Search Results

Search found 13859 results on 555 pages for 'non functional'.

Page 475/555 | < Previous Page | 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482  | Next Page >

  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

    Read the article

  • How To Join Tables from Two Different Contexts with LINQ2SQL?

    - by RSolberg
    I have 2 data contexts in my application (different databases) and need to be able to query a table in context A with a right join on a table in context B. How do I go about doing this in LINQ2SQL? Why?: We are using a SaaS product for tracking our time, projects, etc. and would like to send new service requests to this product to prevent our team from duplicating data entry. Context A: This db stores service request information. It is a third party DB and we are not able to make changes to the structure of this DB as it could have unintended non-supportable consequences downstream. Context B: This data stores the "log" data of service requests that have been processed. My team and I have full control over this DB's structure, etc. Unprocessed service requests should find their way into this DB and another process will identify it as not being processed and send the record to the SaaS product. This is the query that I am looking to modify. I was able to do a !list.Contains(c.swHDCaseId) initially, but this cannot handle more than 2100 items. Is there a way to add a join to the other context? var query = (from c in contextA.Cases where monitoredInboxList.Contains(c.INBOXES.inboxName) select new { //setup fields here... });

    Read the article

  • Ruby integer to string key

    - by Gene
    A system I'm building needs to convert non-negative Ruby integers into shortest-possible UTF-8 string values. The only requirement on the strings is that their lexicographic order be identical to the natural order on integers. What's the best Ruby way to do this? We can assume the integers are 32 bits and the sign bit is 0. This is successful: (i >> 24).chr + ((i >> 16) & 0xff).chr + ((i >> 8) & 0xff).chr + (i & 0xff).chr But it appears to be 1) garbage-intense and 2) ugly. I've also looked at pack solutions, but these don't seem portable due to byte order. FWIW, the application is Redis hash field names. Building keys may be a performance bottleneck, but probably not. This question is mostly about the "Ruby way".

    Read the article

  • Segmentation fault on certain inputs and not others

    - by Brandon Schwandt
    Heres a function I wrote that has some debugging elements in it already. When i enter either a "y" or a "Y" as the input I get a segmentation fault during runtime. When I enter any other value the code runs. The seg fault kicks out after it scans and gives me the response but before the "scan worked" line is output. DOn't know why it would act like this only on these values. If anyone needs the function call I have that as well. query_user(char *response [10]) { printf("response after query call before clear=%s\n",response); strcpy(response,""); printf("response after clearing before scan=%s\n",response); printf("Enter another person into the line? y or n\n"); scanf("%s", response); printf("response after scan=%s\n",response); printf("scan worked"); } main() { char response [10]; strcpy(response,"y"); printf("response=%s\n",response); printf("When finished with program type \"done\" to exit\n"); while (strcmp(response,"done") != 0) { printf("response after while loop and before query call=%s\n",response); query_user(&response); } } output on error: response after query call before clear=y response after clearing before scan= Enter another person into the line? y or n y response after scan=y Segmentation Fault (core dumped) output on non-error: response after query call before clear=y response after clearing before scan= Enter another person into the line? y or n n response after scan=n scan worked Cycle number 0 (program continues to run outside this function)

    Read the article

  • How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

    - by hornairs
    I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jquery tabbed interface breaks when using images

    - by Steve
    hello all, using jquery to create a tabbed interface. coding is quite typical: html: <div id="tabbed-interface"> <ul> <li><a href="#option1">Option1</a></li> <li><a href="#option2">Option2</a></li> <li><a href="#option3">Option3</a></li> </ul> </div> jquery: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tabbed-interface li:first').addClass('active'); $('#tabbed-interface div').not(':first').hide(); $('#tabbed-interface>ul>li>a').click(function(event){ $('#tabbed-interface>ul>li').removeClass('active'); $(event.target).parent().addClass('active'); $('#tabbed-interface>div').fadeOut().filter(this.hash).fadeIn(250); return false;});}); css: ul li {background: #232323; list-style: none; border: 1px solid #616161; } ul li.active {background: none; list-style: none; border: 1px solid: #616161; border-bottom: 1px solid #121212; z-index: 1; } as you can see, all this does is add the class 'active' to the li that is clicked, and this corresponds to whether a background is shown or not. this works perfectly with text, but i am required to use non standard fonts. when i try to side step the issue using transparent .png images, it is unreliable. For instance, changing the HTML to: <div id="tabbed-interface"> <ul> <li><a href="#option1"><img src="option1.png" /></a></li>

