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  • radvd is not assigning prefix

    - by Samik
    I'm currently trying to setup IPv6 address auto-configuration with router advertisement daemon (radvd) on a virtual machine running CentOS 6.5. But the eth0 interface is not obtaining that prefix. I've obtained the ULA prefix from here. Contents of /etc/sysctl.conf # Kernel sysctl configuration file for Red Hat Linux # # For binary values, 0 is disabled, 1 is enabled. See sysctl(8) and # sysctl.conf(5) for more details. # Controls IP packet forwarding net.ipv4.ip_forward = 0 net.ipv6.conf.all.forwarding = 1 # Controls source route verification net.ipv4.conf.default.rp_filter = 1 # Do not accept source routing net.ipv4.conf.default.accept_source_route = 0 # Controls the System Request debugging functionality of the kernel kernel.sysrq = 0 # Controls whether core dumps will append the PID to the core filename. # Useful for debugging multi-threaded applications. kernel.core_uses_pid = 1 # Controls the use of TCP syncookies net.ipv4.tcp_syncookies = 1 # Disable netfilter on bridges. net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-ip6tables = 0 net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-iptables = 0 net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-arptables = 0 # Controls the default maxmimum size of a mesage queue kernel.msgmnb = 65536 # Controls the maximum size of a message, in bytes kernel.msgmax = 65536 # Controls the maximum shared segment size, in bytes kernel.shmmax = 68719476736 # Controls the maximum number of shared memory segments, in pages kernel.shmall = 4294967296 Contents of /etc/radvd.conf # NOTE: there is no such thing as a working "by-default" configuration file. # At least the prefix needs to be specified. Please consult the radvd.conf(5) # man page and/or /usr/share/doc/radvd-*/radvd.conf.example for help. # # interface eth0 { AdvSendAdvert on; MinRtrAdvInterval 3; MaxRtrAdvInterval 10; AdvDefaultPreference low; AdvHomeAgentFlag off; prefix fd8a:8d9d:808f:1::/64 { AdvOnLink on; AdvAutonomous on; AdvRouterAddr on; }; }; Contents of /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 DEVICE=eth0 HWADDR=52:54:00:74:d7:46 TYPE=Ethernet UUID=af5db1cb-e809-4098-be1a-5a74dbb767b1 ONBOOT=yes NM_CONTROLLED=no BOOTPROTO=dhcp IPV6INIT=yes IPV6_AUTOCONF=yes I've also enabled radvd at startup through chkconfig. Though I noticed that radvd is starting after interfaces are brought up. I've tried restarting the network service afterwards but still I get the following link-local address only #ip -6 addr show 1: lo: mtu 16436 inet6 ::1/128 scope host valid_lft forever preferred_lft forever 2: eth0: mtu 1500 qlen 1000 inet6 fe80::5054:ff:fe74:d746/64 scope link valid_lft forever preferred_lft forever Edit: Based on the answer given by Sander Steffann I still need clarification on some points but I'm posting here what worked. Contents of /etc/sysconfig/network NETWORKING=yes HOSTNAME=syslog-ng-server NETWORKING_IPV6=yes IPV6FORWARDING=yes Contents of /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 DEVICE=eth0 HWADDR=52:54:00:74:d7:46 TYPE=Ethernet UUID=af5db1cb-e809-4098-be1a-5a74dbb767b1 ONBOOT=yes NM_CONTROLLED=no BOOTPROTO=dhcp IPV6INIT=yes IPV6_AUTOCONF=yes IPV6FORWARDING=no Removed following line from /etc/sysctl.conf net.ipv6.conf.all.forwarding = 1 Contents of /etc/radvd.conf is as previous.

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  • Setting Timeouts: SQL Server 2008/IIS 7.5

    - by Julie
    We have recently migrated from a Win 2003/SQL Server 2000 system to Win 2008 64 bit R2, SQL Server 2008 R2. Our websites are in classic asp, and this can't be changed to another scripting language at this time. On the old server, if I got stuck in some kind of endless loop, the page would throw an error. On the new server, I have a page that has some sort of looping problem, that even though the SQL SP is called only once (and runs fine run as a query on the server) it pegs SQL server and therefore locks all of our websites. I'll get my code figured out, no biggie. But I need to make sure the server times out when this happens. (The page I'm working on runs fine with certain instances of the query, and locks with others using a different query variable. I can't have something like that sneak up on me on a page I haven't touched for three years.) I can't figure out how an SP that runs once on the server, from an ASP page, is tying up SQL server this way. It's obviously some sort of a timeout issue, but I can't figure out where/which timeout values to change. I actually have to remote desktop to the server and kill the process in SQL server. I'm afraid I'm a generalist, and server management is not my thing, even though it's my responsibility, so I am almost certain to have questions about any answer that I receive. How can I track this down? What settings do I need to change? More info: It's not SQL Server On our test site, I created an ASP file that just did an endless loop (do while 1=1) and had the same problem - the other websites wouldn't load - without SQL server being involved. So I think the reason the process was hanging is that the page wasn't timing out as it should, and so the connection to SQL was never closed. Killing the process in SQL server would reset the page somehow. For my intentional endless loop, I had to refresh the app pool to get rid of it. This points more to either IIS or the ASP settings. The ASP timeouts are set to whatever the default were when the server was first loaded. I still can't figure out why one file is locking up all websites, though. Again, that didn't happen on the old server.

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  • Detach current session and attach to another session, done with one script, can I?

    - by Jimm Chen
    After reading the vague official doc of GNU screen( http://www.gnu.org/software/screen/manual/screen.html ) and asking quite some questions at this site. I still cannot figure out how to accomplish such a task with a shell script. This task costs some words to describe. Assume I'm using PuTTY to telnet into my Linux server. ?STEP 1? Launch 2 telnet connections . From putty window 1 (PTWIN1),telnet into Linux Bash shell, execute screen -RR to launch a screen session, and get session name 21385.pts-4.linux-ic37 . From putty window 2 (PTWIN2), do that same as in PTWIN1, but this time, I get session name 22041.pts-9.linux-ic37 . Now, we have two screen sessions running simultaneously. We can check this: $ screen -ls There are screens on: 22041.pts-9.linux-ic37 (Attached) 21385.pts-4.linux-ic37 (Attached) 2 Sockets in /var/run/uscreens/S-chj2. ?STEP 2? Assume that for some reason, PTWIN1's TCP connection is lost abnormally(but server doesn't know that), and an urgent work is pending on session 21385 and I want to quickly regain control of it. Fortunately, we know the 21385 session is still there, so, I want to have PTWIN2 attach to session 21385. Because I hate to remember the esoteric screen option all the time, so I decide to write a script called sttach. I hope that sttach 21385.pts-4.linux-ic37 can let me attach to session 21385(for PTWIN2). Now, let's say sttach works well and I take control of 21385 on PTWIN2. ?STEP 3? Some minutes later. I want to go back to work on session 22041. Here, please allow me to have PTWIN2 remain associated with session 21385. What I would like to do is to launch another putty window (PTWIN3), telnet into server, and execute sttach 22041.pts-9.linux-ic37 in hope that I can resume session 22041 on PTWIN3 . You can see the benefit of sttach: as long as I know the target session name, I can call it to have my PuTTY window switch to that session, regardless whether the target session is "(Attached)" or "(Detached)", and regardless whether the running context is inside a screen session or not. Now the question: How to write the (Bash) script sttach? I mean, run screen with appropriate options in sttach to accomplish the goal. Waiting for your kind answer. Thank you. My previous questions regarding GNU screen: GNU screen, how to get current sessionname programmatically Is it possible to change GNU screen session name after created? How do I know I'm running inside a linux "screen" or not? My env: openSUSE Linux 11.3, GNU screen 4.00.03 (FAU) 23-Oct-06

