explaining it: HTML-PDF communication basics JavaScript in an HTML page can send a message to JavaScript in PDF content by calling the postMessage() method of the DOM object representing the PDF content. Any ideas how this is accomplished?

    Read the article

  • Returning the element number of the longest string in an array

    - by JohnRoberts
    I'm trying to get the longestS method to take the user-inputted array of strings, then return the element number of the longest string in that array. I got it to the point where I was able to return the number of chars in the longest string, but I don't believe that will work for what I need. My problem is that I keep getting incompatible type errors when trying to figure this out. I don't understand the whole data type thing with strings yet. It's confusing me how I go about return a number of the array yet the array is of strings. The main method is fine, I got stuck on the ???? part. { public static void main(String [] args) { Scanner inp = new Scanner( System.in ); String [] responseArr= new String[4]; for (int i=0; i<4; i++) { System.out.println("Enter string "+(i+1)); responseArr[i] = inp.nextLine(); } int highest=longestS(responseArr); } public static int longestS(String[] values) { int largest=0 for( int i = 1; i < values.length; i++ ) { if ( ????? ) } return largest; } }

    Read the article

  • WebClient Lost my Session

    - by kamiar3001
    Hi folks I have a problem first of all look at my web service method : [WebMethod(), ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetPageContent(string VirtualPath) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); string content=string.Empty; client.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; try { if (VirtualPath.IndexOf("______") > 0) content = client.DownloadString(HttpContext.Current.Request.UrlReferrer.AbsoluteUri.Replace("Main.aspx", VirtualPath.Replace("__", "."))); else content = client.DownloadString(HttpContext.Current.Request.UrlReferrer.AbsoluteUri.Replace("Main.aspx", VirtualPath)); } catch { content = "Not Found"; } return content; } As you can see my web service method read and buffer page from it's localhost it works and I use it to add some ajax functionality to my web site it works fine but my problem is Client.DownloadString(..) lost all session because my sessions are all null which are related to this page for more description. at page-load in the page which I want to load from my web service I set session : HttpContext.Current.Session[E_ShopData.Constants.SessionKey_ItemList] = result; but when I click a button in the page this session is null I mean it can't transfer session. How I can solve this problem ? my web service is handled by some jquery code like following : $.ajax({ type: "Post", url: "Services/NewE_ShopServices.asmx" + "/" + "GetPageContent", data: "{" + "VirtualPath" + ":" + mp + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", complete: hideBlocker, success: LoadAjaxSucceeded, async: true, cache: false, error: AjaxFailed });

    Read the article

  • How do I detect if both left and right buttons are pushed?

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I would like have three mouse actions over a control: left, right and BOTH. I've got the left and right and am currently using the middle button for the third, but am curious how I could use the left and right buttons being pressed together, for those situations where the user has a mouse without a middle button. This would be handled in the OnMouseDown method of a custom control. UPDATE After reviewing the suggested answers, I need to clarify that what I was attempting to do was to take action on the mouse click in the MouseDown event (actually OnMouseDown method of a control). Because it appears that .NET will always raise two MouseDown events when both the left and right buttons on the mouse are clicked (one for each button), I'm guessing the only way to do this would be either do some low level windows message management or to implement some sort of delayed execution of an action after MouseDown. In the end, it is just way simpler to use the middle mouse button. Now, if the action took place on MouseUp, then Gary's or nos's suggestions would work well. Any further insights on this problem would be appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • how do call a polymorphic function from an agnostic function?

    - by sds
    I have a method foo void foo (String x) { ... } void foo (Integer x) { ... } and I want to call it from a method which does not care about the argument: void bar (Iterable i) { ... for (Object x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } the code above complains that that foo(Object) is not defined and when I add void foo (Object x) { throw new Exception; } then bar(Iterable<String>) calls that instead of foo(String) and throws the exception. How do I avoid having two textually identical definitions of bar(Iterable<String>) and bar(Iterable<Integer>)? I thought I would be able to get away with something like <T> void bar (Iterable<T> i) { ... for (T x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } but then I get cannot find foo(T) error.

    Read the article

  • How to increase the performance of a loop which runs for every 'n' minutes.

