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• Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

  - by Stephen G

  I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

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• rails not recognizing project

  - by tipu

  I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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• Weird output of Throwable getMessage()

  - by Ravi Gupta

  Hi I have below pseudo code with throws an exception like this throw new MyException("Bad thing happened","com.stuff.errorCode"); where MyException extends Exception class. So the problem is when I try to get the message from MyException class by calling myEx.getMessage() it returns ???en_US.Bad thing happened??? instead of my original message i.e. Bad thing happened I have checked that MyException class doesn't overrides Throwable class's getMessage() behavior. Below is the how the call passes from MyException.getMessage() to Throwable.getMessage() public MyException(String msg, String sErrorCode){ super(msg); this.sErrorCode = sErrorCode; this.iSeverity = 0; } which then calls public Exception(String message) { super(message); } and finally public Throwable(String message) { fillInStackTrace(); detailMessage = message; } when I do a getMessage on myexception it calls Throwable's getMessage as below public String getMessage() { return detailMessage; } So ideally it should return the original message as I set when throwing the exception. What's the ???en_US thing ?

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• Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

  - by Jeff Sargent

  In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

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• Unit testing a Grails custom taglib based on built-in Grails taglib

  - by dipess

  I've an app based on Grails 1.3.7. And I need to write a unit test for a custom taglib that is based on the built-in taglib, <g:select /> to be specific. I checked out the solution on this previous SO post but the solution stated is not working in my case (some properties are not being prooperly mocked up). The other solution that I found was this. Using this approach, I get most of the properties of FormTagLib mocked up except for the grailsApplication property that select requires. The actual error that I get is Cannot invoke method getArtefact() on null object. How can I properly write the unit test in such a case? Edit Here are my test class and the full stacktrace. Line #45 on the stacktrace is the call to the g.select from my custom taglib. My custom taglib is something like def clientSpecificQueues = {attrs-> def queueList = taskService.getClientSpecificQueues(session.clientName) def queueLabel = "Some String" if (queueList.size() > 0){ out << queueLabel else out << g.select(name:'queueId', from: queueList, optionKey: 'id', optionValue: 'name') }

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• What are the advantages of using J2EE over ASP.net?

  - by m_oLogin

  We are currently planning to launch a couple of internal web projects in the future. Our company's dev teams are mostly experienced in J2EE and have worked with it for years. Today, we have the choice of launching a couple of our projects on .net. I have checked out a couple of sources on the net, and it seems like the "J2EE vs ASP.net" combat brings out as much discord as the overseen "Apple vs Microsoft" or "Free Eclipse vs Visual Studio"... Nevertheless, I have been somewhat quite impressed with ASP.net's abilities to create great things with huge simplicity (for ex. asp.net ajax's demos). No more tons of xmls to play with, no more tons of frameworks to configure (we usually use the famous combo struts/spring/hibernate)... It just seemed to me that ASP.net had some good advantages over J2EE, but then again, I may speak by ignorance. What I want to know is this : What are the real advantages of using J2EE over ASP.net? Is there anything that cannot be done in ASP.net that can be done in J2EE? Once the frameworks are all in place and configured, is it faster to develop apps in J2EE than it is in .net? Are the applications generally easier to maintain in J2EE than in ASP.net? Is it worth it for some developpers to leave their J2EE knowledge on the side and move on to ASP.net if it does exactly the same thing?

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• WCF Web Service - Service Unavaiable

  - by born to hula

  I have a WCF Web Service which is kept under an Application Pool on IIS. Lately I've been getting "Service Unavaiable" when I'm trying to make calls to this Web Service. The first thing I tried to do was restarting the Application Pool. I did it and after a couple of seconds, it crashed and stopped. Looking at the Event Viewer, I found these messages, which by the moment couldn't help me to find where the problem is. A process serving application pool 'X' reported a failure. The process id was '11616'. The data field contains the error number. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. After getting a couple of these, I got this one: Application pool 'X' is being automatically disabled due to a series of failures in the process(es) serving that application pool. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. I've already checked permissions and Application Pool configurations but everything seems to be OK. Have anyone been through this? Thanks in advance.