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  • iPhone 3G refuses to transfer purchased apps to iTunes

    - by andynormancx
    My iPhone 3G refuses to transfer purchased apps to iTunes. This is causing me major problems with syncing. Whenever I attempt to transfer apps from the iPhone to iTunes it goes through the motions, but never actually transfers anything. It displays the various apps in the info area at the top of the screen, but the progress bar never advances. In comparison when I sync other iPhones, using the same install of iTunes, the progress bar advances and apps are transferred. The same also happens on clean installs of iTunes on other computers, it seems to be my iPhone that is the common factor. I have tried restoring the phone from a backup, which makes no difference. This started happening months ago and the phone has since been upgraded to 3.0 and 3.1, but the problem still persists. Originally it was just a minor irritation, but I made and attempt to fix it which has made things worse. I deleted all the apps from with iTunes and then did "Transfer purchases" in the hope that it might fix something. It didn't fix anything. Also, I cannot now sync at all. If I do sync iTunes now does "transferring purchases", fails to transfer and then deletes all the apps (and data) from my iPhone. It also means I can't sync music, podcasts or anything else. I can't sync anything else, because I can't temporarily turn off app syncing because then iTunes warns that the apps on the iPhone will be deleted. I also tried de-authorising and re-authorising. What can I do to get app syncing working again ? P.S. I have considered deleting all the apps and reinstalling them one by one, in the hope that it will fix the problem. However I don't really want to embark on doing that for 55+ apps and re-entering login details etc for the apps that need them, especially as I might then find out it didn't solve the problem. Update: The latest update to iTunes 9 has improved things in one key aspect. If I let a sync run to completion iTunes no longer deletes all the apps from my phone. So I can now sync all my other data, even if I still can't sync my apps. Resolved: See my answer to the question for how I finally resolved the problem.

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  • OpenVPN, Great on Windows, VERY slow on Mac...

    - by Phsion
    Hello, I'm not really an IT Pro, but this seemed like the best place to ask this question... I have setup VPN networks in the past, for fun, and everything was great, but now I've set one up for my boss, and while my computers all work great, his Mac machines are almost too slow to work with. Its pretty much vanilla configs all around, anyone have any ideas? Its a TUN routing setup over UDP. Back Story: My boss travels a lot, and wants to be able to access all his files from the road, and is also pretty paranoid about security (even though knows almost nothing about computers). SO i figured a VPN would be the answer. I went with OpenVPN, but there are some other issues. The only ISP we can get in our area besides Dial-UP is a crappy Satellite provider, that doesn't offer public IPs unless your willing to pay, so while the computers and VPN setup are pretty vanilla, the routing and structure is strange to get around this limitation. Specs: Its OpenVPN2, and there are six machines using it (only three actually use it, the rest are my test machines), one Windows 7 laptop, two XP Desktops, one OS X 10.5 Desktop, one 10.6 Desktop, and one 10.6 Laptop. One XP Desktop sits at my house and acts as the server (6Mbs/2Mbs FIOS connection). One XP desktop sits at the office and hosts a webpage that will wake up the Main Mac Desktop from sleep, and also ping all the machines on the VPN and show their status. The main office mac (10.6) stays in sleep mode until it gets the Wake-On-Lan packet from the Office XP, and then it auto connects to the VPN and opens itself up. The reason for all this is the Satellite private IP crap means i cant directly access the office machines outside of the LAN, so everyone connects to my house first, then they talk to each other from there. The Wake On Lan weirdness is because my boss doesn't want to leave the main Mac on all the time, and making a quick and dirty webpage was the easiest way to send a Magic Packet from inside the LAN without confusing my boss. The VPN uses Client Config files to make static IPs for the client. The only thing i found in google was some changes to the VPN MTU settings (down to 1400) but no real help. Oh, and i forgot...all the windows machines just have OpenVPN start as a service. The Mac laptop uses tunnelblick (an OpenVPN GUI) and the Mac Desktops use OpenVPN in normal command line mode. Server Config: tun-mtu 1500 fragment 1450 mssfix 1450 management localhost #### port #### proto udp dev tun ca ####### cert ####### key ###### dh ###### server 10.8.0.0 255.255.255.0 ifconfig-pool-persist ipp.txt client-config-dir ccd route 10.8.0.0 255.255.255.252 client-to-client keepalive 10 120 comp-lzo persist-key persist-tun status openvpn-status log Client Configs (all are simple variations on this) tun-mtu 1500 fragment 1450 mssfix 1450 client dev tun proto udp remote ######## #### resolv-retry infinite nobind persist-key presist-tun ca ##### cert ##### key ##### ns-cert-type server comp-lzo verb 3

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  • VPN - force a selective range of ip to run on VPN (linux)

    - by Francesco
    Preface: I know there are similar question here and there however I'm a kind of newbie on Net stuff so I need an answer on this specific scenario, hoping that can help others too as it is a common problem Let say I cannot do anything on the local switch to change the local ip range, I don't want to use any complicate trick as use VMachine to hide the local ip range but I want to use net tools to solve the issue. Scenario my local net assign me an IP of this class 192.168.1.xxx (ex. 192.168.1.116) and my VPN (VPNC) assign me IP of same class 192.168.1.xxx (ex. 192.168.1.247) Obviously I need VPN to access local address (ex. 192.168.1.100) but when I open any address of the class 192.168.1.xx the route point to my local net and not to the VPN ones. I'm on linux and i'd like gui solution (network manager) in case it is not possible let play with route command. here what network manager offer me: Here my actual route once connected to the VPN: Here some route information (route -n) Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 ppp0 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 1000 0 0 wlan0 182.71.21.106 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 wlan0 182.71.21.106 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 wlan0 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 9 0 0 wlan0 192.168.1.246 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 ppp0 Here my ifconfig : ppp0 Link encap:Point-to-Point Protocol inet addr:192.168.1.247 P-t-P:192.168.1.246 Mask:255.255.255.255 UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MULTICAST MTU:1400 Metric:1 RX packets:3415 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:2525 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:3 RX bytes:3682328 (3.6 MB) TX bytes:402315 (402.3 KB) wlan0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 4c:eb:42:06:a3:a6 inet addr:192.168.1.116 Bcast:192.168.1.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: fe80::4eeb:42ff:fe06:a3a6/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:72598 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:42300 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:76000532 (76.0 MB) TX bytes:13919400 (13.9 MB) The Question So basically I would like to add a rule to force this particular address (192.168.1.100) on the VPN and not on my local net

