Search Results

Search found 14124 results on 565 pages for 'auto generated'.

Page 466/565 | < Previous Page | 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473  | Next Page >

  • iphone crash log with dSym not loading debug information

    - by AngeDeLaMort
    Hello, I was trying to see why my application crashed on the device (iPhone) using the dSym generated along the executable (in ad hoc), but I don't know why, there isn't any useful information. It seems that "Organizer" is able to find the appropriate dSym and translate some data into more readable one, but when it comes to my application, I just have an address. Since I know how to reproduce it, I've tried to setup my build so it can help me in the future. So, I've tried to find if I had all the proper flags set int the project build properties and everything seems fine. So after doing some research, it seems that all information are stripped during link time and the dSym seems completely useless. I've played with some flags, but nothing changed. So, is there something special to do in order to get the crash file human readable? Or is it impossible in the ad hoc setting? The closest thing near to work that I've done was to build a debug version and look up the address in it. At least it seems to give the right file. So, I made a sample app and here what I have: (the line I want is #4): Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00003ebc objc_msgSend + 20 1 UIKit 0x0005c970 -[UIView dealloc] + 60 2 UIKit 0x0005c840 -[UIImageView dealloc] + 76 3 CoreFoundation 0x0003963a -[NSObject release] + 28 4 MyApplication 0x000046a6 0x1000 + 13990 5 UIKit 0x00069750 -[UIViewController view] + 44 6 MyApplication 0x000053fa 0x1000 + 17402 The crash is made using 2 successive releases on an object. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate fires SQL commands

    - by Chris
    Hi all, when updating an entity A, NHibernate also send an SQL update command for some other entity B. A and B are not related. Just before saving entity A, the parent of entity B is loaded via a SQLQuery. Then, when accessed, B is lazy loaded (part of a collection). If I save entity A an update statement for entity B is generated as well. How can that be, that when saving an entity, another entity loaded before but is not related to the entity saved, is updated as well?! Can I somehow track where the update comes from? Btw. I am using an save event listener. Could it be that this is always triggered for entity loaded, even though they are not saved explicitly? public class EntitySaveEventListener : NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener { protected override object PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent e) { //auditing return base.PerformSaveOrUpdate(e); } } Update (sorry for providing not enough info): I tracked it down a bit. A select stateement on a entity called address is executed (is it lazy loaded by a parent). Then I create a new entity called Request. Right before saving this entity a session flush is called which updates the address, even though I did not call save or update on the address. Address is a collection within Request. <class name="Request" table="Request"> <bag name="addresses" access="field" cascade="all-delete-orphan" where="IsDeleted = 0"> <key column="RequestId"/> <one-to-many class="Address"/> </bag> ... // address is fetched only NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:21,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - SELECT addresses0_.RequestId as ServiceP8_3_, .... // session flushed here // address is updated NHibernate.SQL: 2010-02-17 11:47:34,306 [21] DEBUG NHibernate.SQL [(null)] - Batch commands: command 0:UPDATE Address SET Street = @p0, ..... Would the address be updated automatically when it is manipulated somehow even though it is not explicitly saved via it's parent (cascade)?

    Read the article

  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

    Read the article

  • questions about name mangling in C++

    - by Tim
    I am trying to learn and understand name mangling in C++. Here are some questions: (1) From devx When a global function is overloaded, the generated mangled name for each overloaded version is unique. Name mangling is also applied to variables. Thus, a local variable and a global variable with the same user-given name still get distinct mangled names. Are there other examples that are using name mangling, besides overloading functions and same-name global and local variables ? (2) From Wiki The need arises where the language allows different entities to be named with the same identifier as long as they occupy a different namespace (where a namespace is typically defined by a module, class, or explicit namespace directive). I don't quite understand why name mangling is only applied to the cases when the identifiers belong to different namespaces, since overloading functions can be in the same namespace and same-name global and local variables can also be in the same space. How to understand this? Do variables with same name but in different scopes also use name mangling? (3) Does C have name mangling? If it does not, how can it deal with the case when some global and local variables have the same name? C does not have overloading functions, right? Thanks and regards!

    Read the article

  • How do I send text to a UITextView?