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• ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

  - by birdus

  I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

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• How do you deserialize a collection with child collections?

  - by Stuart Helwig

  I have a collection of custom entity objects one property of which is an ArrayList of byte arrays. The custom entity is serializable and the collection property is marked with the following attributes: [XmlArray("Images"), XmlArrayItem("Image",typeof(byte[]))] So I serialize a collection of these custom entities and pass them to a web service, as a string. The web service receives the string and byte array in tact, The following code then attempts to deserialize the collection - back into custom entities for processing... XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(List<myCustomEntity>)); StringReader reader = new StringReader(xmlStringPassedToWS); List<myCustomEntity> entities = (List<myCustomEntity>)ser.Deserialize(reader); foreach (myCustomEntity e in entities) { // ...do some stuff... foreach (myChildCollection c in entities.ChildCollection { // .. do some more stuff.... } } I've checked the XML resulting from the initial serialization and it does contain byte array - the child collection, as does the StringReader built above. After the deserialization process, the resulting collection of custom entites is fine, except that each object in the collection does not contain any items in its child collection. (i.e. it doesn't get to "...do some more stuff..." above. Can someone please explain what I am doing wrong? Is it possible to serialize ArrayLists within a generic collection of custom entities?

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• Binding not working correctly in silverlight

  - by Harsh Maurya

  I am using a DataGrid in my silverlight project which contains a custom checkbox column. I have binded its command property with a property of my ViewModel class. Now, the problem is that I want to send the "selected item" of DataGrid through the command paramter for which I have written the following code : <sdk:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Margin="10,0,10,0" Name="dataGridOrders" ItemsSource="{Binding OrderList}" Height="190"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Select"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CheckBox> <is:Interaction.Triggers> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Checked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Unchecked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> </is:Interaction.Triggers> </CheckBox> But I am always getting null in the parameter of my command's execute method. I have tried with other properties of DataGrid such as Width, ActualHeight e.t.c. but of no use. What am I missing here ?

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• Add/remove validation rules Dynamically

  - by eddy

  Hi, I need to dynamically add validation rules to a text box when the user clicks on the checkbox in that row and remove it when the user unchecks it. This is what I did, and it works fine, but I'm not sure if it is the right way to do it. Here's my html code: <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectItems" value="<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" /> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}"/></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage_<c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>" value="" /></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> and my jquery: $("input[name=selectItems]").change(function() { if (this.checked) { $(this).closest("tr").find("input[name^=mileage]").attr("class","required"); $(this).closest("tr").find("input[name^=mileage]").attr("number",true); } else { $(this).closest("tr").find("input[name^=mileage]").attr("class","") } }); any suggestion is welcome and... I almost forgot, Merry Xmas!

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• How to get a template tag to auto-check a checkbox in Django

  - by Daniel Quinn

  I'm using a ModelForm class to generate a bunch of checkboxes for a ManyToManyField but I've run into one problem: while the default behaviour automatically checks the appropriate boxes (when I'm editing an object), I can't figure out how to get that information in my own custom templatetag. Here's what I've got in my model: ... from django.forms import CheckboxSelectMultiple, ModelMultipleChoiceField interests = ModelMultipleChoiceField(widget=CheckboxSelectMultiple(), queryset=Interest.objects.all(), required=False) ... And here's my templatetag: @register.filter def alignboxes(boxes, cls): """ Details on how this works can be found here: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.1/howto/custom-template-tags/ """ r = "" i = 0 for box in boxes.field.choices.queryset: r += "<label for=\"id_%s_%d\" class=\"%s\"><input type=\"checkbox\" name=\"%s\" value=\"%s\" id=\"id_%s_%d\" /> %s</label>\n" % ( boxes.name, i, cls, boxes.name, box.id, boxes.name, i, box.name ) i = i + 1 return mark_safe(r) The thing is, I'm only doing this so I can wrap some simpler markup around these boxes, so if someone knows how to make that happen in an easier way, I'm all ears. I'd be happy with knowing a way to access whether or not a box should be checked though.

