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• Controller Error: Do I need to worry?

  - by Kryten

  Hi, I have a HP Pavillion dv5224ea Laptop with Windows 7 on it. Recently I discovered a Error in Event Viewer: The driver detected a controller error on \Device\Ide\IdePort1. (more details): - System - Provider [ Name] atapi - EventID 11 [ Qualifiers] 49156 Level 2 Task 0 Keywords 0x80000000000000 - TimeCreated [ SystemTime] 2010-03-07T12:43:07.090197600Z EventRecordID 30198 Channel System Computer Alistair-Win7 Security - EventData \Device\Ide\IdePort1 0000100001000000000000000B0004C002000000850100C00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000004100000 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Binary data: In Words 0000: 00100000 00000001 00000000 C004000B 0008: 00000002 C0000185 00000000 00000000 0010: 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 0018: 00000000 00001004 In Bytes 0000: 00 00 10 00 01 00 00 00 ........ 0008: 00 00 00 00 0B 00 04 C0 .......À 0010: 02 00 00 00 85 01 00 C0 ......À 0018: 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ........ 0020: 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ........ 0028: 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ........ 0030: 00 00 00 00 04 10 00 00 ........ Event Viewer is recording A LOT of these errors (sometimes 13, one after the other!). Do I need to worry? What does this error mean? What device could "\Device\Ide\IdePort1" be? What is a ATAPI Error? Do I need to re-install Windows? I generally find the occurs when I try to backup my machine (using Windows Backup) or when using a program that uses Volume Shadow Copy. I have run "sfc", no problems. There are no Device Errors in Device Manager. I have also run "vssadmin list writers", no problems. Whats going on??? Would it be a good idea to re-install Windows 7?

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• How do I set up DNS with nic.io to point to an AWS EC2 server?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I purchased a domain one week ago via nic.io. I have elected to provide my own DNS [because they provided no other option]. I'm trying to point my .io domain at my EC2 server instance. I've allocated an elastic IP and associated it with the instance. I can SSH into the instance and access point 80 via the IP address just fine. The IP is 54.235.201.241. nic.io support said the following: "You have selected to provide your own DNS and therefore if there is an issue with the set-up of the name servers you will need to contact your DNS provider." So, I created a Hosted Zone via Route 53 in AWS. This created NS and SOA records. I then set the Primary and Secondary servers at nic.io's domain admin page to the SOA record domains. Additionally, I set the optional servers to the NS domains. I did this two days ago, and I can't access the server via the domain. I ran a DNS check here...still not sure what I need to do: http://mydnscheck.com/?domain=chadjohnson.io&ns1=&ns2=&ns3=&ns4=&ns5=&ns6=. I have no idea what I'm supposed to do. Does anyone have any ideas?

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• Registering publicly Mail server and Web server in a free dns server

  - by Bruno Vieira

  I'm trying to host the e-mails and the site of our company into our private server. I've already followed the Gentoo Virtual Mailhosting System with Postfix Guide and my mail server is working (actually it sends mails for the local users and for external users it goes to spam) and know how to set an Apache 2 server. What I don't know (and I mean really don't) is how to make them public. I did some research and found that I should ask my ISP to change the reverse DNS to my company domain in order to prevent my mails to be marked as spam, they are doing. I already know I have to configure a DNS Server, it seems like my register provider already has one but I don't know how I can configure CNET, A, MX, TXT and all those tags (Is it tags the name?) and If I must do some other configuration on my server. My Server: Linux mail 3.2.21-gentoo #1 SMP My /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 mail.example.com.br example example.com.br ::1 mail.example.com.br mail example.com.br My /etc/conf.d/hostname: hostname ="mail" What am I missing? If there's a guide about how to configure I would really be grate. Thanks in advance for the help. Cheers

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• Windows Task Scheduler fails on EventData instruction