    - by Lee
    I'm new to iphone development. I'm a VB programmer who is trying to convert a VB application to an ipad app. I need some help with sending text to a UITextView. I want to first have a UIPickerView and then once the user hits a UIButton, a UITextView appears and the text is then generated by my source code code, line by line. The code would constantly be concatenating strings to the text. It would sort of go like this-- 1) User makes selections with UIPickerView. 2) User then hits UIButton. 3) UIPickerView is replaced on the screen with a UITextView. 4) The code does stuff. 5) The code adds the 1st line of text into the UITextView. 6) The code does more stuff. 7) The code then adds the 2nd line of text into the UITextView, retaining the 1st line that was already there. Steps 6 and 7 are repeated until the code is done. Does anyone know of any examples of this that I could look at? I am mostly interested in finding something like a youtube video, a webpage that explains the code or even a good book that covers this particular topic. I am finding that the sample codes that Apple has on this site goes over my head. In fact, I could probably benefit from a good book. But, I am looking for one that I would already know covers this particular topic, since it is so essential to the app that I am trying to build.

    Read the article

  • Error when loading YAML config files in Rails

    - by ZelluX
    I am configuring Rails with MongoDB, and find a strange problem when paring config/mongo.yml file. config/mongo.yml is generated by executing script/rails generate mongo_mapper:config, and it looks like following: defaults: &defaults host: 127.0.0.1 port: 27017 development: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_development test: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_test From the config file we can see the objects development and test should both have a database field. But when it is parsed and loaded in config/initializers/mongo.db, config = YAML::load(File.read(Rails.root.join('config/mongo.yml'))) puts config.inspect MongoMapper.setup(config, Rails.env) the strange thing comes: the output of puts config.inspect is {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}} which does not contain database attribute. But when I execute the same statements in a plain ruby console, instead of using rails console, mongo.yml is parsed in a right way. {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_development"}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_test"}} I am wondering what may be the cause of this problem. Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • How do I make a third party .jar available to my .jsp page?

    - by Matthew
    I'm just starting to learn JSP (and I'm pretty new to Java in general), and I'd like to use JSON-lib with it. I want to make a page something like this: <%@ page import="net.sf.json.JSONObject"%> <% String json = new JSONObject().put("hello", "world").toString(); out.println(json); %> I downloaded json-lib-2.3-jdk15.jar and put it in the same directory as the .jsp page. But I get this error org.apache.jasper.JasperException: Unable to compile class for JSP: An error occurred at line: 6 in the generated java file Only a type can be imported. net.sf.json.JSONObject resolves to a package An error occurred at line: 3 in the jsp file: /getCard.jsp JSONObject cannot be resolved to a type 1: <%@ page import="net.sf.json.JSONObject" %> 2: <% 3: String json = new JSONObject().put("hello", "world").toString(); 4: out.println(json); 5: %> 6: How do I make the JSONObject class available to my .jsp page?

    Read the article

  • Implementing eval and load functions inside a scripting engine with Flex and Bison.

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hy guys, i'm developing a scripting engine with flex and bison and now i'm implementing the eval and load functions for this language. Just to give you an example, the syntax is like : import std.*; load( "some_script.hy" ); eval( "foo = 123;" ); println( foo ); So, in my lexer i've implemented the function : void hyb_parse_string( const char *str ){ extern int yyparse(void); YY_BUFFER_STATE prev, next; /* * Save current buffer. */ prev = YY_CURRENT_BUFFER; /* * yy_scan_string will call yy_switch_to_buffer. */ next = yy_scan_string( str ); /* * Do actual parsing (yyparse calls yylex). */ yyparse(); /* * Restore previous buffer. */ yy_switch_to_buffer(prev); } But it does not seem to work. Well, it does but when the string (loaded from a file or directly evaluated) is finished, i get a sigsegv : Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0xb7f2b801 in yylex () at src/lexer.cpp:1658 1658 if ( YY_CURRENT_BUFFER_LVALUE->yy_buffer_status == YY_BUFFER_NEW ) As you may notice, the sigsegv is generated by the flex/bison code, not mine ... any hints, or at least any example on how to implement those kind of functions? PS: I've succesfully implemented the include directive, but i need eval and load to work not at parsing time but execution time (kind of PHP's include/require directives).