    - by GustlyWind
    Hi Giving small background to my requirement and what i had accomplished so far: There are 18 Scheduler tasks run at regular intervals (least being 30 mins) takes input of nearly 5000 eligible employees run into a static method for iteration and generates a mail content for that employee and mails. An average task takes about 9 min multiplied by 18 will be roughly 162 mins meanwhile there would be next tasks which will be in queue (I assume). So my plan is something like the below loop try { // Handle Arraylist of alerts eligible employees Iterator employee = empIDs.iterator(); while (employee.hasNext()) { ScheduledImplementation.getInstance().sendAlertInfoToEmpForGivenAlertType((Long)employee.next(), configType,schedType); } } catch (Exception vEx) { _log.error("Exception Caught During sending " + configType + " messages:" + configType, vEx); } Since I know how many employees would come to my method I will divide the while loop into two and perform simultaneous operations on two or three employees at a time. Is this possible. Or is there any other ways I can improve the performance. Some of the things I had implemented so far 1.Wherever possible made methods static and variables too Didn't bother to catch exceptions and send back because these are background tasks. (And I assume this improves performance) Get the DB values in one query instead of multiple hits. If am successful in optimizing the while loop I think i can save couple of mins. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do you organise your MVC controller tests?

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I'm looking for tidy suggestions on how people organise their controller tests. For example, take the "add" functionality of my "Address" controller, [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Add() { var editAddress = new DTOEditAddress(); editAddress.Address = new Address(); editAddress.Countries = countryService.GetCountries(); return View("Add", editAddress); } [RequireRole(Role = Role.Write)] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(FormCollection form) { // save code here } I might have a fixture called "when_adding_an_address", however there are two actions i need to test under this title... I don't want to call both actions in my Act() method in my fixture, so I divide the fixture in half, but then how do I name it? "When_adding_an_address_GET" and "When_adding_an_address_POST"? things just seems to be getting messy, quickly. Also, how do you deal with stateless/setupless assertions for controllers, and how do you arrange these wrt the above? for example: [Test] public void the_requesting_user_must_have_write_permissions_to_POST() { Assert.IsTrue(this.SubjectUnderTest.ActionIsProtectedByRole(c => c.Add(null), Role.Write)); } This is custom code i know, but you should get the idea, it simply checks that a filter attribute is present on the method. The point is it doesnt require any Arrange() or Act(). Any tips welcome! Thanks

    Read the article

  • Reloading the model of a TTTableViewController

    - by user341338
    My problem is that I have a Register Controller and a Login Controller. The Login Screen displays a Login Screen or a Logout Screen depending if a user is logged in. Now when a user registers, does not close the app, and then goes to the Login Screen it will still display a Login Screen, although there is a logged in user already. This is because the Screen is created when the application loads and does not change afterwards. I tried doing this: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self invalidateModel]; [self reload]; but that did not work, since it is only called on the first init. then i tried: - (void)viewDidLoad { [self invalidateModel]; [self reload]; } But that method had the same problem. Then I found this method: - (TTNavigationMode)navigationModeForURL:(NSString*)URL; with the following options: typedef enum { TTNavigationModeNone, TTNavigationModeCreate, // a new view controller is created each time TTNavigationModeShare, // a new view controller is created, cached and re-used TTNavigationModeModal, // a new view controller is created and presented modally TTNavigationModeExternal, // an external app will be opened } TTNavigationMode; It seems like TTNavigationModeCreate would be the right thing to use, but I have no clue how to use it. Any help? Thnx.

    Read the article

  • change prototype script to jquery one

    - by steve
    I have this form submit code: Event.observe(window, 'load', init, false); function init() { Event.observe('addressForm', 'submit', storeAddress); } function storeAddress(e) { $('response').innerHTML = 'Adding email address...'; var pars = 'address=' + escape($F('address')); var myAjax = new Ajax.Updater('response', 'ajaxServer.php', {method: 'get', parameters: pars}); Event.stop(e); } How can I change it to work with jQuery? Here is the html form: <form id="addressForm" action="index.php" method="get"> <b>Email:</b> <input type="text" name="address" id="address" size="25"><br> <input name="Submit" value="Submit" type="submit" /> <p id="response"><?php echo(storeAddress()); ?></p> </form> and this is php code at start of document: <?php require_once("inc/storeAddress.php"); ?>

    Read the article

  • Can it be done in a more elegant way with the Swing Timer?