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  • Block IP Address including ICMP using UFW

    - by dr jimbob
    I prefer ufw to iptables for configuring my software firewall. After reading about this vulnerability also on askubuntu, I decided to block the fixed IP of the control server: 212.7.208.65. I don't think I'm vulnerable to this particular worm (and understand the IP could easily change), but wanted to answer this particular comment about how you would configure a firewall to block it. I planned on using: # sudo ufw deny to 212.7.208.65 # sudo ufw deny from 212.7.208.65 However as a test that the rules were working, I tried pinging after I setup the rules and saw that my default ufw settings let ICMP through even from an IP address set to REJECT or DENY. # ping 212.7.208.65 PING 212.7.208.65 (212.7.208.65) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from 212.7.208.65: icmp_seq=1 ttl=52 time=79.6 ms ^C --- 212.7.208.65 ping statistics --- 1 packets transmitted, 1 received, 0% packet loss, time 0ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 79.630/79.630/79.630/0.000 ms Now, I'm worried that my ICMP settings are too generous (conceivably this or a future worm could setup an ICMP tunnel to bypass my firewall rules). I believe this is the relevant part of my iptables rules is given below (and even though grep doesn't show it; the rules are associated with the chains shown): # sudo iptables -L -n | grep -E '(INPUT|user-input|before-input|icmp |212.7.208.65)' Chain INPUT (policy DROP) ufw-before-input all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 Chain ufw-before-input (1 references) ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 3 ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 4 ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 11 ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 12 ACCEPT icmp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 icmp type 8 ufw-user-input all -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 Chain ufw-user-input (1 references) DROP all -- 0.0.0.0/0 212.7.208.65 DROP all -- 212.7.208.65 0.0.0.0/0 How should I go about making it so ufw blocks ICMP when I specifically attempt to block an IP address? My /etc/ufw/before.rules has in part: # ok icmp codes -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type destination-unreachable -j ACCEPT -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type source-quench -j ACCEPT -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type time-exceeded -j ACCEPT -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type parameter-problem -j ACCEPT -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type echo-request -j ACCEPT I'm tried changing ACCEPT above to ufw-user-input: # ok icmp codes -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type destination-unreachable -j ufw-user-input -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type source-quench -j ufw-user-input -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type time-exceeded -j ufw-user-input -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type parameter-problem -j ufw-user-input -A ufw-before-input -p icmp --icmp-type echo-request -j ufw-user-input But ufw wouldn't restart after that. I'm not sure why (still troubleshooting) and also not sure if this is sensible? Will there be any negative effects (besides forcing the software firewall to force ICMP through a few more rules)?

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  • How Do I Restrict Repository Access via WebSVN?

    - by kaybenleroll
    I have multiple subversion repositories which are served up through Apache 2.2 and WebDAV. They are all located in a central place, and I used this debian-administration.org article as the basis (I dropped the use of the database authentication for a simple htpasswd file though). Since then, I have also started using WebSVN. My issue is that not all users on the system should be able to access the different repositories, and the default setup of WebSVN is to allow anyone who can authenticate. According to the WebSVN documentation, the best way around this is to use subversion's path access system, so I looked to create this, using the AuthzSVNAccessFile directive. When I do this though, I keep getting "403 Forbidden" messages. My files look like the following: I have default policy settings in a file: <Location /svn/> DAV svn SVNParentPath /var/lib/svn/repository Order deny,allow Deny from all </Location> Each repository gets a policy file like below: <Location /svn/sysadmin/> Include /var/lib/svn/conf/default_auth.conf AuthName "Repository for sysadmin" require user joebloggs jimsmith mickmurphy </Location> The default_auth.conf file contains this: SVNParentPath /var/lib/svn/repository AuthType basic AuthUserFile /var/lib/svn/conf/.dav_svn.passwd AuthzSVNAccessFile /var/lib/svn/conf/svnaccess.conf I am not fully sure why I need the second SVNParentPath in default_auth.conf, but I just added that today as I was getting error messages as a result of adding the AuthzSVNAccessFile directive. With a totally permissive access file [/] joebloggs = rw the system worked fine (and was essentially unchanged), but as I soon as I start trying to add any kind of restrictions such as [sysadmin:/] joebloggs = rw instead, I get the 'Permission denied' errors again. The log file entries are: [Thu May 28 10:40:17 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'joebloggs' GET websvn:/ [Thu May 28 10:40:20 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'joebloggs' GET svn:/sysadmin What do I need to do to get this to work? Have configured apache wrong, or is my understanding of the svnaccess.conf file incorrect? If I am going about this the wrong way, I have no particular attachment to my overall approach, so feel free to offer alternatives as well. UPDATE (20090528-1600): I attempted to implement this answer, but I still cannot get it to work properly. I know most of the configuration is correct, as I have added [/] joebloggs = rw at the start and 'joebloggs' then has all the correct access. When I try to go repository-specific though, doing something like [/] joebloggs = rw [sysadmin:/] mickmurphy = rw then I got a permission denied error for mickmurphy (joebloggs still works), with an error similar to what I already had previously [Thu May 28 10:40:20 2009] [error] [client 89.100.219.180] Access denied: 'mickmurphy' GET svn:/sysadmin Also, I forgot to explain previously that all my repositories are underneath /var/lib/svn/repository UPDATE (20090529-1245): Still no luck getting this to work, but all the signs seem to be pointing to the issue being with path-access control in subversion not working properly. My assumption is that I have not conf

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  • Windows 8.1 Insufficient storage available to create shadow copy