  - by Pete

  The Scheduled Task fails on the Event Data instruction in this XML: <ValueQueries> <Value name="eventChannel">Event/System/Channel</Value> <Value name="eventRecordID">Event/System/EventRecordID</Value> <Value name="eventData">Event/EventData/Data</Value> </ValueQueries> The other 2 fields can be passed as arguments and the EventData syntax matches other websites, so I don't know why it's failing. This is the Event Viewer XML: <Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"> <System> <Provider Name="Aptify.ExceptionManagerPublishedException" /> <EventID Qualifiers="0">0</EventID> <Level>2</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Keywords>0x80000000000000</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime="2013-11-07T19:39:14.000000000Z" /> <EventRecordID>97555</EventRecordID> <Channel>Application</Channel> <Computer>[Computer Name]</Computer> <Security /> </System> <EventData> <Data>General Information ********************************************* Additional Info: ExceptionManager.MachineName: [Computer Name] ExceptionManager.TimeStamp: 11/7/2013 12:39:14 PM ExceptionManager.FullName: AptifyExceptionManagement, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=[key] ExceptionManager.AppDomainName: Aptify Shell.exe ExceptionManager.ThreadIdentity: ExceptionManager.WindowsIdentity: ACA_DOMAIN\pbassett 1) Exception Information ********************************************* Exception Type: Aptify.Framework.BusinessLogic.GenericEntity.AptifyGenericEntityValidationException Entity: Tasks ErrorString: Task Type "Make Contact" is not active. MachineName: [machine] CreatedDateTime: 11/7/2013 12:39:14 PM AppDomainName: Aptify Shell.exe ThreadIdentityName: WindowsIdentityName: [identity] Severity: 0 ErrorNumber: 0 Message: Task Type "Make Contact" is not active. Data: System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSite: Boolean Save(Boolean, System.String ByRef, Sys tem.String) HelpLink: NULL Source: AptifyGenericEntity StackTrace Information ********************************************* at Aptify.Framework.BusinessLogic.GenericEntity.AptifyGenericEntity.Save(Boolean AllowGUI, String& ErrorString, String TransactionID)</Data> </EventData> </Event>

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• can not connect to SQL running on amazon ec2 machine

  - by njj56

  I am using SQL managment studio 2008 running on an Amazon EC2 machine. I am unable to connect to the database in my asp.net application. The EC2 instance has been set to accept connections over the SQL port. I am also able to remote the machine as well as view websites hosted on the server. Listed below is part of the connection string relating to this instance. When the program is ran and this connection string is called, it returns tcp error 0 - no return response. it just times out. <add name="ProjectServer" connectionString="Data Source=*IP ADDRESS HERE*,1433;Initial Catalog=*Catalog Name*;User ID=IP-0A6ED514\Administrator;"/> I removed the ip and the catalog name for the example, but I am sure they are correct. The only thing that I could think may cause an error, is the differences in names between the user id and the server name - the server name is ip-0A6ED514\sharepoint but the user name is ip-0A6ED514\administrator when I log into the sql server manager on the EC2 instance. A password is not used. Not sure if I would need to leave in a blank string for password - also not sure if the difference between server name and user id to log in makes a difference. Any help is appreciated. Thank you. update - when this connection string is used with out the port, i get tcp provider error 40 - when the port is in there, i get error 0 edit- the sql server is using windows authentication - does this make a difference? Usually I always use SQL server authentication

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• Connect over WiFi to SQL Server from another computer

  - by Bronzato

  I tried to connect over WiFi to SQL Server with SQL Server Management Studio from another computer, but it failed. I have a computer with Windows 7 & SQL Server 2008 (lets say the server computer). Next to it I have a freshly installed computer with Windows 7 & SQL Server Management Studio (let's say the client computer). What I did on the server computer: Configure firewall by enabling port 1433 Enabled network protocols (TCP/IP) inside SQL Server Configuration Manager Checked Allow remote connections to this server in server properties in the SQL Server Management application. Started SQL Server Browser Restarted services (SQL Server Browser is stopped at this point, but I don't think it is necessary. Is it?) Next, I successfully tested a ping on the port 1433 from my client computer with a tool named tcping (ex: tcping 192.168.1.4 1433). But I still cannot connect from my client computer to SQL Server on my server computer. Ok, something new with this problem: Until now, I successfully connected to my "server computer" with Management Studio. What I did is type the computer name in the server name field in the connection window of Management Studio. My previous (failed) attempt was to type the computer name followed by the instance of SQL server (ex: COMPUTER_NAME\SQL2008). I don't know why I only have to type the computer name. Now my new challenge is to be successful in connecting my VB6 application to this remote database located on my "server computer". I have a connection string for this but it failed to connect. Here is my connection string: "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Password=mypassword;User ID=sa;Initial Catalog=TPB;Data Source=THIERRY-HP\SQL2008" Any idea what's going wrong?