    - by Roman
    Bellow is the code for the simplest GUI countdown. Can the same be done in a shorter and more elegant way with the usage of the Swing timer? import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class CountdownNew { static JLabel label; // Method which defines the appearance of the window. public static void showGUI() { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Simple Countdown"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); label = new JLabel("Some Text"); frame.add(label); frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); } // Define a new thread in which the countdown is counting down. public static Thread counter = new Thread() { public void run() { for (int i=10; i>0; i=i-1) { updateGUI(i,label); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch(InterruptedException e) {}; } } }; // A method which updates GUI (sets a new value of JLabel). private static void updateGUI(final int i, final JLabel label) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater( new Runnable() { public void run() { label.setText("You have " + i + " seconds."); } } ); } public static void main(String[] args) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { showGUI(); counter.start(); } }); } }

    Read the article

  • BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding

    - by Tim
    Mr. Ayende wrote in his latest blog post about an implementation of a queue. In the post he's using two magical files: BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding can write both int and long? using the following method signatures: void WriteBitEncodedNullableInt64(long? value) & void Write7BitEncodedInt(int value) and BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding can read the values written using the following method signatures: long? ReadBitEncodedNullableInt64() and int Read7BitEncodedInt() So far I've only managed to find a way to read the 7BitEncodedInt: protected int Read7BitEncodedInt() { int value = 0; int byteval; int shift = 0; while(((byteval = ReadByte()) & 0x80) != 0) { value |= ((byteval & 0x7F) << shift); shift += 7; } return (value | (byteval << shift)); } I'm not too good with byte shifting - does anybody know how to read and write the 7BitEncoded long? and write the int ?

    Read the article

  • Resolve php "deadlock"

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm currently running into a situation that I guess would be called deadlock. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php Dispatcher.php <? class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } ?> It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

  • Servlet Mapping Help - Possible to Avoid Referencing Context Name?

    - by AJ
    Hi all, I am working on a Spring application and trying to get my URL mapping correct. What I would like to have work is the following: http://localhost:8080/idptest -> doesn't work But instead, I have to reference the context name in my URL in order to resolve the mapping: http://localhost:8080/<context_name>/idptest -> works How can I avoid the requirement of referencing the context name in my URL without using a rewrite/proxy engine e.g. Apache? Here is the servlet definition and mapping from my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/conf/idptest.xml</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Here's the outline of my controller (showing annotations for request mappings): @Controller @RequestMapping("/idptest") public class MyController { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public String setupForm(Model model){ MyObject someObject = new MyObject(); model.addAttribute("someObject", someObject); return "myform"; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String processSubmit(@ModelAttribute("someObject") MyObject someObject) throws Exception { // POST logic... } } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Switching textstorage of NSTextViews back and forth

    - by Jakob Dam Jensen
    I'm trying to make a feature in a product which gives the user the ability to split a textview into two. The way this is done is by removing the textview from it's superview, making a NSSplitView and adding the textview as well as a new NSTextView instance to this splitview. Lastly I make these two textviews share the same textstorage in order to make them share the same content. It works great. But the problem is when I want to make one of the two textviews change textstorage. The replaceTextStorage method in NSLayoutManager causes both NSTextView to change textStorage. The API documentation states: replaceTextStorage: All NSLayoutManager objects sharing the original NSTextStorage object then share the new one. This method makes all the adjustments necessary to keep these relationships intact, unlike setTextStorage:. So it makes sense that it would do this. But the question is how do I make it possible to have two (or more) textviews first share the same storage and after that having them using their own? I've tried replacing the layoutManager and even making new instances of NSTextViews but no luck... Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • TSQL - make a literal float value

    - by David B
    I understand the host of issues in comparing floats, and lament their use in this case - but I'm not the table author and have only a small hurdle to climb... Someone has decided to use floats as you'd expect GUIDs to be used. I need to retrieve all the records with a specific float value. sp_help MyTable -- Column_name Type Computed Length Prec -- RandomGrouping float no 8 53 Here's my naive attempt: --yields no results SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = 0.867153569942739 And here's an approximately working attempt: --yields 2 records SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.867153569942739 - 0.00000001 AND 0.867153569942739 + 0.00000001 -- 0.867153569942739 -- 0.867153569942739 In my naive attempt, is that literal a floating point literal? Or is it really a decimal literal that gets converted later? If my literal is not a floating point literal, what is the syntax for making a floating point literal? EDIT: Another possibility has occurred to me... it may be that a more precise number than is displayed is stored in this column. It may be impossible to create a literal that represents this number. I will accept answers that demonstrate that this is the case. EDIT: response to DVK. TSQL is MSSQLServer's dialect of SQL. This script works, and so equality can be performed deterministically between float types: DECLARE @X float SELECT top 1 @X = RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.839110948199148 - 0.000000000001 AND 0.839110948199148 + 0.000000000001 --yields two records SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = @X I said "approximately" because that method tests for a range. With that method I could get values that are not equal to my intended value. The linked article doesn't apply because I'm not (intentionally) trying to straddle the world boundaries between decimal and float. I'm trying to work with only floats. This isn't about the non-convertibility of decimals to floats.