    - by Bob.at.SBS
    [Note: After I entered the problem statement, I found this question, which is apparently the same problem. Maybe one of us will get a good answer...] I have used the "Windows 7 File Recovery" tool under Windows 8 to create system image backups to an external USB hard drive. I built a new Windows 8.1 machine, and I want to create my first system image backup of that machine to the same USB hard drive. The "Windows 7 File Recovery" tool is gone in Windows 8.1, but wbAdmin is alive and well: wbAdmin start backup -backupTarget:\\?\Volume{2a2b...994f} -allCritical -quiet fails with this text displayed: wbadmin 1.0 - Backup command-line tool (C) Copyright 2013 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Retrieving volume information... This will back up (EFI System Partition),(C:),Recovery (300.00 MB) to \?\Volume {2a2b1255-3a86-11e3-be86-b8ca3a83994f}. The backup operation to F: is starting. Creating a shadow copy of the volumes specified for backup... Summary of the backup operation: The backup operation stopped before completing. The backup operation stopped before completing. Detailed error: ERROR - A Volume Shadow Copy Service operation error has occurred: (0x8004231f) Insufficient storage available to create either the shadow copy storage file or other shadow copy data. The EFI System Partition is 100 MB The Recovery Partition is 300 MB The C partition is 1.72 TB, NTFS, 218 GB used, 1.51 TB free The destination drive is 1.81 TB, NTFS, 678 GB used, 1.15 TB free I've fiddled with vssadmin resize shadowstorage, with no change in the error. vssadmin list shadowstorage displays: Shadow Copy Storage association For volume: (C:)\?\Volume{37a0...263}\ Shadow Copy Storage volume: (C:)\?\Volume{37a0...263}\ Used Shadow Copy Storage space: 2.39 GB (0%) Allocated Shadow Copy Storage space: 2.81 GB (0%) Maximum Shadow Copy Storage space: 531 GB (30%) Shadow Copy Storage association For volume: (F:)\?\Volume{2a2...94f}\ Shadow Copy Storage volume: (F:)\?\Volume{2a2...94f}\ Used Shadow Copy Storage space: 334 GB (17%) Allocated Shadow Copy Storage space: 337 GB (18%) Maximum Shadow Copy Storage space: UNBOUNDED (922154758%) (Yeah, the "percent calculation" for UNBOUNDED is seriously bogus.) I've run SFC /verifyonly and it seems happy. I've verified that the new `Volume Shadow Copy" service starts when I start the backup operation. Any suggestions?

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  • Dual booting Windows 7 & 8.1, using the Windows 8 Startup Options Menu, when Windows 8.1 is already installed and you want to add Windows 7

    - by Josh
    There are many excellent guides out there that explain how to dual-boot Windows 7 & 8. However, they are written for people starting with a Windows 7 installation and add a Windows 8 installation to separate partition. From what I'm reading, following this procedure will result in Windows 8 installing and configuring the Startup Options Menu with an option to boot Windows 7 & 8. However, in my situation I have a Windows 8.1 machine that I want to install Windows 7 on, and enable dual-boot, where I can use the Startup Options Menu to select the OS to boot. I haven't been able to determine how to do this. From everything I've been able to find, it looks like if I install Windows 7, it is going to take over the boot loader process, and I won't have access to the Windows 8 "Startup Options Menu." This answer suggests I boot to VHD, but notes a drawback: You can't do this if the C:\drive is encrypted using ANY encryption shceme. Be that BitLocker or 3rd party. The location of the .VHD file you are booting to must reside on an unencrypted volume. Well, that's a bummer, because that's exactly what I wanted to do--I wanted my Windows 7 partition to be encrypted, and my Windows 8 partition to also be encrypted. The idea being that when OS was booted, it was completely locked out from accessing data on the other OS's partition. At this point, I'm thinking my only option is to install Windows 7, and then re-install Windows 8, which will give me the dual-boot option... am I right? Or is there a way to make this work. I'm thinking that I would need to figure out a process like this: Configure the Windows Startup Options Menu with a "blank" entry for Windows 7, pointing to an empty partition Insert the Windows 7 installation media, install Windows 7, and somehow restrict it to that partition (i.e., prevent it from "taking over" from the Startup Options Menu" Is this possible, and if so, how can I accomplish this? My concern is that if I simply install Windows 7 to a separate partition, Windows 7 will take over the entire boot process and I won't be able to get to my Windows 8 installation any more.

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  • Does a router have a receiving range?

    - by Aadit M Shah
    So my dad bought a TP-Link router (Model No. TL-WA7510N) which apparently has a transmitting range of 1km; and he believes that it also has a receiving range of 1km. So he's arguing with me that the router (which is a trans-receiver) can communicate with any device in the range of 1km whether or not that device has a transmitting range of 1km. To put it graphically: +----+ 1km +----+ | |------------------------------------------------->| | | TR | | TR | | | <----| | +----+ 100m+----+ So here's the problem: The two devices are 1km apart. The first device has a transmitting range of 1km. The second device only has a transmitting range of 100m. According to my dad the two devices can talk to each other. He says that the first device has a transmitting and a receiving range of 1km which means that it can both send data to devices 1km away and receive data from devices 1km away. To me this makes no sense. If the second device can only send data to devices 100m away then how can the first device catch the transmission? He further argues that for bidirectional communication both the sender and the reciver should have overlapping areas of transmission: According to him if two devices have an overlapping area of transmission then they can communicate. Here neither device has enough transmission power to reach the other. However they have enough receiving power to capture the transmission. Obviously this makes absolutely no sense to me. How can a device sense a transmission which hasn't even reached it yet and go out, capture it and bring it back it. To me a trans-receiver only has a transmission power. It has zero receiving power. Hence for two devices to be able to communicate bidirectionally, the diagram should look like: Hence, from my point of view, both the devices should have a transmission range far enough to reach the other for bidirectional communication to be possible; but no matter how much I try to explain to my dad he adamantly disagrees. So, to put an end to this debate once and for all, who is correct? Is there even such a thing as a receiving range? Can a device fetch a transmission that would otherwise never reach it? I would like a canonical answer on this.

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  • VMWare tools not installing with an error

    - by JDS
    VMWare tools not installing on Ubuntu 12.04. I'm using Chef to manage the installation, but the Apt commands fail if run manually. I'm using the VMWare tool Debian repo. Example: $ cat /etc/apt/sources.list.d/vmware-tools-source.list deb http://packages.vmware.com/tools/esx/5.0u2/ubuntu precise main When trying to install, most packages seem to go ok, but one, "vmware-tools-foundation", does not. Example: $ apt-get -q -y install vmware-tools-esx-nox=8.6.10-1.precise Reading package lists... Building dependency tree... Reading state information... You might want to run 'apt-get -f install' to correct these: The following packages have unmet dependencies: vmware-tools-esx-kmods-3.2.0-23-generic : Depends: vmware-tools-foundation (>= 8.6.10) but it is not going to be installed vmware-tools-esx-nox : Depends: ...snip list of deps... E: Unmet dependencies. Try 'apt-get -f install' with no packages (or specify a solution). $ apt-get -f install Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done Correcting dependencies... Done The following extra packages will be installed: vmware-tools-foundation The following NEW packages will be installed: vmware-tools-foundation 0 upgraded, 1 newly installed, 0 to remove and 118 not upgraded. 7 not fully installed or removed. Need to get 0 B/5,886 B of archives. After this operation, 86.0 kB of additional disk space will be used. Do you want to continue [Y/n]? y (Reading database ... 103499 files and directories currently installed.) Unpacking vmware-tools-foundation (from .../vmware-tools-foundation_8.6.10-1.precise_all.deb) ... VMware Tools cannot install because it appears that another installation of VMware Tools is already present. Please remove the previous installation and then attempt to install this copy of VMware Tools again. dpkg: error processing /var/cache/apt/archives/vmware-tools-foundation_8.6.10-1.precise_all.deb (--unpack): subprocess new pre-installation script returned error exit status 1 Errors were encountered while processing: /var/cache/apt/archives/vmware-tools-foundation_8.6.10-1.precise_all.deb E: Sub-process /usr/bin/dpkg returned an error code (1) The key seems to be this error: "VMware Tools cannot install because it appears that another installation of VMware Tools is already present. Please remove the previous installation and then attempt to install this copy of VMware Tools again." However, I've tryed removing and purging and can't seem to "trick" VMWare tools into thinking the packages are gone. Apt thinks they are gone. Is there some service/file/cache/lock left that VMWare tools sees that makes it think that VMWare tools are still installed? I've googled and googled but there is no answer to this question with my particular circumstances on the interwebs. VMWare's documentation of this error is minimal.