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• Re-order list in Python to ensure it starts with check values.

  - by S_Swede

  Dear all, I'm reading in serial data using Pyserial, to populate a list of 17 values (1byte each) at a sampling rate of 256Hz. The bytes I ultimately want to use are the 5th to 8th in the list. Providing no bytes are dropped, the first two values of the stream are always the same ('165','90'). I'm getting quite a few dropped values though, and my list values are shifting, so when I read the 5th-8th bytes, they aren't the correct values. I've partially combatted this by ensuring that before the wanted segement is captured, the first few values are checked against what they should be (i.e. if mylist[0]==165 &....). This is crude but ok since the chances of these two values appearing adjacent to each other in the list elsewhere is small. The problem is that this means as soon as the bytes shift, I'm losing a load of values, until it eventually realigns. My question is: what code can I use to either: a) Force the list to realign once it has been detected that it no longer starts with 165,90. (elif....). b) Detect where '165' & '90' are (next to each other) in the list and extract the values I want in relation to their position (next but one, onwards). Thanks in advance S_S Just noticed from the related Qs that I could use mylist.append(mylist.pop(0)) multiple times until they are in the right place. Is there a better way that anyone can suggest?

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• Windows Services in Win7?

  - by Brandi

  I am trying to make a service that spawns a desktop application, and then watches to make sure it restarts again if it is closed. . I would like it to basically spawn the process and then forget about it, allowing to act like a normal interactive application. (Apparently this is much easier to do in XP and before, but I need this for XP, Vista, and 7) My problem now is that either it shows up invisible if I use process.start() with desktop interactive checked, and if I directly spawn a form it asks "Do you REALLY want to do this?!" and then the whole screen goes blank EXCEPT for my program. I just want this to be an inoffensive background app. I have the app working well, I just need to figure out how to spawn it from a service without all the trouble. I am finding all of this stuff that says "Don't make services that have UI", but first off this was a requirement that was given to me. (Boss does not want it to be a scheduled task) Also, I noticed that the Task scheduler is itself a service, and it does not have any problem spawning user interactive applications. Why can't I do that too? What am I doing wrong?

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• URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

  - by Rudy

  Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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• HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

  - by Dan Halliday

  I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

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• How would I code a complex formula parser manually?

  - by StormianRootSolver

  Hm, this is language - agnostic, I would prefer doing it in C# or F#, but I'm more interested this time in the question "how would that work anyway". What I want to accomplish ist: a) I want to LEARN it - it's about my ego this time, it's for a fun project where I want to show myself that I'm a really good at this stuff b) I know a tiny little bit about EBNF (although I don't know yet, how operator precedence works in EBNF - Irony.NET does it right, I checked the examples, but this is a bit ominous to me) c) My parser should be able to take this: 5 * (3 + (2 - 9 * (5 / 7)) + 9) for example and give me the right results d) To be quite frankly, this seems to be the biggest problem in writing a compiler or even an interpreter for me. I would have no problem generating even 64 bit assembler code (I CAN write assembler manually), but the formula parser... e) Another thought: even simple computers (like my old Sharp 1246S with only about 2kB of RAM) can do that... it can't be THAT hard, right? And even very, very old programming languages have formula evaluation... BASIC is from 1964 and they already could calculate the kind of formula I presented as an example f) A few ideas, a few inspirations would be really enough - I just have no clue how to do operator precedence and the parentheses - I DO, however, know that it involves an AST and that many people use a stack So, what do you think?