    Read the article

  • Update table using SSIS

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to update a field in a table with data from another table, based on a common key. If it were in straight SQL, it would be something like: Update EHSIT set e.IDMSObjID = s.IDMSObjID from EHSIT e, EHSIDMS s where e.SITENUM = s.SITE_CODE However, the two tables are not in the same database, so I'm trying to use SSIS to do the update. Oh, and the sitenum/site_code are varchar in one and nvarchar in the other, so I'll have to do a data conversion so they'll match. How do I do it? I have a data flow object, with the source as EHSIDMS and the destination as EHSIT. I have a data conversion to convert the unicode to non-unicode. But how do I update based on the match? I've tried with the destination, using a SQL Command as the Data Access mode, but it doesn't appear to have the source table. If I just map the field to be updated, how does it limit it based on fields matching? I'm about to export my source table to Excel or something, and then try inputting from there, although it seems that all that would get me would be to remove the data conversion step. Shouldn't there be an update data task or something? Is it one of those Data Flow transformation tasks, and I'm just not figuring out which it is?

    Read the article

  • A way to edit content by altering one file?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have a contact css tab on my left side on my website, I have more then 30 pages and I don't wantto manually alter all those pages later when data had changed. Does anyone knows a sollution so I only have to alter 1 file to have all pages edited? Perhaps in javascript? The code below is for the tab <div class="slide-out-div"> <a class="handle" href="http://link-for-non-js-users">Content</a> <h3>Onze contact gegevens</h3> <p>Adres: van Ostadestraat 55<br /> Postcode: 8932 JZ<br /> Plaats: Leeuwarden<br /> Tel: 058 844 66 28<br /> Mob: 0629594595 <br /> E-mail: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">[email protected]</a><br /><br /> </p> <p>Mocht u vragen hebben dan kunt u gerust bij ons terecht voor meer informatie.</p>

    Read the article

  • Using fonts that aren't on iPhone

    - by 4thSpace
    I'd like to use some fonts that aren't part of the iPhone OS. I've seen games that use non standard fonts. I can install the fonts, create images for each one in Photoshop and then use those images in the iPhone app. However, I don't think that is a practical way to go. If the color or tint needs to be adjusted (because of background) or size, I'll have to redesign every font I'm using. Is there a better way to do this? I read this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/360751/can-i-embed-a-custom-font-in-an-iphone-application and downloaded the open source font label app. However, it crashes most of the time when I try using particular fonts. In regards to the last comment about using UIFont with the fontWithName:size, that certainly doesn't work. Your font variable will be nil. Listing all available fonts reveals why - none of the custom fonts are in the list. I've also read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/566054/how-do-i-include-a-font-with-my-iphone-application, which definitely does not work. Same as last comment in above link.

    Read the article

  • is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-

    - by guest
    is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-function"? what i call a sequence-generating-function is simply a function which returns a value out of a specific interval (i.e. printable ascii-charecters (32-126)). the point now is, that this generated sequence should be the programs own source-code. as you see, implementing a function which returns an arbitrary sequence is really trivial, but since the returned sequence must contain the implementation of the function itself it is a highly non-trivial task. this is how such a program (and its corresponding output) could look like #include <stdio.h> int fun(int x) { ins1; ins2; ins3; . . . return y; } int main(void) { int i; for ( i=0; i<size of the program; i++ ) { printf("%c", fun(i)); } return 0; } i personally think it is not possible, but since i don't know very much about the underlying matter i posted my thoughts here. i'm really looking forward to hear some opinions!

    Read the article

  • Do you catch expected exceptions in the controller or business service of your asp.net mvc application

    - by Pascal
    I am developing an asp.net mvc application where user1 could delete data records which were just loaded before by user2. User2 either changes this non-existent data record (Update) or is doing an insert with this data in another table that a foreign-key constraint is violated. Where do you catch such expected exceptions? In the Controller of your asp.net mvc application or in the business service? Just a sidenote: I only catch the SqlException here if its a ForeignKey constraint exception to tell the user that another user has deleted a certain parent record and therefore he can not create the testplan. But this code is not fully implemented yet! Controller:   public JsonResult CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan)   {    bool success = false;    string error = string.Empty;    try   {    success = testplanService.CreateTestplan(testplan);    }   catch (SqlException ex)    {    error = ex.Message;    }    return Json(new { success = success, error = error }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);   } OR Business service: public Result CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan) { Result result = new Result(); try { using (var con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) using (var trans = new TransactionScope()) { con.Open(); _testplanDataProvider.AddTestplan(testplan); _testplanDataProvider.CreateTeststepsForTestplan(testplan.Id, testplan.TemplateId); trans.Complete(); result.Success = true; } } catch (SqlException e) { result.Error = e.Message; } return result; } then in the Controller: public JsonResult CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan)   {    Result result = testplanService.CreateTestplan(testplan);       return Json(new { success = result.success, error = result.error }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);   }