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• How can I debug user mode driver failures in Windows 8

  - by Tom

  I have a 32 GB SD Card. Whenever I insert this card in to my newly upgraded Windows 8 laptop the OS stops responding normally. Metro Apps won't work. The system may or may not log in. Desktop apps may or may not be able to do things. When I remove the card and restart then all is fine. As soon as I put the card back in, the system starts misbehaving again. I've run Windows Update, so I have the latest drivers from Microsoft. This does not occur with the 8 GB cards I have. Unfortunately I only have one 32 GB card, so I can't test with others. From examining the system event log I've determined this is happening due to a user mode driver failure. How can I best debug this issue from here? How can I figure out which driver this is related to? Will there be a Dr. Watson crash dump somewhere? Details - System - Provider [ Name] Microsoft-Windows-DriverFrameworks-UserMode [ Guid] {2E35AAEB-857F-4BEB-A418-2E6C0E54D988} EventID 10110 Version 1 Level 1 Task 64 Opcode 0 Keywords 0x2000000000000000 - TimeCreated [ SystemTime] 2012-10-29T00:51:57.532718300Z EventRecordID 40417 Correlation - Execution [ ProcessID] 1056 [ ThreadID] 3796 Channel System Computer thebrain - Security [ UserID] S-1-5-18 - UserData - UMDFHostProblem [ lifetime] {811E3DC4-FBC6-420B-ABCC-AD7505A36F3B} - Problem [ code] 3 [ detectedBy] 2 ExitCode 3 - Operation [ code] 259 Message 72448 Status 4294967295 Edit 1 So I tried using Debug View from SysInternals (you can get it here: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896647.aspx). That gave me this information: which is not especially helpful. Then I tried connecting WinDbg to WUDFHost.exe (the process that seems to host user mode drivers) to see if it could catch the error. Get it here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/windows/hardware/hh852363 Instructions: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/library/windows/hardware/ff554716(v=vs.85).aspx That didn't help much. It didn't catch any exceptions as I'd hoped (which would point me to the cause of the crash at least). Here's the stack of one of the threads:

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• Debian/OVH: How to configure multiple Failover IP on the same Xen (Debian) Virtual Machine?

  - by D.S.

  I have a problem on a Xen virtual machine (running latest Debian), when I try to configure a second failover IP address. OVH reports that my IP is misconfigured and they complaint they receive a massive quantity of ARP packets from this IPs, so they are going to block my IP unless I fix this issue. I suspect there's a routing issue, but I don't know (and can't find any useful info on the provider's website, and their support doesn't provide me a valid solution, just bounce me to their online - useless - guides). My /etc/network/interfaces look like this: # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA netmask 255.255.255.255 broadcast AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA post-up route add 000.000.000.254 dev eth0 post-up route add default default gw 000.000.000.254 dev eth0 # Secondary NIC auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB netmask 255.255.255.255 broadcast BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB And the routing table is: Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 000.000.000.254 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 000.000.000.254 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 In these examples (true IP addresses are replaced by fake ones, guess why :)), 000.000.000.000 is my main server's IP address (dom0), 000.000.000.254 is the default gateway OVH recommends, AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA is the first IP Failover and BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB is the second one. I need both AAA.AAA.AAA.AAA and BBB.BBB.BBB.BBB to be publicly reachable from Internet and point to my domU, and to be able to access Internet from inside the virtual machine (domU). I am using eth0 and eth0:0 because due to OVH support, I have to assign both IPs to the same MAC address and then create a virtual eth0:0 interface for the second IP. Any suggestion? What am I doing wrong? How can I stop OVH complaining about ARP flood? Many thanks in advance, DS

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• Exchange 2010 Mail Enabled Public Folder Unable to Recieve External (anon) e-mail.