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  • Python Django sites on Apache+mod_wsgi with nginx proxy: highly fluctuating performance

    - by Halfgaar
    I have an Ubuntu 10.04 box running several dozen Python Django sites using mod_wsgi (embedded mode; the faster mode, if properly configured). Performance highly fluctuates. Sometimes fast, sometimes several seconds delay. The smokeping graphs are al over the place. Recently, I also added an nginx proxy for the static content, in the hopes it would cure the highly fluctuating performance. But, even though it reduced the number of requests Apache has to process significantly, it didn't help with the main problem. When clicking around on websites while running htop, it can be seen that sometimes requests are almost instant, whereas sometimes it causes Apache to consume 100% CPU for a few seconds. I really don't understand where this fluctuation comes from. I have configured the mpm_worker for Apache like this: StartServers 1 MinSpareThreads 50 MaxSpareThreads 50 ThreadLimit 64 ThreadsPerChild 50 MaxClients 50 ServerLimit 1 MaxRequestsPerChild 0 MaxMemFree 2048 1 server with 50 threads, max 50 clients. Munin and apache2ctl -t both show a consistent presence of workers; they are not destroyed and created all the time. Yet, it behaves as such. This tells me that once a sub interpreter is created, it should remain in memory, yet it seems sites have to reload all the time. I also have a nginx+gunicorn box, which performs quite well. I would really like to know why Apache is so random. This is a virtual host config: <VirtualHost *:81> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerName example.com DocumentRoot /srv/http/site/bla Alias /static/ /srv/http/site/static Alias /media/ /srv/http/site/media WSGIScriptAlias / /srv/http/site/passenger_wsgi.py <Directory /> AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /srv/http/site> Options -Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> Ubuntu 10.04 Apache 2.2.14 mod_wsgi 2.8 nginx 0.7.65 Edit: I've put some code in the settings.py file of a site that writes the date to a tmp file whenever it's loaded. I can now see that the site is not randomly reloaded all the time, so Apache must be keeping it in memory. So, that's good, except it doesn't bring me closer to an answer... Edit: I just found an error that might also be related to this: File "/usr/lib/python2.6/subprocess.py", line 633, in __init__ errread, errwrite) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/subprocess.py", line 1049, in _execute_child self.pid = os.fork() OSError: [Errno 12] Cannot allocate memory The server has 600 of 2000 MB free, which should be plenty. Is there a limit that is set on Apache or WSGI somewhere?

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  • Windows 7 laptop constantly dropping internet connection

    - by Corbin Holbert
    I have scoured the web for an answer and failed to find one. I am using a Toshiba Satellite laptop running Windows 7 64-Bit. I have the computer connected via Wifi. Now, I am no beginner with the Internet, or anything related to computers, as I have grown up teaching everyone around me how to use computers, and went to college for IT. Everything on my network works flawlessly at all times, except for this evil laptop. The worst part is that I fixed this once before a few years back and recently had to replace the hard drive and re-install the OS, but cannot for the life of me remember what I did to make this problem go away. I am in my browser, connected to the Internet. I click a link. Suddenly no internet access. All I do is click down on the WiFi connection in the task bar, disconnect and reconnect immediately. Internet is back the moment I hit "connect." I have read many people had the same issues as I am having, but they all had triggers or other network issues. I have no trigger (this happens literally five to six times per minute no matter what I am doing) and I have no problems with my router, modem, or any other devices or computers on said network. As I am a web designer, and like to test my work live at every turn- this is going to result in this laptop being in pieces if I can't get it fixed soon. If more info is needed, let me know and I will provide. Thanks for any help offered! EDIT: Network Card: Realtek RTL8188CE Wireless LAN 802.11n PCI-E NIC Network state reads as "No Internet Access" when the problem first occurs, then magically I have Internet access for about ten seconds once I disconnect and reconnect. I have turned off IPV6, I have turned off power saving options for the network adapter, no viruses. Any new ideas? Also, I had to disconnect and reconnect four times just to get to this edit screen- and will likely have to do the same just to post it- it's that bad.

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  • FTP could not connect after applying local DNS(private DNS)

    - by Rahul
    I made a software router in CentOS linux and in that made a DNS server. I am using centOS 6..4 for making DNS i applied following steps: changed the host name = abc.zoom.com and domain name = zoom.com. then did changes in the named.rfc.1912 file as per rename named.localhost = forward and named.loopback = reverse in forward lookups i changed zone "zoom.com" IN { type master; file "forward"; allow-update { none; }; and in reverse lookups i changed zone "x.168.192.in-addr.arpa" IN { type master; file "reverse"; allow-update { none; }; and then did changes in the named.conf file options { listen-on port 53 {192.168.x.x;}; listen-on-v6 port 53 { ::1; }; directory "/var/named"; dump-file "/var/named/data/cache_dump.db"; statistics-file "/var/named/data/named_stats.txt"; memstatistics-file "/var/named/data/named_mem_stats.txt"; allow-query {any;}; recursion yes; 192.168.x.x is my local DNS address. then i copied lookups file in /var/named and edited the file "forward" $TTL 1D @ IN SOA abc.zoom.com. rahul.abc.zoom.com. ( 0 ; serial 1D ; refresh 1H ; retry 1W ; expire 3H ) ; minimum NS abc.zoom.com. abc A 192.168.x.x and for " reverse" $TTL 1D @ IN SOA abc.zoom.com. rahul.abc.zoom.com.( 0 ; serial 1D ; refresh 1H ; retry 1W ; expire 3H ) ; minimum NS abc.zoom.com. x PTR abc.zoom.com. when i put the public ip details in the Eth0 it was automatically redirect in to the resolve.conf when i checked through dig command the answer, query all were 1. my system is itself a Software router.In gateway of my all local machine i give my system ip address. however my DNS and Gateway IP is same. Now the problem is that. i gave the static ips to all my local machines when i give the DNS which i made i.e 192.168.x.x that time my ftp is not connect in filezilla software E.g: host : pqr.zoom.com ("zoom.com" is my local domain name) username : pqr password : pqr gives an error: Error: Connection timed out Error: Could not connect to server but if i give the public DNS address it get connected. i want to solve this problem please give solution on this.