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

    - by Randolpho
    The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Turning a series of raw images into movie frames in Android

    - by Nicholas Killewald
    I've got an Android project I'm working on that, ultimately, will require me to create a movie file out of a series of still images taken with a phone's camera. That is to say, I want to be able to take raw image frames and string them together, one by one, into a movie. Audio is not a concern at this stage. Looking over the Android API, it looks like there are calls in it to create movie files, but it seems those are entirely geared around making a live recording from the camera on an immediate basis. While nice, I can't use that for my purposes, as I need to put annotations and other post-production things on the images as they come in before they get fed into a movie (plus, the images come way too slowly to do a live recording). Worse, looking over the Android source, it looks like a non-trivial task to rewire that to do what I want it to do (at least without touching the NDK). Is there any way I can use the API to do something like this? Or alternatively, what would be the best way to go about this, if it's even feasible on cell phone hardware (which seems to keep getting more and more powerful, strangely...)?

    Read the article

  • logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

    Read the article

  • Should we retire the term "Context"?

    - by MrGumbe
    I'm not sure if there is a more abused term in the world of programming than "Context." A word that has a very clear meaning in the English language has somehow morphed into a hot mess in software development, where the definition where the connotation can be completely different based on what library you happen to be developing in. Tomcat uses the word context to mean the configuration of a web application. Java applets, on the other hand, use an AppletContext to define attributes of the browser and HTML tag that launched it, but the BeanContext is defined as a container. ASP.NET uses the HttpContext object as a grab bag of state - containing information about the current request / response, session, user, server, and application objects. Context Oriented Programming defines the term as "Any information which is computationally accessible may form part of the context upon which behavioral variations depend," which I translate as "anything in the world." The innards of the Windows OS uses the CONTEXT structure to define properties about the hardware environment. The .NET installation classes, however, use the InstallContext property to represent the command line arguments entered to the installation class. The above doesn't even touch how all of us non-framework developers have used the term. I've seen plenty of developers fall into the subconscious trap of "I can't think of anything else to call this class, so I'll name it 'WidgetContext.'" Do you all agree that before naming our class a "Context," we may want to first consider some more descriptive terms? "Environment", "Configuraton", and "ExecutionState" come readily to mind.

    Read the article

  • Tips for submitting a library to Boost?

    - by AraK
    Hi everyone, Summer is coming, and a group of friends and I are getting ready for it :) We decided to build a compile-time Arbitrary precision Unsigned Integers. We would like to provide a set of integers algorithms(functions) with the library. We have seen a number of requests for such a library(SoC2010, C++0x Standard Library wishlist). Also, a regular run-time bigint is requested usually with that, but we don't want to go into the hassle of memory management. The idea came to me from a library called TTMath, unfortunately this library works only on specific platforms because Assembly was used extensively in the library. We would like to write a standard library, depending on the C++ standard library and Boost. Also, we would like to use the available C++0x facilities in current compilers like user-defined literals and others. This would technically make the library non-standard for a while, but we think that it is a matter of time the new standards will be official. Your hints on the whole process including design, implementation, documentation, maintainable of the library are more than welcom. We are a group of students and fresh graduates who are looking for something interesting in the summer, but we see that Boost is full of gurus and we don't want to forget something too obvious. We are communicating on-line, so there is no shared white-boards :( Thanks,

    Read the article

  • google maps api keys to be set webserver-wide, (as env var? inside apache?)