  - by Alex

  Hello All, I am having issues with my "Public Folders" mail enabled folders receiving e-mails from external senders. The folder is setup with three Accepted Domains (names changed for privacy reasons): 1 - domain1.com (primary & Authoritative) 2 - domain2.com (Authoritative) 3 - domain3.com (Authoritative) When someone attempts to send an e-mail to [email protected] from inside the organization, the e-mail is received and placed in the appropriate folder. However, when someone tries to send an e-mail from outside the organization (such as a gmail account), the following error message is received: "Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 554 554 Recipient address rejected: User unknown (state 14)." When I try to send an e-mail to the same folder, using the same e-mail address above ([email protected]), but with domain2.com instead of domain3.com, it works as intended (both internal & external). I have checked, double checked, and triple checked my DNS settings comparing those from domain2 & domain3 with them both appearing identical. I have tried recreating the folders in question with the same results. I have also ran Get-PublicFolderClientPermission "\Web Programs\folder" with the following results for user anonymous: RunspaceId : 5ff99653-a8c3-4619-8eeb-abc723dc908b Identity : \Web Programs\folder User : Anonymous AccessRights : {CreateItems} Domain2.com & Domain3.com are duplicates of each other, but only domain2.com works as intended. All other exchange functions are functioning properly. If anyone out there has any suggestions, I would love to hear them. I've just hit a brick wall. Thanks for all your help in advance! --Alex

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• How do I determine whether this email bounce is my fault?

  - by David Zaslavsky

  I use Google Apps to handle email for my personal website, so I have an email address [email protected] through that, and I also have a Gmail account [email protected]. Now, I've been trying to send emails to a particular recipient who shall be known as [email protected]. When I send the email from my Gmail account with the @gmail.com address, it works fine. However, when I send it from my Google Apps account with the @ellipsix.net address, I get a bounce message which includes the following text: Delivery to the following recipient failed permanently: [email protected] Technical details of permanent failure: Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 554 554 mail server permanently rejected message (#5.3.0) (state 17). The bounce message suggests that it is up to the mail administrator of the recipient domain example.com to fix the problem, whatever it is. But I would like to be as sure as possible that nothing needs to be fixed on my end. I already have DKIM signatures enabled for my domain, and I have published an SPF DNS record. Is there something else I should check or do, or can I be confident that it's up to the recipient to fix this issue? Does the "state 17" in the bounce message mean something relevant? I've included my domain name in the question so people who know more than me about this stuff can independently check the relevant DNS records or other information. This other question seems similar, but I've already investigated everything suggested in the answers there (except for contacting Google, which I don't want to do unless I suspect it's their issue to fix).

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• Zend Optimizer not Functioning Correctly on Plesk 9.3.0 VPS

  - by dallasclark

  I have a new VPS running Plesk 9.3.0 without 'much' modifications to any settings. I've moved a site to this VPS and I'm receiving a page full of random 'gibbrish' characters like: Zend2003120702116268102798xù Ÿ2½}MŒ%ÇqæCwËg¸„ÖXXZ[ÆùÿCK¢FŠäš’(’¢-ÂÒèu¿zš6gºÇÝ=$Ec:-xá=èàƒÃ ôžL/`,¼'û$èdû$ð ›±OYïUUdfde½á›GâcWTfDdF|‘™‘QÕ_nN‡OÝ›Ÿ/ú9¾¢»"…çÎ =B³øo/=÷…?úúW?·/LX5¯ß½ ðtEÍ ãB„ð÷øìÞéåU®•òÊëZÈi^¿lN/NÎNoÞ›/šÅC׸”šÅLËÏåùÉ+Ü á¸a6Ê÷Ž..ϯrç…Õ–)Õþñòüvsz•{å mî!F³ã[çWsÖZ%k'-ÐÝ<¬þZ1B¡¼ "-ÏîH @/Ü´b.Ï›ù"ü tb¼Ò!”]œ¼ïŠ6–Ál \Ü;½hÎOößh®^“4#…s¡CÀ†æôUèP³Ð§3¦¬“; –j‡ìþb¤÷š»¶³Wçç7÷îÜ…w•bÞs«[ÆÎav,@ÿ´ÜéÖåÌfž¯þVÚlö‹½ÎÛØå#Èoòudñ^÷чW+ÕSsÐý¹w˜7Ÿò«{ò…?<Ìo1»èZÄN_ð³»·îqr÷Vs¾"ýµ¾§þˆ¡v Ù.j†Çï®#{îÞüÞú¿ºý²Q0âLõ$rv¥{»[à|sÝwxþðúy¯)þ • 7ÛŽ È^YËZá‘JV<|·g“l2£{µ«Ù›=é§eCÍîõÖ»ÓÖQtL´D?ε܃ÁªÇ3=ﯸ^=þAIÏjöÐÁ0¡ò¥ 2øÙŸÞçÝÊéqÔ€Lï÷*+Jo¬õLͺFøì x¨ÕìÛ'GH“æådD)ÿ:¨5¼q±¦rÖøLf“Ðj îÅõ¬éa÷[!_zöN?þ"™†á©›0Ý{ˆWóª‘ÁH4µx5+Ë^–Ž›·ÉöŠd1¹Õ¬ phpinfo() shows PHP is running on the Zend engine. This server is unmanaged so I cannot ask the hosting provider for assistance. Any help big or small will be appreciated. [root@vps ~]# php -v PHP 5.1.6 (cli) (built: Mar 31 2010 02:39:17) Copyright (c) 1997-2006 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.1.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2006 Zend Technologies