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  • Gateway GT5220 Boot/POST Failure

    - by John Rudy
    I have a Gateway GT5220 I'm troubleshooting. It is, in fact, the machine I just gave my father for his birthday a couple months ago. (Prior to that, it was my home PC. My home PC is now the MacBook on which I'm writing this.) Before going any further, I suspect that the answer will be, "It's worse than that, it's dead, Jim, it's dead, Jim, it's dead, Jim." At least, mobo and/or CPU. The initial symptoms were as follows: Turn on power All fans fire up (thus making it so I can't hear if the hard drive is spinning or not, nor are my hands sensitive enough anymore to feel it) No LEDs remained lit on the front panel. (Initially, the hard drive indicator flashed briefly.) No beep, no video, no nothing. Following some advice I found here, I tried to "drain the stored power." After following those steps, the new symptoms were: Turn on power All fans fire up The front panel LEDs remained lit! After about 20, maybe 30 seconds, we had video! Sort of. We got to the Gateway splash/POST screen, which appeared thoroughly corrupted. How corrupted? Well, I imagine it's what a POST screen would look like after reading the wrong passage out of the Necronomicon: It stayed there. I gave it at least 5, maybe 6 minutes, and it didn't move. So I shut her down, started her up again, and now (this is where we currently stand, symptomatically) we have this: Turn on power All fans fire up The front panel LEDs remain lit No video, no beep, no nothing. I'm a software guy; haven't done real hardware troubleshooting in years. My gut tells me that the mobo and/or CPU is fried, and unfortunately my gut didn't get to be as big as it is being wrong all the time. :( In addition to the link above, I have read all of the following (trying to save you some LMGTFY trouble): Gateway Support POST Error Messages and Handling About a zillion (useless) POST beep code sites A kioskea.net post indicating that most likely we're at what I consider "total loss" (mobo and/or CPU) My questions: Are there any conditions other than mobo/CPU that could cause symptoms like these? Is it worth my time to try the next hardware troubleshooting step?(IE, remove all non-critical hardware from the machine, try to boot, systematically replace one by one until we find the failing component) Which mobos will fit in the Gateway GT5220 case (with rear ports correctly aligned)? (Why this is not a dupe: I wouldn't have posted this question if it hadn't been for the funkadelic possessed video display on the one occasion we got video out. I think that justified this not being an exact dupe. Of course, if the community overrules, I will understand.)

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  • Any reason not to disable the Windows pagefile given enough physical RAM?

    - by Evgeny
    The question of disabling the Windows pagefile has already been discussed quite a bit, for example here and here and here. People continue to upvote answers that say "you should not disable your pagefile even if you have plenty of RAM", but I have yet to see any concrete, verifiable reasons being given for this advice. As far as I can see, if you never need to read from the pagefile (because you have enough RAM) then performance could only be worse with it enabled due to Windows pre-emptively writing to it. At best, performance would be the same. I can't see how it could possibly be improved by writing data you never need to read. So my question is: Assuming that I have enough physical RAM for everything I do, is there any reason I should not disable the pagefile? Let's say the version of Windows is Windows XP x64 SP2 or Windows Server 2003 x64 SP2 (same thing). If it's different for Windows Server 2008 x64 I'd be interested to hear an answer for that as well. I'm looking for specific, objective reasons from good sources, not just opinions. Something like "here are the benchmarks done with and without a pagefile and the results were better with a pagefile, even with enough RAM" or "according to this MS KB article problem X occurs if you disable the pagefile". So far the only reasons I've seen mentioned are: Even if you think you have enough RAM you might run out. OK, but for the purposes of this question, let's just take it as a given that I have enough. Maybe I only ever read my email and I have 16GB RAM. Or 128GB. Or 1TB. Or whatever - but it's enough for 100% of what I do, 100% of the time. Another way to think of it is: if I have x MB physical RAM and y MB pagefile and I never run out of RAM in that configuration, would I not be better off, performance-wise, with x+y MB physical RAM and no pagefile? Windows is "used to" having a paging file and it might not function as reliably (from Understanding the Impact of RAM on Overall System Performance That's rather vague and I find it hard to believe, given that MS has provided the option to disable the pagefile. Windows knows what it's doing better than you. No - it doesn't know that I won't run more programs or load more data, but I do.

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  • WSS and CAG , _layout pages break

    - by Mike
    Alright, I've searched everywhere and I cannot find the answer, due to the rarity of our setup. WSS 3.0/IIS 6.0/WinServer 2003 We have a sharepoint site that is in good shape, almost. Its TCP and SSL port are uncommon and need to be rerouted to work properly. This is where the Citrix Access Gateway (CAG) comes in play. It will redirect any request from URL (something.something.com) to the correct SSL port on the correct server. My AAM is configured to Default something.something.com and nothing else, since the CAG will provide the port. We use FBA, and require SSL. This works perfectly for everything that is safe or that is anything that an end user can see, but if I try to add a webpart, it errors out. Whereas if I add it internally, or bypass the CAG the webpart adds fine. The same goes for most of the _layouts pages, like _layouts/new.aspx. If I add a Link List/Doc library on the something.something.com, it errors out (Page cannot be displayed) and the page won't display, but if I try it with an internal address it will work fine. I found that if I am trying to add something or doing anything administrative, the site will navigate to the pages that I need to go to fine, but when i actually ADD something the URL will change from something.something.com to something.something.com:SSLport, thus erroring out the site. The URL with the SSL port shows on the Site URL when navigating to Site Settings. However, if I bypass the CAG, using the internal address the _layouts page works like a charm and i can add anything. All the CAG does is reroute a DNS request to the provided server and port. I've tried reextending the application, no luck same thing. I've tried changing the AAM to hide the port and the CAG rejects it. I've tried to recreate a new webapp/site collection with the same rules on the CAG, same thing occurs. Correct me if I'm wrong, and please provide me with some feedback and answers. Any suggestions would be very appreciated. Is it the CAG or the Alternate Access Mappings (AAM)?

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  • Why is the installation of certain programs always such a pain in Linux [closed]

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am new to Linux and I am trying to set up a server. For this I sometimes to need to install special software, but the installation of this is always such a pain. For example I wanted to try the htscanner to see if it did the job for me. When i got to the page there is NO INSTALLATION guide. I had to search for the right one on google. Even on google its a pain to find the right method. Just try it - google search.After a long search and tried different things I finally found out that I had te install some more software before it will work. The website says that the version I used did not had any dependencies. Thats a lie. Release0.8.1: No dependencies registered. You do need certain things for it to work. After managing to set it up it still didn't work I can't figure out why because there is no official guide on the website. So I wanted to just uninstall it and find a better solution. Uninstalling. Uninstalling something in Linux is a real mystery how this actually works. The best answer I got is to manually look for the files and delete them. Whats up with that! There is never something said about uninstalling on the websites. Even on the website of CentOS itself it tels you how to install something like rpmforge packages (it's a miracle they tell you and not have to google it) but there is no mention of what to do when you want to uninstall. Why not? The forums you get on when trying to solve your problem are most of the time in plain text, and you have to scroll trough huge error logs before you see somethings that vaguely resembles your question if you are lucky. The Question My question is if there are any recommended websites / forums that explain the basic concepts of installing and uninstalling software on Linux. And explain other useful operations. And not Wikipedia or the first hits of Google, I have been there already. I am looking for some easy to read trough guides on these operations on Linux. I have been on a lot of websites that explain some Linux operation, but I bet its easier to get a degree in rocket science than to read trough the website and understand what they try to say.

