Search Results

Search found 13995 results on 560 pages for 'programmer day'.

Page 480/560 | < Previous Page | 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487  | Next Page >

  • MySQL Connection Timeout Issue - Grails Application on Tomcat using Hibernate and ORM

    - by gav
    Hi Guys I have a small grails application running on Tomcat in Ubuntu on a VPS. I use MySql as my datastore and everything works fine unless I leave the application for more than half a day (8 hours?). I did some searching and apparently this is the default wait_timeout in mysql.cnf so after 8 hours the connection will die but Tomcat won't know so when the next user tries to view the site they will see the connection failure error. Refreshing the page will fix this but I want to get rid of the error altogether. For my version of MySql (5.0.75) I have only my.cnf and it doesn't contain such a parameter, In any case changing this parameter doesn't solve the problem. This Blog Post seems to be reporting a similar error but I still don't fully understand what I need to configure to get this fixed and also I am hoping that there is a simpler solution than another third party library. The machine I'm running on has 256MB ram and I'm trying to keep the number of programs/services running to a minimum. Is there something I can configure in Grails / Tomcat / MySql to get this to go away? Thanks in advance, Gav From my Catalina.out; 2010-04-29 21:26:25,946 [http-8080-2] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - The last packet successfully received from the server was 102,906,722 milliseconds$ 2010-04-29 21:26:25,994 [http-8080-2] ERROR errors.GrailsExceptionResolver - Broken pipe java.net.SocketException: Broken pipe at java.net.SocketOutputStream.socketWrite0(Native Method) ... 2010-04-29 21:26:26,016 [http-8080-2] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Already closed. 2010-04-29 21:26:26,016 [http-8080-2] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Already closed. 2010-04-29 21:26:26,017 [http-8080-2] ERROR servlet.GrailsDispatcherServlet - HandlerInterceptor.afterCompletion threw exception org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Cannot release connection at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: Already closed. at org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection.close(PoolableConnection.java:84) at org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolingDataSource$PoolGuardConnectionWrapper.close(PoolingDataSource.java:181) ... 1 more

    Read the article

  • Multiple asynchronous method calls to method while in a loop

    - by ranabra
    I have spent a whole day trying various ways using 'AddOnPreRenderCompleteAsync' and 'RegisterAsyncTask' but no success so far. I succeeded making the call to the DB asynchronous using 'BeginExecuteReader' and 'EndExecuteReader' but that is missing the point. The asynch handling should not be the call to the DB which in my case is fast, it should be afterwards, during the 'while' loop, while calling an external web-service. I think the simplified pseudo code will explain best: (Note: the connection string is using 'MultipleActiveResultSets') "Select ID, UserName from MyTable" 'Open connection to DB ExecuteReader(); if (DR.HasRows) {     while (DR.Read())     {         'Call external web-service         'and get current Temperature of each UserName - DR["UserName"].ToString()         'Update my local DB         Update MyTable set Temperature = ValueFromWebService where UserName =                                       DR["UserName"]         CmdUpdate.ExecuteNonQuery();     }     'Close connection etc } Accessing the DB is fast. Getting the returned result from the external web-service is slow and that at least should be handled Asynchnously. If each call to the web service takes just 1 second, assuming I have only 100 users it will take minimum 100 seconds for the DB update to complete, which obviously is not an option. There eventually should be thousands of users (currently only 2). Currently everything works, just very synchnously :) Thoughts to myself: Maybe my way of approaching this is wrong? Maybe the entire process should be called Asynchnously Many thanx

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio setup problem - 'A problem has been encountered while loading the setup components. Ca

    - by kronoz
    Hi All, I've had a serious issue with my Visual Studio 2008 setup. I receive the ever-so-useful error 'A problem has been encountered while loading the setup components. Canceling setup.' whenever I try to uninstall, reinstall or repair Visual Studio 2008 (team system version). If I can't resolve this issue I have no choice but to completely wipe my computer and start again which will take all day long! I've recently received very strange errors when trying to build projects regarding components running out of memory (despite having ~2gb physical memory free at the time) which has rendered my current VS install useless. Note I installed VS2005 shell version using the vs_setup.msi file in the SQL Server folder after I had installed VS2008, in order to gain access to the SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services designer in Business Intelligence Development Studio (this is inexplicably unavailable in VS2008). Does anyone have any solutions to this problem? P.S.: I know this isn't directly related to programming, however I feel this is appropriate to SO as it is directly related to my ability to program at all! Note: A colleague found a solution to this problem, hopefully this should help others with this problem.