    Read the article

  • How do I use a variable within an extended class public variable

    - by Gerry Humphrey
    Have a class that I am using, I am overriding variables in the class to change them to what values I need, but I also not sure if or how to handle an issue. I need to add a key that is generated to each of this URLs before the class calls them. I cannot modify the class file itself. use Theme/Ride class ETicket extends Ride { public $key='US20120303'; // Not in original class public $accessURL1 = 'http://domain.com/keycheck.php?key='.$key; public $accessURL2 = 'http://domain.com/keycheck.php?key='.$key; } I understand that you cannot use a variable in the setting of the public class variables. Just not sure what would be the way to actually do something like this in the proper format. My OOP skills are weak. I admit it. So if someone has a suggestion on where I could read up on it and get a clue, it would be appreciated as well. I guess I need OOP for Dummies. =/

    Read the article

  • Microsoft products such as Visual Studio 2010 does not require to enter serial number

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I am member of WebsiteSpark and was member of DreamSpark. Both programs enable to download software and provide serial keys to use. Some software like Windows Server has an ISO file to download and a serial number displayed on the website which I must enter during installation. Some other software does not have any serial key. For example, when I downloaded Visual Studio 2010, there was just a link to an ISO file. During installation, there was no such a field as serial number (whereas Visual Studio 2008 had this field at the beginning of installation process). There is the same thing with SQL Server 2008 and Microsoft Expression Studio 3. Even when I've downloaded the public trial RTM version of Windows Seven Enterprise, there were no serial number to enter. I don't think that such expensive products as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise are delivered without serials and online validation, so I suppose that the serial is embedded into the product itself, either in installation binaries or in a separate config file, so is already in the ISO I download so I do not have to enter it. So my question is, how it is done technically? Is each 2 GBs ISO generated on-demand on the server to embed a serial each time this ISO is requested? I suppose that if it is done, it has a huge impact on servers performance (no caching, no streaming...), so what may be the techniques used behind? I want to implement the same feature in a product I intend to ship (to simplify installation by avoiding to ask to enter serial number), but I really don't see how to do it with low impact on server performance.

    Read the article

  • Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • how can we apply client side validation on fileupload control in ASP.NET to check filename contain s

    - by subodh
    I am working on ASP.NET3.5 platform. I have used a file upload control and a asp button to upload a file. Whenever i try to upload a file which contain special characterlike (file#&%.txt) it show crash and give the messeage Server Error in 'myapplication' Application. A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpRequestValidationException: A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. how can i prevent this crash using javascript at client side?

    Read the article

  • Eclipse Java Content Assist not working

    - by Damo
    The Content Assist in Eclipse 3.4 and 3.5 has stopped working for me. When I type in the first few characters of a class and hit CRTL-space then after a delay I get the following error message It does not matter what proposals I enable/disable, I will get this (or similar) message. I have tried: Changing the Xms/Xmx values Starting Eclipse with -clean Creating a new workspace and importing my projects However none of these have worked. I have seen some posts suggesting that other apps may be taking over the CRTL-space or otherwise interfering, however I have nothing aside from a fresh Eclipse running and the problem persists. My problem is very similar to the one covered in this post albeit on a later version and on OSX 10.5.7. Does anyone have any suggestions for how this might be resolved? Thanks. UPDATE: To anyone interested I've had the best results by using Eclipse 3.5 Classic (ie. doesn't include Mylyn). I've also used the settings specified in the bug reports linked to by VonC below. Interestingly Classic doesn't come with some views eg. Snippets, but these are easy to drop in from another distro. UPDATE 2: This problem actually persisted even with the latest versions of Eclipse (3.6 M1). It is caused by a large JAR file generated my Altova Mapforce to handle EDIFACT transformations in our application. It is reproducible by adding this JAR to the buildpath and no changes to Content Assist settings help. The bug (and JAR) can be seen at https://bugs.eclipse.org/bugs/show_bug.cgi?id=289057

    Read the article

  • POST a form in an iframe.