    - by ~knb
    I have a web site with many virtual hosts and each registered with several domain names (ending in .org, .de), site1.mysite.de, site2.mysite.org Then I have different templating systems based on several programming languages (perl and php) in use on the web server. The Google Maps Api requires a unique Google Maps api key for each vhost. I want to have something like a web-server wide variable $goomapkey that I can call from inside my code. In PHP code, Now I have a kludgy case-analysis solution like $domain = substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], -3); if (".de" == $domain){ //if ("xxxxxx" eq substr($ENV{SERVER_NAME}, 0, 5)){ // $gookey = "ABQIAAA..."; //} else { //site1.de $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1Js..."; //} } elseif ("dev" == substr($_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], 0, 3)){ //dev.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsSb..."; } else { //www.mysite.org $gookey = "ABQIAAAA1JsS..."; //TODO: Add more keys for each virtual host, for my.machinename.de, IP-address based URL, ... } ... inside my php-based CMS. A non-ideal solution, because it is, php-only, and I still have to set it at several html templates inside the CMS, and there are too many cases. I want the google maps api key to be set by the apache web server who examines the request *early in the request loop before any php page template code is constructed and evaluated. is an environment variable a good solution? which technology should be used to set the $goomapkey variable? I'd prefer mod_perl2 Apache request handler, but the documentation is confusing (many API changes in the past ). Which Apache module could I use? Is there a built-in Apache module that does the same thing?

    Read the article

  • How can I manage building library projects that produce both a static lib and a dll?

    - by Scott Langham
    I've got a large visual studio solution with ~50 projects. There are configurations for StaticDebug, StaticRelease, Debug and Release. Some libraries are needed in both dll and static lib form. To get them, we rebuild the solution with a different configuration. The Configuration Manager window is used to setup which projects need to build in which flavours, static lib, dynamic dll or both. This can by quite tricky to manage and it's a bit annoying to have to build the solution multiple times and select the configurations in the right order. Static versions need building before non-static versions. I'm wondering, instead of this current scheme, might it be simpler to manage if, for the projects I needed to produce both a static lib and dynamc dll, I created two projects. Eg: CoreLib CoreDll I could either make both of these projects reference all the same files and build them twice, or I'm wondering, would it be possible to build CoreLib and then get CoreDll to link it to generate the dll? I guess my question is, do you have any advice on how to structure your projects in this kind of situation? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • GetIpAddrTable() leaks memory. How to resolve that?

    - by Stabledog
    On my Windows 7 box, this simple program causes the memory use of the application to creep up continuously, with no upper bound. I've stripped out everything non-essential, and it seems clear that the culprit is the Microsoft Iphlpapi function "GetIpAddrTable()". On each call, it leaks some memory. In a loop (e.g. checking for changes to the network interface list), it is unsustainable. There seems to be no async notification API which could do this job, so now I'm faced with possibly having to isolate this logic into a separate process and recycle the process periodically -- an ugly solution. Any ideas? // IphlpLeak.cpp - demonstrates that GetIpAddrTable leaks memory internally: run this and watch // the memory use of the app climb up continuously with no upper bound. #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include <assert.h> #include <Iphlpapi.h> #pragma comment(lib,"Iphlpapi.lib") void testLeak() { static unsigned char buf[16384]; DWORD dwSize(sizeof(buf)); if (GetIpAddrTable((PMIB_IPADDRTABLE)buf, &dwSize, false) == ERROR_INSUFFICIENT_BUFFER) { assert(0); // we never hit this branch. return; } } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { for ( int i = 0; true; i++ ) { testLeak(); printf("i=%d\n",i); Sleep(1000); } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

    Read the article

  • C/C++ I18N mbstowcs question

    - by bogertron
    I am working on internationalizing the input for a C/C++ application. I have currently hit an issue with converting from a multi-byte string to wide character string. The code needs to be cross platform compatible, so I am using mbstowcs and wcstombs as much as possible. I am currently working on a WIN32 machine and I have set the locale to a non-english locale (Japanese). When I attempt to convert a multibyte character string, I seem to be having some conversion issues. Here is an example of the code: int main(int argc, char** argv) { wchar_t *wcsVal = NULL; char *mbsVal = NULL; /* Get the current code page, in my case 932, runs only on windows */ TCHAR szCodePage[10]; int cch= GetLocaleInfo( GetSystemDefaultLCID(), LOCALE_IDEFAULTANSICODEPAGE, szCodePage, sizeof(szCodePage)); /* verify locale is set */ if (setlocale(LC_CTYPE, "") == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to set locale\n"); return 1; } mbsVal = argv[1]; /* validate multibyte string and convert to wide character */ int size = mbstowcs(NULL, mbsVal, 0); if (size == -1) { printf("Invalid multibyte\n"); return 1; } wcsVal = (wchar_t*) malloc(sizeof(wchar_t) * (size + 1)); if (wcsVal == NULL) { printf("memory issue \n"); return 1; } mbstowcs(wcsVal, szVal, size + 1); wprintf(L"%ls \n", wcsVal); return 0; } At the end of execution, the wide character string does not contain the converted data. I believe that there is an issue with the code page settings, because when i use MultiByteToWideChar and have the current code page sent in EX: MultiByteToWideChar( CP_ACP, 0, mbsVal, -1, wcsVal, size + 1 ); in place of the mbstowcs calls, the conversion succeeds. My question is, how do I use the generic mbstowcs call instead of teh MuliByteToWideChar call?