    Read the article

  • Facebook multi-friend-selector + new javascript API = BROKEN ?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am using the fb:serverfbml tag to render a multi-friend-selector inside an IFrame. I am using the new javascript API. I have been trying ALL DAY to get it working. When I click on the underlines 'selected' link (to filter by the selected friends) the whole page refreshes and the selected friends disappear. Does the multi-friend-selector just not work with the javascript API? <fb:serverfbml> <script type="text/fbml"> <fb:request-form action="http://apps.facebook.com/rollingrazor/" target="_top" method="POST" invite="true" type="Blah blah blah" content="Blah blah! &lt;fb:req-choice url=&quot;http://apps.facebook.com/rollingrazor/&quot; label=&quot;Let me check my friends&quot; /&gt;"> <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" actiontext="Invite your friends" rows="5" cols="5" bypass="cancel" target="_top" /> </fb:request-form> </script> </fb:serverfbml> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function () { FB.init({ appId: 'xxxxxxx', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true }); }; (function () { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); } ()); </script> Can someone give me a working example using new javascript API with a multi-friend-selector?

    Read the article

  • Understanding ItemsSource and DataContext in a DataGrid

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm trying to understand how the ItemsSource and DataContext properties work in a Silverlight Toolkit DataGrid. I'm currently working with dummy data and trying to get the data in the DataGrid to update when the value of a combo box changes. My MainPage.xaml.vb file currently looks like this: Partial Public Class MainPage Inherits UserControl Private IssueSummaryList As List(Of IssueSummary) Public Sub New() GetDummyIssueSummary("Day") InitializeComponent() dgIssueSummary.ItemsSource = IssueSummaryList 'dgIssueSummary.DataContext = IssueSummaryList ' End Sub Private Sub GetDummyIssueSummary(ByVal timeInterval As String) Dim lst As New List(Of IssueSummary)() 'Generate dummy data for lst ' IssueSummaryList = lst End Sub Private Sub ComboBox_SelectionChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Controls.SelectionChangedEventArgs) Dim cboBox As ComboBox = CType(sender, ComboBox) Dim cboBoxItem As ComboBoxItem = CType(cboBox.SelectedValue, ComboBoxItem) GetDummyIssueSummary(cboBoxItem.Content.ToString()) End Sub End Class My XAML currently looks this for the DataGrid: <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgIssueSummary" AutoGenerateColumns="False" > <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding ProblemType}" Header="Problem Type"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Count}" Header="Count"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> The problem is that if I set the value of the ItemsSource property of the data grid equal to IssueSummaryList, it will display the data when it loads, but it won't update when the underlying IssueSummaryList collection changes. If I set the DataContext of the grid to be IssueSummaryList, no data will be displayed when it renders. I must not understand how ItemsSource and DataContext are supposed to function, because I expect one of those properties to "just work" when I assign a List object to them. What do I need to understand and change in my code so that as data changes in the List, the data in the grid is updated?

    Read the article

  • C# inaccurate timer?

    - by Ivan
    Hi there, I'm developing an application and I need to get the current date from a server (it differs from the machine's date). I receive the date from the server and with a simple Split I create a new DateTime: globalVars.fec = new DateTime(DateTime.Now.Year, DateTime.Now.Month, DateTime.Now.Day, int.Parse(infoHour[0]), int.Parse(infoHour[1]), int.Parse(infoHour[2])); globalVars is a class and fec is a public static variable so that I can access it anywhere in the application (bad coding I know...). Now I need to have a timer checking if that date is equal to some dates I have stored in a List and if it is equal I just call a function. List<DateTime> fechas = new List<DateTime>(); Before having to obtain the date from a server I was using computer's date, so to check if the dates matched I was using this: private void timerDatesMatch_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime tick = DateTime.Now; foreach (DateTime dt in fechas) { if (dt == tick) { //blahblah } } } Now I have the date from the server so DateTime.Now can't be used here. Instead I have created a new timer with Interval=1000 and on tick I'm adding 1 second to globalVars.fec using: globalVars.fec = globalVars.fec.AddSeconds(1); But the clock isn't accurate and every 30 mins the clock loses about 30 seconds. Is there another way of doing what I'm trying to do? I've thought about using threading.timer instead but I need to have access to other threads and non-static functions. Thanks in advance, Ivan