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• LSI 9260-8i w/ 6 256gb SSDs - RAID 5, 6, 10, or bad idea overall?

  - by Michael Pearson

  We're provisioning a new production server for our reasonably busy website. Our choice of host have available a 6 drive configuration with a LSI 9260-8i card. My initial thought was to fill all six bays with SSDs (Intel 520 256gb) and set them up in RAID. Good, bad, or terrible idea? Can the card handle it? Should we be using RAID 5, 6 or 10? This would be the first time the provider have filled all six slots for this rackmount with SSDs, so they're a bit hesitant. I'm wondering if somebody else with this card has done something similar in a production environment. We do about 43gb of writes per day and currently use about 300gb of storage. The server acts as webserver, database, and image store for approx 1 million files. The plan is to underprovision the SSDs by approximately 10% to 20% to increase their overall lifespan & performance. The fallback option is 2x480gb SSDs in RAID 1 and another 2x1TB HDDs in RAID 1. The motivation behind this is that the server rental cost difference between 2xSSDs and 6xSSDs is minimal (compared to the overall cost of the rental). We do not have any special high-IOPs requirements. However, if the configuration is known to work, I don't see a good reason to not use it and not have to worry about having separate 'fast and small' and 'slow and large' disks.

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• VPN Error 691 but server says authenticated on server

  - by Andy

  Hello all, I have a problem with a vpn connection on Windows XP SP3 that appears to be related to an account (maybe privilleges or an option that I have missed). When connecting using my account, which is a domain administrator account it will connect to through the vpn fine. However, using an account created for another person they receive Error 691: Username or Password is not valid for this domain. On the domain controller (windows 2003) I see a logon successful message: User DOMAIN\user was granted access. Fully-Qualified-User-Name = int.company.net.au/People/Management/User NAS-IP-Address = 10.30.0.3 NAS-Identifier = not present Client-Friendly-Name = MelbourneCore Client-IP-Address = Router-ip Calling-Station-Identifier = not present NAS-Port-Type = Virtual NAS-Port = 77 Proxy-Policy-Name = Use Windows authentication for all users Authentication-Provider = Windows Authentication-Server = undetermined Policy-Name = Remote VPN Access Authentication-Type = MS-CHAPv1 EAP-Type = Does anyone have any ideas as to where else I should look for finding a solution? If i use the wrong password it gives a logon failure error in the event viewer. Also removing them from the remote access group gives a logon failure error. Nothing appears in the event viewer on the local machine. In the past all that is required is to add them into our Remote Access Users group. Any help?

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• When pointing to new DNS servers is there any chance of E-mails being lost if the old E-mail hosting service is still up?

  - by LaserBeak

  I am changing webhosts and will be using the new hosts mail servers instead of the old ones. I have created all the correctly named mailboxes on the new service but have also not yet cut ties with the old webhost. I am expecting that even if the new DNS values which point to the new hosts DNS servers and respective SOA\zone file with the new MX values have not yet propagated and an E-mail is directed at the old hosts mail servers as per the mx records in the SOA\zone records which the old hosting provider holds, the E-mail would still come through to the mailbox that's on the old host providers mail servers. So I am just trying to reaffirm if I got this right and it's essentially impossible for me to loose an E-mail since it will hit either the old hosts mail servers or the new ones ? Also is it possible to configure the same E-mail account to check and collect mail from different mail servers by entering multiple pop3 addresses ? And if I choose to keep the old web hosts mail hosting services as a backup by specifying the mx records for it with a lower priority in the SOA records hosted by the new webhost, is it possible to have any incoming E-mails sent to both servers by the mail daemon so I have two copies? Or is my only option having the primary mail server forward the E-mail somehow to the old mailserver ?

