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  • Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

    - by Scarface
    First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • jQuery's draggable grid

    - by Art
    It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

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  • how to share a variable between two threads

    - by prmatta
    I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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  • Is it possible to navigate to the parent node of a matched node during XSLT processing?

    - by Darin
    I'm working with an OpenXML document, processing the main document part with some XSLT. I've selected a set of nodes via <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> </xsl:template> In most cases, I simply need to replace that matched node with something else, and that works fine. BUT, in some cases, I need to replace not the w:sdt node that matched, but the closest w:p ancestor node (ie the first paragraph node that contains the sdt node). The trick is that the condition used to decide one or the other is based on data derived from the attributes of the sdt node, so I can't use a typical xslt xpath filter. I'm trying to do something like this <xsl:template match="w:sdt"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test={first condition}> {apply whatever templating is necessary} </xsl:when> <xsl:when test={exception condition}> <!-- select the parent of the ancestor w:p nodes and apply the appropriate templates --> <xsl:apply-templates select="(ancestor::w:p)/.." mode="backout" /> </xsl:when> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <!-- by using "mode", only this template will be applied to those matching nodes from the apply-templates above --> <xsl:template match="node()" mode="backout"> {CUSTOM FORMAT the node appropriately} </xsl:template> This whole concept works, BUT no matter what I've tried, It always applies the formatting from the CUSTOM FORMAT template to the w:p node, NOT it's parent node. It's almost as if you can't reference a parent from a matching node. And maybe you can't, but I haven't found any docs that say you can't Any ideas?

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  • dynamic LinkButton OnClick event not working on ASP.Net

    - by user1004472
    I want to create dynamic LinkButton for image, <img> tag is not working dynamically so I am using LinkButton with image. I don't want to provide ID to LinkButton because I want to generate more LinkButton dynamically. I am using following code in Default.aspx <%@ Page Language="C#"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write(@"<asp:LinkButton runat=""server"" OnClick=""btn_click""><img src=""close-icon (1).png"" /></asp:LinkButton>"); } public void btn_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HELLO"); } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> </div> </form> </body> </html> I also tried to write tag code in Default.aspx.cs file but not work. It's showing me following error. Error 1 'ASP.default_aspx' does not contain a definition for 'img_Click' and no extension method 'img_Click' accepting a first argument of type 'ASP.default_aspx' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Please help me to solve this problem.

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  • Another developer revoked and re-created my client's iOS Distribution Certificate - does this mean I can never update my client's existing app?

    - by Schnapple
    Here is the story so far: A client hired us to do an iPhone app for them. This client had never done an iPhone app before and as part of the arrangement we handled all aspects for them, including app store submission, and we handle some level of future development (new features, bug/security fixes, etc.) We created a Distribution certificate and key pair on the client's behalf We developed the app, published it to the App Store without incident Some time later the client hired a second developer to do a different app for them This second developer, it appears, has revoked the existing Distribution certificate and created a new one with a new key pair on their system This second developer shared the new Distribution certificate and key pair with us for future reference. Due to user error, this new certificate and key pair has now been imported onto the Macintosh where the original certificate and key pair for the original app we developed were created and the originals were not backed up. So we have App #1 on the App Store with Distribution certificate/key pair #1 App #2 either on the App Store or soon to be using Distribution certificate/key pair #2 Distribution certificate/key pair #1 appears to be lost now So my question is: if we ever need to update App #1, will we be able to, using Distribution certificate/key pair #2? Or will we have to upload it as a new app?

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  • Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

    - by David Stratton
    Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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  • MySQL " identify storage engine statement"

    - by sammysmall
    This IS NOT a Homework question! While building my current student database project I realized that I may want to identify comprehensive information about a database design in the future. More-so if I am fortunate enough to get a job in this field and were handed a database project how could I break down certain elements for identification... In all of my previous designs I have been using MySQL Community Server (GPL) 5.1.42, I thought (duh) that I was using the MyISAM based on most of my text-book instruction and MySQL 5.0 Reference Manual :: 13 Storage Engines :: 13.1 The MyISAM Storage Engine I determined that this was in fact incorrect for this version and the use of "SHOW ENGINES" at the console... No problem, figured out why they have "versions" the need to pay attention to what version is being used, and the need for a means to determine what I am about to mess up "if" I do not pay attention to detail... Q1. Specifically what statement will identify the version used by someone elses initial database creation? (since I created my own databases I know what version I used) Q2. Specifically what statement will identify the storage engine that the developer used when creating the database. (I specified a particular database in my collection then tried SHOW Engine, did not work, then tried to just get the metadata from one table in that database: mysql SELECT duck_cust, table_type, engine - FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.tables - WHERE table_schema = 'tp' - ORDER BY table_type ASC, table_name DESC; as this was not really what I wanted (and did not work) I am looking for some direction from the pros... Q3. (If you really have the inclination to continue helping) If I were to access a database from an earlier/later "version" are there backward/forward compatibility issues for maintaining/updating data between versions? Please and Thank you in advance for your time and efforts! sammysmall

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • SQL Server error handling: exceptions and the database-client contract

    - by gbn
    We’re a team of SQL Servers database developers. Our clients are a mixed bag of C#/ASP.NET, C# and Java web services, Java/Unix services and some Excel. Our client developers only use stored procedures that we provide and we expect that (where sensible, of course) they treat them like web service methods. Some our client developers don’t like SQL exceptions. They understand them in their languages but they don’t appreciate that the SQL is limited in how we can communicate issues. I don’t just mean SQL errors, such as trying to insert “bob” into a int column. I also mean exceptions such as telling them that a reference value is wrong, or that data has already changed, or they can’t do this because his aggregate is not zero. They’d don’t really have any concrete alternatives: they’ve mentioned that we should output parameters, but we assume an exception means “processing stopped/rolled back. How do folks here handle the database-client contract? Either generally or where there is separation between the DB and client code monkeys. Edits: we use SQL Server 2005 TRY/CATCH exclusively we log all errors after the rollback to an exception table already we're concerned that some of our clients won't check output paramaters and assume everything is OK. We need errors flagged up for support to look at. everything is an exception... the clients are expected to do some message parsing to separate information vs errors. To separate our exceptions from DB engine and calling errors, they should use the error number (ours are all 50,000 of course)

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  • Looping over commits for a file with jGit

    - by Andy Jarrett
    I've managed to get to grips with the basics of jGit file in terms of connecting to a repos and adding, commiting, and even looping of the commit messages for the files. File gitDir = new File("/Users/myname/Sites/helloworld/.git"); RepositoryBuilder builder = new RepositoryBuilder(); Repository repository; repository = builder.setGitDir(gitDir).readEnvironment() .findGitDir().build(); Git git = new Git(repository); RevWalk walk = new RevWalk(repository); RevCommit commit = null; // Add all files // AddCommand add = git.add(); // add.addFilepattern(".").call(); // Commit them // CommitCommand commit = git.commit(); // commit.setMessage("Commiting from java").call(); Iterable<RevCommit> logs = git.log().call(); Iterator<RevCommit> i = logs.iterator(); while (i.hasNext()) { commit = walk.parseCommit( i.next() ); System.out.println( commit.getFullMessage() ); } What I want to do next is be able to get all the commit message for a single file and then be able revert the single file back to a specific reference/point in time.

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  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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  • How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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  • ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

    - by Colin
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

    - by Steve
    I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • Disable ARC with Xcode 5

    - by user2187565
    First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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