    Read the article

  • SQL Exception: "Impersonate Session Security Context" cannot be called in this batch because a simul

    - by kasey
    When opening a connection to SQL Server 2005 from our web app, we occasionally see this error: "Impersonate Session Security Context" cannot be called in this batch because a simultaneous batch has called it. We use MARS and connection pooling. The exception originates from the following piece of code: protected SqlConnection Open() { SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = m_ConnectionString; if (connection != null) { try { connection.Open(); if (m_ExecuteAsUserName != null) { string sql = Format("EXECUTE AS LOGIN = {0};", m_ExecuteAsUserName); ExecuteCommand(connection, sql); } } catch (Exception exception) { connection.Close(); connection = null; } } return connection; } I found an MS Connect article which suggests that the error is caused when a previous command has not yet terminated before the EXECUTE AS LOGIN command is sent. Yet how can this be if the connection has only just been opened? Could this be something to do with connection pooling interacting strangely with MARS? UPDATE: For the short-term we have implemented a workaround by clearing out the connection pool whenever this happens, to get rid of the bad connection, as it otherwise keeps getting handed back to various users. (Not too bad as this only happens a couple of times a day.) But if anyone has any further ideas, we are still looking out for a real solution...

    Read the article

  • Issues Connecting to SQLExpress using Oracle SQL Developer

    - by ArtDeveloper
    Hey Guys, I'm trying to create a connection inside Oracle SQL Developer to a SQLExpress database I have Everything I have resides on the same machine so there isn't any network issues I should have to deal with but everytime I follow the instructions and I try to connect I get the following message "Failure - Unable to get information from SQL Server: localhost." I can connect to the SQLExpress DB using the SQL Management Studio and through an ODBC connection. I've installed the third party extensions and I've enabled the TCP protocol on the SQL Server Configuration manager as well as enabled the IP Addresses I'm assuming that the SQLExpress Database is on port 1433 because I didn't change this when I installed but if someone can tell me how to double check that I would appreciate that info as well. I setup the new connection with the following information name: databasename I'm using windows authentication so the username and password aren't filled in host:localhost port:1433/databasename;instance=SQLEXPRESS *databasename - this is replaced with the actual DB name I've just changed the name here to protect the innocent I've spent about a full day on this trying to get it connected and many google attempts where other ppl have had this issue but have gotten it solved through various methods that I've tried and it hasn't resolved my issue. Any information would be much appreciated Thank you in Advance, AD

    Read the article

  • Blockchain API, AJAX request has stopped working, CORS issues?

    - by Sly
    I've been playing with the multiple address look up API from blockchain info (documented here https://blockchain.info/api/blockchain_api), I had my code working earlier in the day but bizzarely it's stopped. The purpose of it is to eventually write a little JQuery library which will search the DOM for bitcoin addresses as data attributes and then insert the final balance into that element creating a polling mechanism to keep the page updated as well. The original problem I ran into earlier while developing it was because it's a CORS ajax request but later I adjusted the query per the blockchain info API documents and I added cors=true it then seemed to work fine but now it doesn't seem to want to work at all again. I don't get how changing computers would effect this kind of request. Here's my code on JSFiddle, http://jsfiddle.net/SlyFoxy12/9mr7L/7/ My primary code is: (function ($) { var methods = { init: function(data, options) { //put your init logic here. }, query_addresses: function(addresses) { var addresses_implode = addresses.join("|"); $.getJSON("http://blockchain.info/multiaddr?cors=true&active="+addresses_implode, function( data ) { $.each( data.addresses, function( index ) { $('#output').append(" "+data.addresses[index].final_balance); }); }); } }; $.fn.bitstrap = function () { var addresses = new Array(); $('[data-xbt-address]').each(function () { $(this).text($(this).data('xbtAddress')); addresses.push($(this).data('xbtAddress')); }); methods.query_addresses(addresses); } }(jQuery)); $().ready(function() { $().bitstrap(); });