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• How to set up multiple DNS servers on an intranet

  - by Brent

  We have an Active Directory network, with a mixture of Windows DNS, linux BIND servers, and want to use OpenDNS as our external DNS provider. I am wondering What is the best way to set up these servers (regarding forwarders, recursion, etc.)? Active Directory is our main internal DNS for our domain, and has 3 redundant servers. DHCP and all our servers use these as their DNS servers. Then we have a legacy AD server from an old network that is still authoritative for a bunch of domains. Finally, we have a couple of Linux Bind servers that are authoritative for a bunch of websites we host. Should our main AD servers point to our legacy AD server, which points to one of our BIND servers, which points to the other BIND server, which finally points out to openDNS? Or should our main AD servers point to all of these directly? - or is there a better option? What happens if a domain is listed in 2 places? Does DNS process the forwarders in order? What about root servers - if I want to use OpenDNS for "everything else", do I just list them as the last forwarders, and delete the root servers from all my DNS servers? How does recursion work - in this scenario, should I be using recursion or not?

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• Email bouncing sent from Google

  - by davidmck

  I'm hoping someone here has an idea of where to look next. We have a domain we support which has email sent to it from one particular user bounce with the following message: Delivery to the following recipient failed permanently: [email protected] Technical details of permanent failure: Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 550 550 Unrouteable address (state 14). We only have reports of bouncing form this one particular user (who is someone we don't support - except they'd like to be able to contact our customer and we're trying to figure out if the problem is on our end). Many people can successfully send to this domain and the user who is getting bounce messages can send to other domains that we support (so it's clearly something specific with the princetonscoop.com domain and not our setup in general). I've reviewed the MX records multiple times and the server logs don't show a connection which generates this error (in fact this error is not one that our mail server would ever return). So it appears that google is contacting a different mail server for some reason. I have tested sending from my gmail account and that works. I believe the sender is using a google-apps account (the account they are using is from their own domain, not a gmail account). Any ideas on what might be happening here or what to test/investigate next? Thanks.

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• GMail and Yahoo Mail servers not accepting mails from my slicehost slice

  - by Lakshmanan

  Hi, I have a rails in one of the slices at Slicehost. I've setup postfix (sendmail) to send emails from my rails app. All emails to Google Apps domain (to company setup google hosted paid email id) are getting delivered properly (but to spam folder). But all emails to [email protected], [email protected], .. @hotmail.com are not getting delivered and this is the line from my /var/log/mail.log Dec 21 17:33:56 staging postfix/smtp[32295]: 5EB4810545B: to=<[email protected]>, relay=j.mx.mail.yahoo.com[66.94.237.64]:25, delay=1.6, delays=0.02/0.01/1.5/0, dsn=4.0.0, status=deferred (host j.mx.mail.yahoo.com[66.94.237.64] refused to talk to me: 553 Mail from 173.203.201.186 not allowed - 5.7.1 [BL21] Connections not accepted from IP addresses on Spamhaus PBL; see http://postmaster.yahoo.com/errors/550-bl21.html [550]) and this is what i got for gmail Dec 21 17:29:17 staging postfix/smtp[32216]: 0FA3310545B: to=<[email protected]>, relay=gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com[74.125.65.27]:25, delay=0.59, delays=0.02/0.01/0.09/0.47, dsn=5.7.1, status=bounced (host gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com[74.125.65.27] said: 550-5.7.1 [173.203.201.186] The IP you're using to send mail is not authorized 550-5.7.1 to send email directly to our servers. Please use the SMTP relay at 550-5.7.1 your service provider instead. Learn more at 550 5.7.1 http://mail.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?answer=10336 v49si11176750yhc.16 (in reply to end of DATA command)) Please help. I have very little knowledge about setting dns, servers and stuff.