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  • Converting an EC2 AMI to vmdk image

    - by Reed G. Law
    I've come quite close to getting Amazon Linux to boot inside VirtualBox, thanks to this answer and these websites. A quick overview of the steps I've taken: Launch EC2 instance with Amazon Linux 2011.09 64-bit AMI dd the contents of the EBS volume over ssh to a local image file. Mount the image file as a loopback device and then to a local mount point. Create a new empty disk image file, partition with an offset for a bootloader, and create an ext4 filesystem. Mount the new image's partition and copy everything from the EC2 image. Install grub (using Ubuntu's grub-legacy-ec2 package, not grub2). Convert the image file to vmdk using qemu-img. Create a new VirtualBox VM with the vmdk. Now the VM boots, grub loads, and the kernel is found. But it fails when it tries to mount the root device: dracut Warning: No root device "block:/dev/xvda1" found dracut Warning: Boot has failed. To debug this issue add "rdshell" to the kernel command line. dracut Warning: Signal caught! dracut Warning: Boot has failed. To debug this issue add "rdshell" to the kernel command line. Kernel panic - not syncing: Attempted to kill init! Pid: 1, comm: init Not tainted 2.6.35.14-107.1.39.amzn1.x86_64 #1 I have tried changing /boot/grub/menu.lst to find the root device by label and UUID, but nothing works. I'm guessing the xen kernel is not compatible with VirtualBox. The reasoning behind all this effort is to make a Vagrant box that is as close to possible as the production enviroment, so deploys can be tested locally. I know it's cheap to do test runs on EC2, but poor connectivity often ruins the experience. Plus it would be really nice to have a virtual machine with the production environment so that co-workers don't have to install everything under the sun just to get up and running with app development. If I were to try running a different kernel, what kernel could I get to be as close as possible to Amazon Linux 2011.09?

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  • Connecting multiple ColdFusion 10 instances to a single Apache 2.2 server

    - by Adam Cameron
    This is on Windows 7 Home Premium edition. I have got two ColdFusion 10 (updater 2) instances: "cfusion" (the default one), and "scratch". I have got a single instance of Apache 2.2 running. Within Apache, I have set up two virtual hosts, each of which needs to be served by a different ColdFusion instance. Each of the CF instances serves files fine via Tomcat's internal web server. Apache serves vanilla HTML files fine too. So both CF instances, and both virtual hosts separately work OK. I can get wsconfig.exe to connect either one of the CF instances to the Apache server, and serve CF files via Apache & that instance. However I cannot find a way of connecting the second CF instance to Apache as well, so that both CF instances are conected, each serving one of the virtual hosts. WSConfig doesn't seem to understand the notion of "multiple CF instances", and the changes it makes to the httpd.conf (via mod_jk.conf) does not seem to be implemented in such a way as to accommodate multiple CF instances talking to a single Apache instance, or multiple virtual hosts. I freely admit to not being confident enough with how mod_jk (or even really httpd.conf) works to be able to guess if I can change stuff to make it work. If I try to add the second CF instance using WSConfig, I just get a message "the web server is already configured for ColdFusion". Be that as it may... not the instance of ColdFusion I want to connect it to! If I remove the existing connector to whichever instance is already connected, I can then connect the other one no problems. Not that this helps, but it demonstrates that the CF instance can connect to Apache. This all used to be fairly straight fwd under older versions of CF and JRun :-( The only docs I have found are on the "Connect multiple Apache virtual hosts on a web server to a single ColdFusion server" page, but that specifically only deals with a single CF instance. There is no equivalent page for multiple CF instances. I'm kinda hoping I can move some of the mod_jk config into my virtual host entries in httpd-vhosts.conf (this is how it used to work for JRun), but I've no idea what to put where. I think I've covered all the necessary info here? If not, sing out and I'll add more. Thanks. PS: tried to specifically tag this as "ColdFusion-10" as the answer will be different from previous CF versions, but it won't let me cos my rep on this site is too low (odd how it doesn't consider my rep from other S/O sites...). If someone with sufficient rep can add it, that'd be cool: it's probably a valid tag to have. Ta.

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  • Win 8: Adding a boot volume to an MBR dynamic disk [NOT about changing to basic disks]

    - by Stilez
    (This is NOT aiming to convert to basic disk. In this question, the disk stays dynamic but becomes bootable) There doesn't seem to be a clear, well stated answer I can find, for the question "What are the criteria for Windows 8 to successfully boot from an MBR dynamic disk", or "how do I fix a dynamic MBR partition that's failing boot"? I've tried to educate myself but can't find crucial information to clear it all up. My existing HDD/SSD setup: DISK 0 ~ 60GB SSD/MBR/basic: (350MB recovery)(60GB windows 8 bootable) DISK 1 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(60GB unallocated)(410GB mirrored data) DISK 2 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(60GB unallocated)(410GB mirrored data) DISKS 3, 4, 5: (ignored for simplicity: 2xHDD RAID1 + caching SSD) I'm heavy duty on data crunching and virtualisation, just maxxed out 32GB RAM @ 2133 and moved to 4960X + 64GB. Disk 0 is a pure system disk of little value, and virtualisations runs off mirrored SSDs (Samsung 840 Pro 512 x 2) for double speed reading and so they snapshot in reasonable time. I'm using 4 SATA3 ports and the board only has two decent Intel ports (onboard Marvell are poorer quality). I'm wary of choosing between LSI, HighPoint and other 3rd party controllers as I'm unfamiliar with the maze of decent RAID cards (that's a whole other issue!). I want to cut down my SSD needs by moving the boot volume and caching volume to the 840 pros, giving a setup with 2 fewer SSDs: DISK 0 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(60GB boot)(410GB mirrored data) DISK 1 ~ 512GB SSD/MBR/dynamic: (350MB recovery)(30GB cache for the ICH10R mirror)(30GB temp)(410GB mirrored data) DISKS 2, 3: (2xHDD RAID1) Intel's RST allows this, Win 8 allows booting off a MBR/dynamic disk, and the two 60GB SSDs are hardly the fastest SSDs anyway, they'll get repurposed. Moving the caching volume is easy. Moving the boot volume has me stumped. The difficulty is, I'm hitting a wall of knowledge here. I have a UEFI Asus motherboard with an previous traditional MBR/basic boot disk, and I want it to boot from a disk and volume that's MBR/dynamic. The disk copy is physically ok (Partition Wizard Server will copy to dynamic volumes) but then hits a light blue 0xc000000e boot error. No real surprise, I expected to have some boot fixing, but had expected Windows to boot-fix it (all drivers exist), or the usual manual fixes to work. Specifically, I don't know enough, to know what's got to be manually checked and perhaps corrected for the disk to boot (legacy/uefi/bios, odd partitions, boot tables, disk IDs, hidden boot files, oh my!), or if I need to change any of this secure boot/UEFI/legacy stuff in the bios, convert a 512 SSD to basic and then back to dynamic when working, or if the issue is pure OS config using "diskpart", "bootsect" and "bootrec" from the Win8 DVD. The old system disk still boots but I don't know enough to figure what to fix, to make the system boot as I want. The answers probably aren't hard but the real issue is my confusion and missing information. Thanks for helping!