    Read the article

  • Populating array of input fields as alternate fields using jQuery UI datepicker

    - by Micor
    I am using jquery ui datepicker in order to populate start and end dates for multiple events on the same page, the number of events is dynamic and I need to post day, month and year as separate fields, so I have something like this: <input type="text" name="event[0].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_day" class="startDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_month" class="startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> <input type="text" name="event[0].endDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_day" class="endDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_month" class="endDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> event[1]... event[2]... I started working on jQuery functionality and this is what I have so far, which will populate alternate fields for startDate by class, of course it will not do what I need because I need to populate by field name rather then class: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('.startDate_month').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('.startDate_day').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('.startDate_year').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); I need help figuring out how can I get the name of the input field within datepicker function so the alternate field assignment done by that field name + _day, month, year so this function can work for all the events on the page, making function above look more like: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('input[' + $name + '_month' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('input[' + $name + '_day' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('input[' + $name + '_year' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); Hope that makes sense :) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Schema objects not visible in SQL Server Management Studio 2008

    - by Germ
    I'm experiencing a weird problem with a SQL login. When I connect to the server in Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (2008) using this account, I cannot see any of the tables, stored procedures etc. that this account should have access to on a particular database. When I connect to the same server within Visual Studio (2008) with the same account everything is there. When I connect with the same account on a Virtual Machine everything is there. I've also had a co-worker connect to the server using the same login and he's able to view everything as well. I use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio all day connecting to different servers and databases and I've never experienced this problem. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I can diagnose this problem? I've checked to make sure I don't have any Table filters etc. There's several database on this server and I'm able to see the correct tables that this account has access to in the other databases just fine. Running this query lists the tables I'm expecting to see. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES

    Read the article

  • animation extender in datalist control in asp.net 2008

    - by BibiBuBu
    Good Day! i have a question that how can i use animation extender in datalist control in asp.net with c#. i want the animation when i click the delete button (delete button will be in repeater). so that when i remove one record then it shows animation to bring the next record. it is in update panel. <cc1:AnimationExtender ID="AnimationExtender1" runat="server" Enabled="True" TargetControlID="btnDeleteId"> <Animations> <OnClick> <Sequence> <EnableAction Enabled="false" /> <Parallel Duration=".2"> <Resize Height="0" Width="0" Unit="px" /> <FadeOut /> </Parallel> <HideAction /> </Sequence> </OnClick> </Animations> </cc1:AnimationExtender> now if i put my button id in the Target control id then it gives error that it should not be in same update panel etc... but over all nothing working for animation. i am binding my datalist in itemDataBound....e.g. ImageButton imgbtn = (ImageButton)e.Item.FindControl("imgBtnPic"); Label lblAvatar = (Label)e.Item.FindControl("lblAvatar"); LinkButton lbName = (LinkButton)e.Item.FindControl("lbtnName"); Can somebody please suggest me something. thanks

    Read the article

  • how do I "ajaxify" my php code?

    - by dot
    I have divs that I want to display at specific times throughout the day. I have it working in PHP, but it requires refreshing the browser manually. I would like my script to automatically load the right div when the time is right. Am I on the right track? Perhaps there is a jquery plugin for this sort of thing that would handle the refreshing? Any help is greatly appreciated... Thanks! <?php $time = date("H\:i"); if (($time > "16:59") && ($time < "18:59")) { echo "<div>1</div>"; } elseif (($time > "18:59") && ($time < "20:59")) { echo "<div>2</div>"; } elseif (($time > "20:59") && ($time < "22:59")) { echo "<div>3</div>"; } else { echo "<div id='out'><p>Outside the specified point in time.</p></div>"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • New to MVVM - Best practices for seperating Data processing thread and UI Thread?