    Read the article

  • Avoiding repeated subqueries when 'WITH' is unavailable

    - by EloquentGeek
    MySQL v5.0.58. Tables, with foreign key constraints etc and other non-relevant details omitted for brevity: CREATE TABLE `fixture` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `competition_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `scheduled` datetime default NULL, `played` datetime default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `result` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `fixture_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `team_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `score` int(11) NOT NULL, `place` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `team` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); Where: A draw will set result.place to 0 result.place will otherwise contain an integer representing first place, second place, and so on The task is to return a string describing the most recently played result in a given competition for a given team. The format should be "def Team X,Team Y" if the given team was victorious, "lost to Team X" if the given team lost, and "drew with Team X" if there was a draw. And yes, in theory there could be more than two teams per fixture (though 1 v 1 will be the most common case). This works, but feels really inefficient: SELECT CONCAT( (SELECT CASE `result`.`place` WHEN 0 THEN "drew with" WHEN 1 THEN "def" ELSE "lost to" END FROM `result` WHERE `result`.`fixture_id` = (SELECT `fixture`.`id` FROM `fixture` LEFT JOIN `result` ON `result`.`fixture_id` = `fixture`.`id` WHERE `fixture`.`competition_id` = 2 AND `result`.`team_id` = 1 ORDER BY `fixture`.`played` DESC LIMIT 1) AND `result`.`team_id` = 1), ' ', (SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(`team`.`name`) FROM `fixture` LEFT JOIN `result` ON `result`.`fixture_id` = `fixture`.`id` LEFT JOIN `team` ON `result`.`team_id` = `team`.`id` WHERE `fixture`.`id` = (SELECT `fixture`.`id` FROM `fixture` LEFT JOIN `result` ON `result`.`fixture_id` = `fixture`.`id` WHERE `fixture`.`competition_id` = 2 AND `result`.`team_id` = 1 ORDER BY `fixture`.`played` DESC LIMIT 1) AND `team`.`id` != 1) ) Have I missed something really obvious, or should I simply not try to do this in one query? Or does the current difficulty reflect a poor table design?

    Read the article

  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • RewriteRule to store thousands of files in subdirectories

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that will have millions of pages in a directory. I'd like to store those files on-disk in a bunch of subdirectories based on the first characters of the page name. For example http://mysite.com/hugedir/somefile.html would be stored in /var/www/html/hugedir/s/o/m/e/f/ile.html That is fairly trivial to do with a RewriteRule like so: RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}/$6.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}/{$5}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}/{$4}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}/{$3}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.)(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}/{$2}.html RewriteRule ^hugedir/(.*).html /hugedir/{$1}.html However, the file name may contain hyphens or other non-standard characters and I'd really like to avoid having a directory named with a strange character. Ideally, I'd like to have a list of 'approved' characters and either eliminate or transform the unapproved characters to an underscore. Can anybody think of a way to do that? Or something else equivalent? Part of the requirement is that these be physical files on disk and it not be parsed with a scripting language.

    Read the article

  • Add a value to an element in a list of sets

    - by Kapelson
    Hello. I'm using python, and I have a list of sets, constructed like this: list = [set([])]*n ...where n is the number of sets I want in the list. I want to add a value to a specific set in the list. Say, the second set. I tried list[1].add(value) But this instead adds the value to each set in the list. This behaviour is pretty non-intuitive to me. Through further tests, I think I've found the problem: the list apparently contains 10 instances of the same set, or ten pointers to the same set, or something. Constructing the list through repeated calls of list.append(set([])) allowed me to use the syntax above to add elements to single sets. So my question is this: what exactly is going on in my first list-construction technique? It is clear I don't understand the syntax so well. Also, is there a better way to intialize an n-element list? I've been using this syntax for a while and this is my first problem with it.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482  | Next Page >