    - by Stavros Korokithakis
    I would like to POST a form in an iframe, generated like so: My JS loads an iframe inside the page, adds a form to the iframe and submits the form. What I would like to happen is the iframe to load the result of that request. So, I would effectively like to post a form and render the result inside the iframe, without touching the parent (apart from putting the iframe up for display in the first place). I am using the code from this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133925/javascript-post-request-like-a-form-submit/134003#134003 but I can't get it to not reload the parent. I post the form, and instead of the iframe refreshing, the entire parent refreshes. I don't know why that is, since the url it's posting to is different and would at least redirect there. Can anyone help me with this problem? I just want a post inside an iframe and only within the iframe, basically. EDIT: After some more research, apparently the form is not being created properly. I'm using document.createElement("form") and then document.getElementById("my_iframe_id").appendChild(form) to append it, but it does not seem to be working correctly.

    Read the article

  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

    Read the article

  • One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints in SQL Script

    - by Musikero31
    Need help on this. I'm just wondering why this error occurred. Below is the script concerned. SELECT loc.ID ,loc.LocCode ,loc.LocName ,st.StateName ,reg.RegionName ,ctry.CountryName ,ISNULL(CONVERT(DATE, loc.UpdatedDate), CONVERT(DATE,loc.CreatedDate)) AS [ModifiedDate] ,stf.Name AS [ModifiedBy] FROM Spkr_Country AS ctry WITH (NOLOCK) INNER JOIN Spkr_Location AS loc WITH (NOLOCK) ON ctry.ID = loc.CountryID INNER JOIN Spkr_State AS st WITH (NOLOCK) ON loc.StateID = st.ID INNER JOIN Spkr_Region AS reg WITH (NOLOCK) ON loc.RegionID = reg.ID INNER JOIN Staff AS stf ON ISNULL(loc.UpdatedBy, loc.CreatedBy) = stf.StaffId WHERE (loc.IsActive = 1) AND ( (@LocCode = '') OR ( @LocCode <> '' AND loc.LocCode LIKE @LocCode + '%' ) ) AND ( (@RegionID < 1) OR ( @RegionID > 0 AND loc.RegionID = @RegionID ) ) AND ( (@StateID < 1) OR ( @StateID > 0 AND loc.StateID = @StateID ) ) AND ( (@CountryID < 1) OR ( @CountryID > 0 AND loc.CountryID = @CountryID ) ) The error probably occurred here INNER JOIN Staff AS stf ON ISNULL(loc.UpdatedBy, loc.CreatedBy) = stf.StaffId The requirement that I wanted is that if the loc.UpdatedBy is null, it will use the loc.CreatedBy column. However, when I used this, it generated the error mentioned. In the database, the loc.CreatedBy is not null while the loc.UpdatedBy is nullable. I checked it by running the script but it's working fine. How do I do with it? What's wrong with my code? Please help.

    Read the article

  • xsd.exe creating invalid constraints in dataset from xsd file

    - by Dan Neely
    I have a sequence with an allowed minimum length of zero in my xsd. When I try and load an xml file which doesn't have any elements of the sequence into the DataSet that xsd.exe created I get an exception indicating that my file violated one of the DataSet's constraints. The xml file validates against the schema so I know it's valid. Is there anything I can do to make the tool generate a valid dataset? <xs:sequence minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element name="Numbers" type="xs:double"/> </xs:sequence> Edit: if I change my schema to this the generated code works properly. It looks wrong to me though since it appears to be implying that I could have sequence items with nothing in them, which doesn't make any sense. <xs:sequence minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element name="Numbers" type="xs:double" minOccurs="0"/> </xs:sequence>

    Read the article

  • What techniques can be used to detect so called "black holes" (a spider trap) when creating a web crawler?

    - by Tom
    When creating a web crawler, you have to design somekind of system that gathers links and add them to a queue. Some, if not most, of these links will be dynamic, which appear to be different, but do not add any value as they are specifically created to fool crawlers. An example: We tell our crawler to crawl the domain evil.com by entering an initial lookup URL. Lets assume we let it crawl the front page initially, evil.com/index The returned HTML will contain several "unique" links: evil.com/somePageOne evil.com/somePageTwo evil.com/somePageThree The crawler will add these to the buffer of uncrawled URLs. When somePageOne is being crawled, the crawler receives more URLs: evil.com/someSubPageOne evil.com/someSubPageTwo These appear to be unique, and so they are. They are unique in the sense that the returned content is different from previous pages and that the URL is new to the crawler, however it appears that this is only because the developer has made a "loop trap" or "black hole". The crawler will add this new sub page, and the sub page will have another sub page, which will also be added. This process can go on infinitely. The content of each page is unique, but totally useless (it is randomly generated text, or text pulled from a random source). Our crawler will keep finding new pages, which we actually are not interested in. These loop traps are very difficult to find, and if your crawler does not have anything to prevent them in place, it will get stuck on a certain domain for infinity. My question is, what techniques can be used to detect so called black holes? One of the most common answers I have heard is the introduction of a limit on the amount of pages to be crawled. However, I cannot see how this can be a reliable technique when you do not know what kind of site is to be crawled. A legit site, like Wikipedia, can have hundreds of thousands of pages. Such limit could return a false positive for these kind of sites. Any feedback is appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • .NET Web Service hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