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• Will this class cause memory leaks, and does it need a dispose method? (asp.net vb)

  - by Phil

  Here is the class to export a gridview to an excel sheet: Imports System Imports System.Data Imports System.Configuration Imports System.IO Imports System.Web Imports System.Web.Security Imports System.Web.UI Imports System.Web.UI.WebControls Imports System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts Imports System.Web.UI.HtmlControls Namespace ExcelExport Public NotInheritable Class GVExportUtil Private Sub New() End Sub Public Shared Sub Export(ByVal fileName As String, ByVal gv As GridView) HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear() HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", String.Format("attachment; filename={0}", fileName)) HttpContext.Current.Response.ContentType = "application/ms-excel" Dim sw As StringWriter = New StringWriter Dim htw As HtmlTextWriter = New HtmlTextWriter(sw) Dim table As Table = New Table table.GridLines = GridLines.Vertical If (Not (gv.HeaderRow) Is Nothing) Then GVExportUtil.PrepareControlForExport(gv.HeaderRow) table.Rows.Add(gv.HeaderRow) End If For Each row As GridViewRow In gv.Rows GVExportUtil.PrepareControlForExport(row) table.Rows.Add(row) Next If (Not (gv.FooterRow) Is Nothing) Then GVExportUtil.PrepareControlForExport(gv.FooterRow) table.Rows.Add(gv.FooterRow) End If table.RenderControl(htw) HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(sw.ToString) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End Sub Private Shared Sub PrepareControlForExport(ByVal control As Control) Dim i As Integer = 0 Do While (i < control.Controls.Count) Dim current As Control = control.Controls(i) If (TypeOf current Is LinkButton) Then control.Controls.Remove(current) control.Controls.AddAt(i, New LiteralControl(CType(current, LinkButton).Text)) ElseIf (TypeOf current Is ImageButton) Then control.Controls.Remove(current) control.Controls.AddAt(i, New LiteralControl(CType(current, ImageButton).AlternateText)) ElseIf (TypeOf current Is HyperLink) Then control.Controls.Remove(current) control.Controls.AddAt(i, New LiteralControl(CType(current, HyperLink).Text)) ElseIf (TypeOf current Is DropDownList) Then control.Controls.Remove(current) control.Controls.AddAt(i, New LiteralControl(CType(current, DropDownList).SelectedItem.Text)) ElseIf (TypeOf current Is CheckBox) Then control.Controls.Remove(current) control.Controls.AddAt(i, New LiteralControl(CType(current, CheckBox).Checked)) End If If current.HasControls Then GVExportUtil.PrepareControlForExport(current) End If i = (i + 1) Loop End Sub End Class End Namespace Will this class cause memory leaks? And does anything here need to be disposed of? The code is working but I am getting frequent crashes of the app pool when it is in use. Thanks.

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• Qt application crashing immediately without debugging info. How do I track down the problem?

  - by jjacksonRIAB

  I run an Qt app I've built: ./App Segmentation fault I run it with strace: strace ./App execve("./App", ["./App"], [/* 27 vars */]) = 0 --- SIGSEGV (Segmentation fault) @ 0 (0) --- +++ killed by SIGSEGV +++ Process 868 detached Again, no useful info. I run it with gdb: (gdb) run Starting program: /root/test/App Reading symbols from shared object read from target memory...(no debugging symbols found)...done. Loaded system supplied DSO at 0xffffe000 Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x00000001 in ?? () Again, nothing. I run it with valgrind: ==948== Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) ==948== Bad permissions for mapped region at address 0x0 ==948== at 0x1: (within /root/test/App) Even if I put in debugging symbols, it doesn't give any more useful info. ldd shows all libraries being linked properly. Is there any other way I can find out what's wrong? I can't even do standard printf, cout, etc debugging. The executable doesn't even seem to start running at all. I rebuilt with symbols, and tried the suggestion below (gdb) break main Breakpoint 1 at 0x45470 (gdb) run Starting program: /root/test/App Breakpoint 1 at 0x80045470 Reading symbols from shared object read from target memory...done. Loaded system supplied DSO at 0xffffe000 Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x00000001 in ?? () I checked for static initializers and I don't seem to have any. Yep, I tried printf, cout, etc. It doesn't even make it into the main routine, so I'm looking for problems with static initializers in link libraries, adding them in one-by-one. I'm not getting any stack traces either.