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day. I have started messing around with the MVVP pattern, and I am having some problems with UI responsiveness versus data processing. I have a program that tracks packages. Shipment and package entities are persisted in SQL database, and are displayed in a WPF view. Upon initial retrieval of the records, there is a noticeable pause before displaying the new shipments view, and I have not even implemented the code that counts shipments that are overdue/active yet (which will necessitate a tracking check via web service, and a lot of time). I have built this with the Ocean framework, and all appears to be doing well, except when I first started my foray into multi-threading. It broke, and it appeared to break something in Ocean... Here is what I did: Private QueryThread As New System.Threading.Thread(AddressOf GetShipments) Public Sub New() ' Insert code required on object creation below this point. Me.New(ViewManagerService.CreateInstance, ViewModelUIService.CreateInstance) 'Perform initial query of shipments 'QueryThread.Start() GetShipments() Console.WriteLine(Me.Shipments.Count) End Sub Public Sub New(ByVal objIViewManagerService As IViewManagerService, ByVal objIViewModelUIService As IViewModelUIService) MyBase.New(objIViewModelUIService) End Sub Public Sub GetShipments() Dim InitialResults = From shipment In db.Shipment.Include("Packages") _ Select shipment Me.Shipments = New ShipmentsCollection(InitialResults, db) End Sub So I declared a new Thread, assigned it the GetShipments method and instanced it in the default constructor. Ocean freaks out at this, so there must be a better way of doing it. I have not had the chance to figure out the usage of the SQL ORM thing in Ocean so I am using Entity Framework (perhaps one of these days i will look at NHibernate or something too). Any information would be greatly appreciated. I have looked at a number of articles and they all have examples of simple uses. Some have mentioned the Dispatcher, but none really go very far into how it is used. Anyone know any good tutorials? Cory

    Read the article

  • SQL Syntax to count unique users completing a task

    - by Belliez
    I have the following code which shows me what users has completed ticket and this lists each user and the date they close a ticket. i.e. Paul Matt Matt Bob Matt Paul Matt Matt At the moment I manually count each user myself to see their totals for the day. EDIT: Changed output as columns instead of rows: What I have been trying to do is get SQL Server to do this for me i.e. the final result to look like: Paul | 2 Matt | 5 Bob | 1 My code I am currently using is and I would be greatful if someone can help me change this so I can get it outputting something similar to above? DECLARE @StartDate DateTime; DECLARE @EndDate DateTime; -- Date format: YYYY-MM-DD SET @StartDate = '2013-11-06 00:00:00' SET @EndDate = GETDATE() -- Today SELECT (select Username from Membership where UserId = Ticket.CompletedBy) as TicketStatusChangedBy FROM Ticket INNER JOIN TicketStatus ON Ticket.TicketStatusID = TicketStatus.TicketStatusID INNER JOIN Membership ON Ticket.CheckedInBy = Membership.UserId WHERE TicketStatus.TicketStatusName = 'Completed' and Ticket.ClosedDate >= @StartDate --(GETDATE() - 1) and Ticket.ClosedDate <= @EndDate --(GETDATE()-0) ORDER BY Ticket.CompletedBy ASC, Ticket.ClosedDate ASC Thank you for your help and time.

    Read the article

  • UINavigationController crash because of pushing and poping UIViewControllers

    - by Wayne Lo
    My question is related to my discovery of a reason for UINavigationController to crash. So I will tell you about the discovery first. Please bare with me. The issue: I have a UINavigationController as as subview of UIWindow, a rootViewController class and a custom MyViewController class. The following steps will get a Exc_Bad_Access, 100% reproducible.: [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_1stInstance animated:YES]; [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_2ndInstance animated:YES]; Hit the left back tapBarItem twice (pop out two of the myViewController instances) to show the rootViewController. After a painful 1/2 day of try and error, I finally figure out the answer but also raise a question. The Solutio: I declared many objects in the .m file as a lazy way of declaring private variables to avoid cluttering the .h file. For instance, #impoart "MyViewController.h" NSMutableString*variable1; @implement ... -(id)init { ... varialbe1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; ... } -(void)dealloc { [variable1 release]; } For some reasons, the iphone OS may loose track of these "lazy private" variables memory allocation when myViewController_1stInstance's view is unloaded (but still in the navigation controller's stacks) after loading the view of myViewController_2ndInstance. The first time to tap the back tapBarItem is ok since myViewController_2ndInstance'view is still loaded. But the 2nd tap on the back tapBarItem gave me hell because it tried to dealloc the 2nd instance. Executing [variable release] resulted in Exc_Bad_Access because it pointed randomly (loose pointer). To fix this problem is simple, declare variable1 as a @private in the .h file. Here is my Question: I have been using the "lazy private" variables for quite some time without any issues until they are involved in UINavigationController. Is this a bug in iPhone OS? Or there is a fundamental misunderstanding on my part about Objective C? Please help.