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  • How can I force a merge of all WAL files in pg_xlog back into my base "data" directory?

    - by Zac B
    Question: Is there a way to tell Postgres (9.2) to "merge all WAL files in pg_xlog back into the non-WAL data files, and then delete all WAL files successfully merged?" I would like to be able to "force" this operation; i.e. checkpoint_segments or archiving settings should be ignored. The filesystem WAL buffer (pg_xlog) directory should be emptied, or nearly emptied. It's fine if some or all of the space consumed by the pg_xlog directory is then consumed by the data directory; our DBA has asked for WAL database backups without any backlogged WALs, but space consumption is not a concern. Having near-zero WAL activity during this operation is a fine constraint. I can ensure that the database server is either shut down or not connectible (zero user-generated transaction load) during this process. Essentially, I'd like Postgres to ignore archiving/checkpoint retention policies temporarily, and flush all WAL activity to the core database files, leaving pg_xlog in the same state as if the database were recently created--with very few WAL files. What I've Tried: I know that the pg_basebackup utility performs something like this (it generates an almost-all-WALs-merged copy of a Postgres instance's data directory), but we aren't ready to use it on all our systems yet, as we are still testing replication settings; I'm hoping for a more short-term solution. I've tried issuing CHECKPOINT commands, but they just recycle one WAL file and replace it with another (that is, if they do anything at all; if I issue them during database idle time, they do nothing). pg_switch_xlog() similarly just forces a switch to the next log segment; it doesn't flush all queued/buffered segments. I've also played with the pg_resetxlog utility. That utility sort of does what I want, but all of its usage docs seem to indicate that it destroys (rather than flushing out of the transaction log and into the main data files) some or all of the WAL data. Is that impression accurate? If not, can I use pg_resetxlog during a zero-WAL-activity period to force a flush of all queued WAL data to non-WAL data? If the answer to that is negative, how can I achieve this goal? Thanks!

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  • Using curl -s in *nix command line not working for some reason

    - by JM4
    I am trying to install composer (though to be honest I really have no idea how it fully works and documentation seems to be quite poor) on my MediaTemple DV machine. I am using their [instructions][1] Trying to install globally using: $ curl -s https://getcomposer.org/installer | php My command line (again using putty and logged into my server as root) thinks for a second, then sets up for next prompt. I run a simple ls -l to check for the file it should have downloaded with no luck. Any idea what could be causing the issue? I have tested and do in fact have curl installed. UPDATE 1 Based on the first answer, the verbose response is: > $ curl -vs https://getcomposer.org/installer | php > * About to connect() to getcomposer.org port 443 > * Trying 37.59.4.156... connected > * Connected to getcomposer.org (37.59.4.156) port 443 > * successfully set certificate verify locations: > * CAfile: /etc/pki/tls/certs/ca-bundle.crt CApath: none > * SSLv2, Client hello (1): SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server hello (2): SSLv3, TLS handshake, CERT (11): SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server key > exchange (12): SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server finished (14): SSLv3, TLS > handshake, Client key exchange (16): SSLv3, TLS change cipher, Client > hello (1): SSLv3, TLS handshake, Finished (20): SSLv3, TLS change > cipher, Client hello (1): SSLv3, TLS handshake, Finished (20): SSL > connection using DHE-RSA-AES256-SHA > * Server certificate: > * subject: /C=CH/CN=dl.packagist.org/[email protected] > * start date: 2012-07-07 23:25:35 GMT > * expire date: 2013-07-10 02:55:12 GMT > * SSL: certificate subject name 'dl.packagist.org' does not match target host name 'getcomposer.org' > * Closing connection #0 > * SSLv3, TLS alert, Client hello (1): > > > [1]: http://getcomposer.org/doc/00-intro.md

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  • Configuring gmail for use on mailing lists

    - by reemrevnivek
    This is really two questions in one. First, are nettiquette guidelines still accurate in their restrictions on ASCII vs. HTML, posting style, and line length? (Here's a recent metafilter discussion of the topic.) Second, If they are not, should these guidelines be respected? If they are (or if they should still be respected), how can modern mail programs be configured to work properly with them? Most mailing list etiquette statements appear to have been written by sysadmins who loved their command lines, and refuse to change anything. Many still reference rfc1855, written in 1995. Just reading that paginated TXT should give you an idea of the climate at the time. Here's a short, fairly random list of mailing list etiquette statements with some extracted formatting guidelines: Mozilla - HTML discouraged, interleaved posting. FreeBSD - No HTML, don't top post, line length at 75 characters. Fedora - No HTML, bottom-post. You get the idea. You've all seen etiquette statements before. So, assuming that the rules should be obeyed (Usually a good idea), what can be done to allow me to still use a modern mail program, and exchange mail with friends who use the same programs? We like to format our mail. Bold headings, code snippets (sometimes syntax highlighted, if the copy-paste pulls RTF text as from XCOde and Eclipse), free line breaks determined by your browser width, and the (very) occasional image make the message easier to read. Threaded conversations are a wonderful thing. Broadband connections are, I'm sure, the rule for most of the users of SU and of developer mailing lists, disk space is cheap, and so the overhead of HTML is laughable. However, I don't want to post a question to a mailing list and have the guru who can answer my question automatically delete it, or come off as uncaring. Until I hear otherwise, I'll continue to respect the rules as best I can. For a common example of the problem, Gmail, by default, sends HTML formatted messages with bottom-posted quotes (which are folded in, just read the last message immediately above), and uses the frame width to wrap lines, rather than a character count. ASCII can be selected, and quotes can be moved and reversed, but line wraps of quotes don't work, line breaks are tedious to add (and more tedious to read, if they're super small in comparison to the width of the frame). Is there a forwarding, free mail program which can help with this exercise? Should an "RFC1855 mode" lab be written? Or do I have to go to the command line for my mailing lists, and gmail for my other mail?

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