    Read the article

  • URL shortening: using inode as short name?

    - by Licky Lindsay
    The site I am working on wants to generate its own shortened URLs rather than rely on a third party like tinyurl or bit.ly. Obviously I could keep a running count new URLs as they are added to the site and use that to generate the short URLs. But I am trying to avoid that if possible since it seems like a lot of work just to make this one thing work. As the things that need short URLs are all real physical files on the webserver my current solution is to use their inode numbers as those are already generated for me ready to use and guaranteed to be unique. function short_name($file) { $ino = @fileinode($file); $s = base_convert($ino, 10, 36); return $s; } This seems to work. Question is, what can I do to make the short URL even shorter? On the system where this is being used, the inodes for newly added files are in a range that makes the function above return a string 7 characters long. Can I safely throw away some (half?) of the bits of the inode? And if so, should it be the high bits or the low bits? I thought of using the crc32 of the filename, but that actually makes my short names longer than using the inode. Would something like this have any risk of collisions? I've been able to get down to single digits by picking the right value of "$referencefile". function short_name($file) { $ino = @fileinode($file); // arbitrarily selected pre-existing file, // as all newer files will have higher inodes $ino = $ino - @fileinode($referencefile); $s = base_convert($ino, 10, 36); return $s; }

    Read the article

  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

    Read the article

  • Configurating JOOMLA's e-mail notification for new account

    - by Dion
    I'm using Joomla 1.5 to create a local site for my office. The site will be accessed locally via intranet, and my PC will be the localhost for the site. I'm using a Login pluggin, so that anyone who wanted to enter the site should create an account. In JOOMLA, all user who created their account for the first time will receive a notification e-mail like : "Hello pras, You have been added as a User to Information Center by an Administrator. This e-mail contains your username and password to log in to http://localhost/yaddayadda/ Username: hadisuryo.prasetio Password: xxxx Please do not respond to this message as it is automatically generated and is for information purposes only." but if the user click the URL in the mail, which is, "localhost/yaddayadda/" they will not be directed to my site, but to their own PC's localhost.... My question is : How can I Modified the e-mail or the site configuration so that the URL will not be "localhost/yaddayadda/" anymore, but will be "(My-IP adress)/yaddayadda" I'm not going to host my site to a web hosting service, just using my PC as a host. I've been trying to trace on each config and .ini files...it seems that i have to do something with the "JURI" function or the "$mosConfig_live_site" on the backlink.php file $mosConfig_absolute_path = JPATH_SITE; $mosConfig_live_site = JURI :: base(); $url_array = explode('/', $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); Can anyone give me assistance ? Thank You

    Read the article

  • Am I using handlers in the wrong way?

    - by superexsl
    Hey, I've never used HTTP Handlers before, and I've got one working, but I'm not sure if I'm actually using it properly. I have generated a string which will be saved as a CSV file. When the user clicks a button, I want the download dialog box to open so that the user can save the file. What I have works, but I keep reading about modifying the web.config file and I haven't had to do that. My Handler: private string _data; private string _title = "temp"; public void AddData(string data) { _data = data; } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.ContentType = "text/csv"; context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "filename=" + _title + ".csv"); context.Response.Write(_data); context.Response.Flush(); context.Response.Close(); } And this is from the page that allows the user to download: (on button click) string dataToConvert = "MYCSVDATA...."; csvHandler handler = new csvHandler(); handler.AddData(dataToConvert); handler.ProcessRequest(this.Context); This works fine, but no examples I've seen ever instantiate the handler and always seem to modify the web.config. Am I doing something wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473  | Next Page >