    Read the article

  • JEE6 Global JNDI Name and Maven Deployment

    - by wobblycogs
    I'm having some problems with the global JNDI names of my EJB resources which is (or at least will) cause my JNDI look ups to fail. The project is being developed on Netbeans and is a standard Maven Web Application. When my application is deployed to GF3.0 the application name is set to something like: com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT which is all well and good from Netbeans point of view because it ensures the name is unique but it also means all the EJBs get global names such as this: java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService This, of course, is going to cause problems because every time the version changes all the global names change (I've tested this by changing the version and the names indeed changed). The name is being generated from the POM file and it's a concatenation of: <groupId>com.example</groupId> <artifactId>myapp</artifactId> <packaging>war</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> Up until now I've got away with just injecting all the resources using @EJB but now I need to access the CustomerService EJB from a JSF Converter so I'm doing a JNDI look up like this: try { Context ctx = new InitialContext(); CustomerService customerService = (CustomerService)ctx.lookup( "java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService" ); return customerService.get(submittedValue); } catch( Exception e ) { logger.error( "Failed to convert customer.", e ); return null; } which will clearly break when the application is properly released and the module name changes. So, the million dollar question: how can I set the modle name in maven or how do I recover the module name so that I can programatically build the JNDI name at runtile. I've tried setting it in the web.xml file as suggested by that link but it was ignored. I think I'd rather build the name at runtime as that means there is less scope for screw ups when the application is deployed. Many thanks for any help, I've been tearing my hair out all day on this.

    Read the article

  • How to find first non-repetitive character from a string?

    - by masato-san
    I've spent half day trying to figure out this and finally I got working solution. However, I feel like this can be done in simpler way. I think this code is not really readable. Problem: Find first non-repetitive character from a string. $string = "abbcabz" In this case, the function should output "c". The reason I use concatenation instead of $input[index_to_remove] = '' in order to remove character from a given string is because if I do that, it actually just leave empty cell so that my return value $input[0] does not not return the character I want to return. For instance, $str = "abc"; $str[0] = ''; echo $str; This will output "bc" But actually if I test, var_dump($str); it will give me: string(3) "bc" Here is my intention: Given: input while first char exists in substring of input { get index_to_remove input = chars left of index_to_remove . chars right of index_to_remove if dupe of first char is not found from substring remove first char from input } return first char of input Code: function find_first_non_repetitive2($input) { while(strpos(substr($input, 1), $input[0]) !== false) { $index_to_remove = strpos(substr($input,1), $input[0]) + 1; $input = substr($input, 0, $index_to_remove) . substr($input, $index_to_remove + 1); if(strpos(substr($input, 1), $input[0]) == false) { $input = substr($input, 1); } } return $input[0]; }

    Read the article

  • passing timezone from client (GWT) to server (Joda Time)

    - by Caffeine Coma
    I'm using GWT on the client (browser) and Joda Time on the server. I'd like to perform some DB lookups bounded by the day (i.e. 00:00:00 until 23:59:59) that a request comes in, with the time boundaries based on the user's (i.e. browser) timezone. So I have the GWT code do a new java.util.Date() to get the time of the request, and send that to the server. Then I use Joda Time like so: new DateTime(clientDate).toDateMidnight().toDateTime() The trouble of course is that toDateMidnight(), in the absence of a specified TimeZone, will use the system's (i.e. the server's) TimeZone. I've been trying to find a simple way to pass the TimeZone from the browser to the server without much luck. In GWT I can get the GMT offset with: DateTimeFormat.getFormat("Z").fmt(new Date()) which results in something like "-0400". But Joda Time's DateTimeZone.forID() wants strings formatted like "America/New_York", or an integer argument of hours and minutes. Of course I can parse "-0400" into -4 hours and 0 minutes, but I'm wondering if there is not a more straightforward way of doing this.