    Read the article

  • java annotations - problem with calling a locator class from a Vaadin Project

    - by George
    Hello, I'm not sure how to explain this without writing several pages so I hope the actual code is more expressive. I've made a jar containing multiple annotation declaration similar to the following: @Target(ElementType.PACKAGE) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MarkedPackage { } then I have made a test jar containing several classes in several packages and marked just one package with the above annotation (with package-info.java) like below: @myPackage.MarkedPackage package package.test.jar; this jar had in its build path the jar containing the annotations. then I made a static class that has a method (LoadPlugins) that retrieves a list with all the jars of a directory. Then it searches through the jars for the 'package-info' class and checks if that classes package contains the MarkedPackage annotation. by calling this: if (checkPackageAnnotation(thisClass.getPackage())) where thisClass is the package-info class retrieved via a classloader. and: public static boolean checkPackageAnnotation(AnnotatedElement elem) { System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); if (elem == null || !elem.isAnnotationPresent(MarkedPackage.class)) return false; return true; } the elem.getAnnotatios().length is there for debug purposes. And the problem appears when I call the method from the static class: if I call it from a main function: public class MyMain { public static void main(String[] args){ PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } } everything works perfectly it displays '1' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); But if I call it from a button from my Vaadin project: header.addComponent(new Button("CallThat", new Button.ClickListener() { public void buttonClick(ClickEvent event) { PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } })); It displays '0' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); Also I should mention that I created the main inside my Vaadin project so it would have the exact same build path and resources. Is there a problem with web applications and that "@Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME)" ? hope I was clear enough... Hope someone has a solution for me... If you need more information - let me know. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • WPF-Can a XAML object be a source as well as a target for bindings?

    - by iambic77
    I was wondering if it's possible to have a TextBlock as a target and a source? Basically I have a bunch of entities which have simple relationships to other entities (like Entity1 Knows Entity3, Entity3 WorksAt Entity2 etc.) I have a Link class that stores SourceEntity, Relationship and TargetEntity details. What I want to be able to do is to select an entity then display the relationships related to that entity, with the target entities of each relationship listed underneath the relationship names. When an entity is selected, an ObservableCollection is populated with the Links for that particular entity (SelectedEntityLinks<Link>). Because each entity could have the same relationship to more than one target entity (Entity1 could know both Entity3 and Entity4 for eg.), I've created a method GetThisRelationshipEntities() that takes a relationship name as a parameter, looks through SelectedEntityLinks for relationship names that match the parameter, and returns an ObservableCollection with the target entities of that relationship. Hope I'm making this clear. In my xaml I have a WrapPanel to display each relationship name in a TextBlock: <TextBlock x:Name="relationship" Text="{Binding Path=Relationship.Name}" /> Then underneath that another Textblock which should display the results of GetThisRelationshipEntities(String relationshipName). So I want the "relationship" TextBlock to both get its Text from the binding I've shown above, but also to provide its Text as a parameter to the GetThisRelationshipEntities() method which I've added to <UserControl.Resources> as an ObjectDataProvider. Sorry if this is a bit wordy but I hope it's clear. Any pointers/advice would be great. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

    Read the article

  • How do I tell if an action is a lambda expression?

    - by Keith
    I am using the EventAgregator pattern to subscribe and publish events. If a user subscribes to the event using a lambda expression, they must use a strong reference, not a weak reference, otherwise the expression can be garbage collected before the publish will execute. I wanted to add a simple check in the DelegateReference so that if a programmer passes in a lambda expression and is using a weak reference, that I throw an argument exception. This is to help "police" the code. Example: eventAggregator.GetEvent<RuleScheduler.JobExecutedEvent>().Subscribe ( e => resetEvent.Set(), ThreadOption.PublisherThread, false, // filter event, only interested in the job that this object started e => e.Value1.JobDetail.Name == jobName ); public DelegateReference(Delegate @delegate, bool keepReferenceAlive) { if (@delegate == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("delegate"); if (keepReferenceAlive) { this._delegate = @delegate; } else { //TODO: throw exception if target is a lambda expression _weakReference = new WeakReference(@delegate.Target); _method = @delegate.Method; _delegateType = @delegate.GetType(); } } any ideas? I thought I could check for @delegate.Method.IsStatic but I don't believe that works... (is every lambda expression a static?)