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• Printing to a remote printer through the internet

  - by Lock

  I have a remote network (A) that is connected to a head office (B) through a private network. Network A only has 1 PC that requires the connection, and this is into a terminal server at network B. We want to save money by getting rid of the private network as only 1 PC now access it and it seems silly to pay ~$400 per month for something that is accessed by 1 PC. A VPN tunnel is out of the question as the provider wants to charge $600 a month for a VPN tunnel (more than a private network? I might get them to check these numbers). I was thinking of 2 options: 1) VPN client on the PC. This wouldn't cost a thing as we already have VPN users available. 2) Open up a port on the firewall of network B, forwarding to the terminal server. Now the problem is this: On the terminal server, the program that is accessed is for printing labels to the printer that is at network A. The program is setup to send all print jobs to a printer that is setup locally on the terminal server, which has its port mapped to the IP address of the printer that is at network A. If we got rid of the VPN tunnel and used clients/open up firewall port, the printer would no longer be able to find network A, and hence printing would not work. Any ideas to combat this issue? Can the printers at the remote network be setup as internet printers? I've never had any experience with internet printers. Can you open up ports and map to a public static IP address?

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• How to set up a serial connection to a Windows 7 computer

  - by oli_arborum

  I need to set up a "dial in" connection to a Windows 7 (Ultimate) computer via a serial null-modem cable to be able to connect from a Windows XP client to that computer and exchange data over IP. Question 1: How do I do that? I did neither find the information via Google nor in the MSDN. Seems like no one tried ever before... ;-) I already managed to install a legacy modem device called "Communications cable between two computers" and found the menu entry "New Incoming Connection..." in Network and Internet Network Connections. When I finish this wizard I get the message that the "Routing and Remote Access service" cannot be started. In the event viewer I see the following error messages: "The currently configured authentication provider failed to load and initialize successfully. The requested name is valid, but no data of the requested type was found." (Source: RemoteAccess, EventID: 20152) "The Routing and Remote Access service terminated with service-specific error The requested name is valid, but no data of the requested type was found." (Source: Service Control Manager, EventID: 7024) The Windows 7 installation is "naked", i.e. no additional software or services are installed. Question 2: Am I on the right path to set up the connection? Question 3: How can I get the Routing and Remote Access service running?

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• How to send T.38 from a mac?

  - by Brian Postow

  I'm trying to set up a fax-server on a macintosh. I have Hylafax, and we're going to use an internet FOIP fax provider (Haven't decided who yet, that may be another question). The problem is how to get from Hylafax to T.38. I know of two options, but I'm not sure how to decide between them: T38modem Advantages: It's only one extra program, and i know that I can compile it for the Mac. (well, At least I can get the H323 version working on a Mac) Disadvantages: It is mostly undocumented and seems to be supported only by one guy in Russia. IAXModem/Asterisk Advantages: It's well known, and well supported. We can pay for support. It presumably does the T38 with SIP correctly, so we don't have to worry about it. Disadvantages: It's two separate programs. While I know how to get Asterisk on a mac, I'm not sure about IAXModem. (It's sourceforge, and linux, but compiling things for a mac isn't always straight forward...) It's also mostly undocumented. Do these seem like an accurate listing of the pros/cons? Anyone have any other suggestions? thanks.

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• Networking - intermittent, slow speeds

  - by jack

  Hi all I'm a novice when it comes to networking. I live in a large two storey building that used to be a school and we have an internet connection with BT (british telecoms provider), the connection speed is 12Mb.. Basically our connection is slow and very intermittent and I was wondering if anybody here could provide some help or ideas. There are about 11 people in the building who could be online at any time. We have a router on the ground floor which is bog standard supplied by BT. To provide Broadband access to the 1st and 2nd floors, we used an old switch that the school left, we have a cable running from the router on the first floor to the switch which connects to a wireless router which is configured as a bridge on the 2nd floor supplying broadband access to the 1st and 2nd floors. Additionally we have 3 computers that are connected via the switch through the ethernet sockets left by the school on the ground floor. The router we use on the 2nd floor came in a pack of 2 and cost about £15 (bought by another person). Sometimes the connection is perfectly fine, i.e. early hours of the morning or when everybody is out, we have rang BT who say that the connection cannot cope with the numbers of people online, plus I'm not sure whether each person is streaming etc. Can anybody offer any advice?