    Read the article

  • C# unaccurate timer?

    - by Ivan
    Hi there, I'm developing an application and I need to get the current date from a server (it differs from the machine's date). I receive the date from the server and with a simple Split I create a new DateTime: globalVars.fec = new DateTime(DateTime.Now.Year, DateTime.Now.Month, DateTime.Now.Day, int.Parse(infoHour[0]), int.Parse(infoHour[1]), int.Parse(infoHour[2])); globalVars is a class and fec is a public static variable so that I can access it anywhere in the application (bad coding I know...). Now I need to have a timer checking if that date is equal to some dates I have stored in a List and if it is equal I just call a function. List<DateTime> fechas = new List<DateTime>(); Before having to obtain the date from a server I was using computer's date, so to check if the dates matched I was using this: private void timerDatesMatch_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime tick = DateTime.Now; foreach (DateTime dt in fechas) { if (dt == tick) { //blahblah } } } Now I have the date from the server so DateTime.Now can't be used here. Instead I have created a new timer with Interval=1000 and on tick I'm adding 1 second to globalVars.fec using: globalVars.fec = globalVars.fec.AddSeconds(1); But the clock isn't accurate and every 30 mins the clock loses about 30 seconds. Is there another way of doing what I'm trying to do? I've thought about using threading.timer instead but I need to have access to other threads and non-static functions. Thanks in advance, Ivan

    Read the article

  • How to change TestNG dataProvider order

    - by momad
    Hi, I am running hundreds of tests against a large publishing system and would like to paralellize the tests using TestNG. However, I cannot find any easy way of doing this. Each test case instanciates an instance of this publisher, send some messages, wait for those messages to be published, then dump out the contents of the publish queues and compare against expected outcome. Doing this with so many tests (even if I paralellize using threads, still takes a very long time to complete (1 day or more)). We've found that in testing this sort of system, it's best to start up system once, run all tests to send their messages, wait for publish to do its thing, dump all outputs, and match outputs with tests and verify. For example, instead of the following: @Test public void testRule1() { Publisher pub = new Publisher(); pub.sendRule(new Rule("test1-a")); sleep(10); // wait 10 seconds pub.dumpRules(); verifyRule("test1-a"); } We wanted to do something like the following: @Test public void testRule1(bool sendMode) { if(sendMode) { this.pub.sendRule(new Rule("test1-a")); } else { verifyRule("test1-a"); } } Where you have a dataProvider run through all the tests with sendMode = true and then perform dumpAllRules() followed by running through all of the tests again with sendMode = false. The problem is, TestNG calls the same method twice, once with sendMode = true followed by sendMode = false. Is there anyway to accomplish this in TestNG? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Can xjc -version be trusted?

    - by JasonPlutext
    I've spent the day debugging an issue with JAXB getting namespaces wrong or missing (possibly related to Marshaller.JAXB_FRAGMENT, but that's not the point here). I found the problem occurs with JAXB RI 2.1.10 in my endorsed dir. It is fixed if I use JAXB RI 2.2.4 or 2.2.6 Here is what is really confusing (and what made it take so long). The problem occurs on Linux with: $ java -version java version "1.7.0_03" OpenJDK Runtime Environment (IcedTea7 2.1.1pre) (7~u3-2.1.1~pre1-1ubuntu2) OpenJDK 64-Bit Server VM (build 22.0-b10, mixed mode) $ xjc -version xjc 2.2.4 but it should work fine, if this java really uses JAXB RI 2.2.4 !! Similarly, I can't reproduce the issue on Windows with Java 1.6.0_27, which reports: C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_27\bin>java -version java version "1.6.0_27" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_27-b07) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 20.2-b06, mixed mode) C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.6.0_27\bin>xjc -version xjc version "JAXB 2.1.10 in JDK 6" JavaTM Architecture for XML Binding(JAXB) Reference Implementation, (build JAXB 2.1.10 in JDK 6) and yet if I put 2.1.10 RI in my endorsed dir, the problem occurs. It should occur with 1.6.0_27, if that really uses JAXB RI 2.1.10. It seems to me that the problem I'm experiencing has been fixed in the reference implementation somewhere after 2.1.10 and before 2.2.4, but that neither of the 2 VM's above actually use the JAXB version they claim to. Or possibly they use the xjc they claim, but not what is in jaxb-api.jar and jaxb-impl.jar (I know there is a difference in the namespace prefix mapper property, but that won't be causing this problem). I've done these experiments on Win 7 and Ubuntu, in tomcat (no eclipse), and in eclipse (no tomcat), so I'm pretty confident I'm explaining my findings correctly. Can anyone provide any insight into what is happening? If I'm right, does anyone know what versions of JAXB the various Sun/Oracle JDKs really use?