    Read the article

  • .NET Web Service hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

    Read the article

  • how to restart a Thread?

    - by wizztjh
    It is a RMI Server object , so many sethumanActivity() might be run , how do i make sure the previous changeToFalse thread will be stop or halt before the new changeToFalse run? t. interrupt ? Basically when sethumanActivity() is invoke , the humanActivity will be set to true , but a thread will be run to set it back to false. But I am thinking for how to disable or kill the thread when another sethumanActivity() invoked? public class VitaminDEngine implements VitaminD { public boolean humanActivity = false; changeToFalse cf = new changeToFalse(); Thread t = new Thread(cf); private class changeToFalse implements Runnable{ @Override public void run() { try { Thread.sleep(4000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } humanActivity = false; } } @Override public void sethumanActivity() throws RemoteException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub humanActivity = true; t.start(); } public boolean gethumanActivity() throws RemoteException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return humanActivity; } } Edited after the help of SOer package smartOfficeJava; import java.rmi.RemoteException; import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class VitaminDEngine implements VitaminD { public volatile boolean humanActivity = false; changeToFalse cf = new changeToFalse(); ExecutorService service = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); private class changeToFalse implements Runnable{ @Override public void run() { try { Thread.sleep(4000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } humanActivity = false; } } @Override public synchronized void sethumanActivity() throws RemoteException { humanActivity = true; service.submit(cf); } public synchronized boolean gethumanActivity() throws RemoteException { return humanActivity; } }

    Read the article

  • NetBeans parameter fill after code completion

    - by byte
    This is a particularly annoying problem I'm having, and I can't be the only one to have issue with it. In NetBeans, when you type part of a method, then hit CTRL-SPACE, it displays the code-completion popup, whereupon you can hit tab to finish out the word. This is great, and pretty much how all IDE's operate. Example: Thread.sl < CTRL-SPACE Thread.sleep Yay! Problem is that in this context, once you type in a paren, it auto-fills the parameters for the method with their default names, and inserts a closing paren (regardless of whether you have disabled the option to automatically close them on the preferences page for code completion). This behavior is NOT present if you had manually typed out the full name. How is this helpful to anyone? You've got to type over it your actual variable that you will be passing, and NetBeans gives you no option to prevent the closing paren on code-completion. Does anyone have a way to solve this issue, without having to dive into the netbeans source and build it just for this minor of an issue?

    Read the article

  • Resolve php endless recursion issue

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm currently running into an endless recursion situation. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. I'm looking for some kind of queue implementation that will make messages wait for each other.. One where the return values still get set. I'm looking to have as little boilerplate code in class A and class B as possible Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

  • jsf messed up links

    - by Mateusz
    I'm new to JSF. My application is working, but I'm confused with links in browser when using controller. BTW, there is also PrimeFaces in my app so don't be suprised with p: tags. Let's say I have 'list' and 'show' pages with controller doing redirection between them. First I'm on http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. There is link created with line <p:commandLink action="#{lazyConversationBean.doShow(conv)}" ajax="false" value="View"/>. lazyConversationBean acts here as my Controller. There is method: public String doShow(Conversation c) { this.setSelectedConversation(c); return "view"; } from which I got redirected to ...... again http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml (browser shows it) even when it's correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml page. There I have link <p:commandButton action="#{lazyConversationBean.doList()}" ajax="false" value="Back to list"/> and again controller has method: public String doList() { return "list"; } from which I got redirected to ... yeah, you guessed right ... http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/view.xhtml (that is again what browser shows) even when again it is correct http://localhost:8080/y/r/conversation/list.xhtml page. It seams as browser link area is always one step behind page currently being displayed. I don't even know if it's some incorrect behaviour as I have no idea how to query google for this :D Just for test I did this short tutorial, where netbeans created whole stack of code on one of my entities, and behaviour was the same, so it's not PrimeFaces magic related. Can you tell my why it happens, and how to fix it? Users likes to copy correct links ;)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470  | Next Page >