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• Batch File to Delete Folders

  - by Homebrew

  I found some code to delete folders, in this case deleting all but 'n' # of folders. I created 10 test folders, plus 1 that was already there. I want to delete all but 4. The code works, it leaves 4 of my test folders, except that it also leaves the other folder. Is there some attribute of the other folder that's getting checked in the batch file that's stopping it from getting deleted ? It was created through a job a couple of weeks ago. Here's the code I stole (but don't really understand the details): rem DOS - Delete Folders if # folders > n @Echo Off :: User Variables :: Set this to the number of folders you want to keep Set _NumtoKeep=4 :: Set this to the folder that contains the folders to check and delete Set _Path=C:\MyFolder_Temp\FolderTest If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Del "%temp%\tf}1{" PushD %_Path% Set _s=%_NumtoKeep% If %_NumtoKeep%==1 set _s=single For /F "tokens=* skip=%_NumtoKeep%" %%I In ('dir "%_Path%" /AD /B /O-D /TW') Do ( If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" ( Echo %%I:%%~fI >>"%temp%\tf}1{" ) Else ( Echo.>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo Do you wish to delete the following folders?>>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo Date Name>>"%temp%\tf}1{" Echo %%I:%%~fI >>"%temp%\tf}1{" )) PopD If Not Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Echo No Folders Found to delete & Goto _Done Type "%temp%\tf}1{" | More Set _rdflag= /q Goto _Removeold Set _rdflag= :_Removeold For /F "tokens=1* skip=3 Delims=:" %%I In ('type "%temp%\tf}1{"') Do ( If "%_rdflag%"=="" Echo Deleting rd /s%_rdflag% "%%J") :_Done If Exist "%temp%\tf}1{" Del "%temp%\tf}1{"

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• Problem with linking in gcc

  - by chitra

  I am compiling a program in which a header file is defined in multiple places. Contents of each of the header file is different, though the variable names are the same internal members within the structures are different . Now at the linking time it is picking up from a library file which belongs to a different header not the one which is used during compilation. Due to this I get an error at link time. Since there are so many libraries with the same name I don't know which library is being picked up. I have lot of oems and other customized libraries which are part of this build. I checked out the options in gcc which talks about selecting different library files to be included. But no where I am able to see an option which talks about which libraries are being picked up the linker. If the linker is able to find more than one library file name, then which does the linker pick up is something which I am not able to understand. I don't want to specify any path, rather I want to understand how the linker is resolving the multiple libraries that it is able to locate. I tried putting -v option, but that doesn't list out the path from which the gcc picks up the library. I am using gcc on linux. Any help in this regard is highly appreciated. Regards, Chitra

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• JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

  - by teerapap

  The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

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• Account activation PHP

  - by Wayne

  I created this account registration activation script of my own, I have checked it over again and again to find errors, I don't see a particular error... The domain would be like this: http://domain.com/include/register.php?key=true&p=AfRWDCOWF0BO6KSb6UmNMf7d333gaBOB Which comes from an email, when a user clicks it, they get redirected to this script: if($_GET['key'] == true) { $key = $_GET['p']; $sql = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows($result) > 0) { $sql = "UPDATE users SET user_key = '', user_active = '1' WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query(sql) or die(mysql_error()); if($result) { $_SESSION['PROCESS'] = $lang['Account_activated']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Key_error']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Invalid_key']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } It doesn't even work at all, I looked in the database with the user with that key, it matches but it keeps coming up as an error which is extremely annoying me. The database is right, the table and column is right, nothing wrong with the database, it's the script that isn't working. Help me out, guys. Thanks :)

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• jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

  - by Mikejh99

  I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

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• Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

  - by Todd McDermid

  Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

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