    Read the article

  • java RMI newbie-- some basic questions about SSL and auth/.rate limiting an RMI service

    - by Arvind
    I am trying to work to secure a java based RMI service using SSL. I have some basic questions about the capabilities of using SSL. Specifically, from what I understand, the client and server connecting via SSL will need to have appropriate credential certificates in both client and server, for a client to be granted access to the server. Am I correct in my understanding? Also, what I want to know is, can a person who is already using my RMI service and has access to a client machine , make a copy of the certificate in the client machine to other client machines-- and then invoke my RMI service from those other machines as well? How do I prevent such a situation from occurring? I mean, in a REST API you can use OAuth authentication, can we have some kind of authentication in an RMI Service? Also, can I possibly limit usage of the RMI service? For eg, a specific client may be allowed to make only 5000 calls per day to my RMI service, and if he makes more calls the calls occurring after the 5000 calls limit are all denied? How do I do such rate limiting and/or authentication for my RMI Service?

    Read the article

  • Sending email using Perl using sendmail

    - by i.h4d35
    I am following the example from this website to send an email using Perl. The code looks like so: my $hostname = `hostname`; my $this_day = `date`; my $email = "i.h4d35\@gmail.com"; my $to = "$email"; my $from = "admin\@$hostname"; my $subject = "SCHEDULE COMPLETE - $this_day"; my $message = "Student schedule for today, completed for the following students: \n\n$names\n\nHave a nice day..."; open(MAIL, "|/usr/sbin/sendmail -t"); print MAIL "To: $to\n"; print MAIL "From: $from\n"; print MAIL "Subject: $subject\n\n"; print MAIL $message; close(MAIL); The mail gets sent but the subject appears in the body of the mail and the email has no subject. How do I fix this? PS: Have not gotten around to using MIME::Lite yet as I am still learning this.

    Read the article

  • Currency exchange rates for paypal

    - by Jacco
    Does anyone know a way to get the currency exchange rates for paypal? We have custom shopping cart and use Paypal (Website Payments Standard) to handle payments. Our 'home' currency is Euro, but we would like to present our customers the option to pay in different currencies (USD, CAD, AUD and GBP). PayPal offers the option to:     a) automatically convert our Euro quoted prices to, for example, USD upon checkout     b) checkout in USD directly With option a): We get paid in Euro, the customer pays for the currency exchange (good). The customer does not know what he/she is going to be charged in USD until checkout. (bad) With option b) The customer pays in USD, then the currency is converted into EUR and we pay the the currency exchange. The customer never has to worry about the different currencies (excellent) We do not know the exchange rate PayPal is going to use so we cannot quote the correct prices to our customer (showstopper) So my question is:   Does anybody know a way to get the PayPal exchange rates? or   Does anybody know how to make a good estimate? Update: PayPal updates it's exchange rate 2 times a day. (at least, that is what they state). They use the Interbank Exchange Rate provided by ??? and add a 2.5% spread above this rate to determine their retail foreign exchange rates. Unforunately, there the Interbank Exchange Rates vary from source to source and from minute to minute. We have been monitoring the PayPal exchange rates and cross referenced them with the Official reference rates provides by the European Central Bank. the results vary widely, somewhere from 1 to 6 ! percent...

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487  | Next Page >