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• Cisco Pix 515 ip addressing

  - by Rickard

  I have just gotten my hands on a Cisco Pix 515 (not 515E) with 3 interfaces, and are just about to start some labs. In my lab, I am using a real life scenario from an actual setup at work. As I have no access to the device at work, I am simply trying to replicate the scenario by trial and error. At work, we are given two IP addresses from the provider, which is 1-to-1 nated addresses. The addresses we are allowed to use are: 10.131.35.4-5/29 Now, we have 3 servers on a DMZ, 192.168.2.2-4/24 and 17 client computers on 192.168.1.100-117/24 aswell as some static addressed devices on 192.168.1.8-18/27 My question is, how would I best set up so that the machines on the DMZ get's translated to 10.131.35.4 and the machines on 192.168.1.* will be translated to 10.131.35.5 I don't expect or want anyone to give me a fully functional config, I may learn from it, but I'd prefer to just have some advices or maybe a guide on how to set it up. I hope someone can shed some light over my situation, have been looking through google but I guess I don't the searchwords I'm using isn't too good as I can't find any good clues. THank you very much! PS. Maybe I should add, I am not unfamiliar with the Cisco CLI, as I prefer using that before any gui's. So not really looking for any solutions for the ASDM. DS.

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• is it good to have or difference between ADSL Modem+WiFi Router and Separate ADSL Modem & Wi-Fi Router?

  - by vikas devde

  I have ADSL2 Modem which I got from my service provider, now I want to setup wireless(Wi-Fi) in my home. I went to shop, where I came to know that there are routers which come up with modem also but they are priced lil higher than the only wi-fi routers. Now it is obvious that I should go for only wi-fi one, as I already have modem. My question is, is there any difference between ADSL+router and only router? I think if I use ADSL+router, the speed will increase lilbit, as modem does modulate and demodulate signals, and router also generates wireless signal, that is time to take conversions is doubled, and if I use ADSL+modem, it will directly convert the signals to wireless, and time will be saved, so the overall speed will increase lilbit. This is what my concept is(Which might be wrong). What do you guys would suggest me? should I take my current modem away and buy an ADSL+router or I should keep my modem and buy only wi-fi one. Please tell me the difference and suggest me which one I should go with, and also suggest me which company router I should go for.

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• Plesk wildcard subdomain not working

  - by avdgaag

  I'm trying to set up a wildcard subdomain on my VPS. Ultimately I want to end up with this: main site: my.domain.tld subdomain: sub1.my.domain.tld - should end up serving my.domain.tld/sub1 I am using plesk 8.6. I have created a DNS A record pointing at my VPS' IP. I have then restarted the DNS server and waited up to 24 hours. But trying ping sub1.my.domain.tld results in an unknown host error. So I know there's more stuff involved, configuring apache etc. But so far, I cannot even get the subdomain working at all, let alone serve up the right content. I have also tried a CNAME record, to no effect. I have also tried creating a regular subdomain with a fixed name, which also does not work. Pre-configured subdomains DO work, like ftp.my.domain.tld or mail.my.domain.tld. I am clearly missing something here, but my hosting provider charges a small fortune for any support request not involving hardware physically burning down, so I'm hesitant to ask them. Any ideas?

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• Problems with word completion on Windows Mobile

  - by Rowland Shaw

  For "some reason" the word completion function on my windows mobile phone (HTC Diamond, rebadged as a T-Mobile MDA Compact IV (UK) running WM6.1 with HTC Touch Flo 3D) hasn't worked since one of my firends was taking a look at the phone (I remember him bitching about it being too obtrusive for him, as an iPhone fanboy). I've checked all the obvious settings ( Start Input Word Completion ) and everything looks set there; I tried a hard reset, to no avail and even tried upgrading the ROM t the latest from my network provider. I even tried walking into the store where I bought the phone, and the staff couldn't fix the issue. I still have my old handset, which also runs WM6.1 (a T-Mobile MDA Compact III (UK), albeit without Touch Flo 3D), and the word completion works on there, so I'm a little confused as to why I can't get it to work again on my new handset. Can anybody identify why this might not be working, or help me fix it? Edit: Even "Touch Input Settings" has both "Word Completion in T9 mode" and "Word Completion in ABC mode" checked. The full qwerty keyboard option is in T9 mode, and word completion works for this input method; It still does not work for my preferred, "Letter Recogniser" method.

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