Search Results

Search found 12900 results on 516 pages for 'rules engine'.

Page 482/516 | < Previous Page | 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489  | Next Page >

• Adding a mini admin to a webpage.

  - by DADU

  Hello Picture this: you are creating a little module that people can incorporate into their website easily, for example, a little contact form. It would consist of a PHP file that outputs some HTML, a Javascript file (ajax etc.), a CSS file and a CSS skin. Now the person who doesn't know much about coding wants to integrate it on a webpage (website/index.php). We could do this with three rules of code: <link rel="stylesheet" href="module/css/module.css" /> <script src="module/js/module.js"></script> <?php require_once 'module/module.php'; ?> There's no doubt this part is questionable, right? Now when we want to add an admin for this little module, there are two options: Accessing the admin via an extra URL like website/module/admin.php and after authentication, displaying a page where the person can do all the settings. The person then goes back to index.php to see the results. Enabling the admin via an extra URL like website/module/admin.php and after authentication, redirecting back to index.php. The person can now edit the module directly (HTML5 contenteditable) and see changes live, on the webpage where everybody else will see it when the person saves the changes. Option 2 has a couple of advantages: The person doesn't have to toggle between admin and index.php. The person can see directly how it's looking at the webpage it's integrated in. The person probably feels like the module is more part of the webpage/website. Of course option 2 has some disadvantages too: Not everything works well editing it inline. The person would need to have an HTML5 compliant browser. Probably some more I can't think of right now. Now I have a few concerns that's I can't seem to see a clear answer to. How would we let the person integrate the admin on their webpage? The admin files only need to be included in index.php if the person has choosen to edit the module via the url (website/module/admin.php). But how can we do this if we have a admin.css file that belongs in the head section, an admin.php file that goes into the body, and another admin.js file that's included at the end of the body? How would we know the file that admin.php needs to redirect back to, after authentication? index.php could be any webpage with any name. Any real life website/web apps examples using this principle are welcome too. If there's something unclear, I am glad to add additional info.

  Read the article

• Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

  - by Simon Rice

  Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

  Read the article

• Crashes in Core Data's Inferred Mapping Model Creation (Lightweight Migration). Threading Issue?

  - by enchilada

  I'm getting random crashes when creating an inferred mapping model (with Core Data's lightweight migration) within my application. By the way, I have to do it programmatically in my application while it is running. This is how I create this model (after I have made proper currentModel and newModel objects, of course): NSMappingModel *mappingModel = [NSMappingModel inferredMappingModelForSourceModel:currentModel destinationModel:newModel error:&error]; The problem is this: This method is crashing randomly. When it works, it works just fine without issues. But when it crashes, it crashes my application (instead of returning nil to signify that the method failed, as it should). By randomly, I mean that sometimes it happens and sometimes not. It is unpredictable. Now, here is the deal: I'm running this method in another thread. More precisely, it is located inside a block that is passed via GCD to run on the global main queue. I need to do this for my UI to appear crisp to the user, i.e. so that I can display a progress indicator while the work is underway. The strange thing seems to be that if I remove the GCD stuff and just let it run on the main thread, it seems to be working fine and never crashing. Thus, could it be because I'm running this on a different thread that this is crashing? I somehow find that weird because I don't believe I'm breaking any Core Data rules regarding multi-threading. In particular, I'm not passing any managed objects around, and whenever I need access to the MOC, I create a new MOC, i.e. I'm not relying on any MOC (or for that matter: anything) that has been created earlier on the main thread. Besides the little MOC stuff that occurs, occurs after the mapping model creation method, i.e. after the point at which the app crashes, so it can't possibly be a cause of the crashes under consideration here. All I'm doing is taking two MOMs and asking for a mapping model between them. That can't be wrong even under threading, now can it? Any ideas on what could be going on?

  Read the article

• Flatten date range memberships retaining only the highest priority membership (TRANSACT-SQL)

  - by shadowranger

  Problem statement: A table contains an item_id, a category_id and a date range (begin_date and end_date). No item may be in more than one category on any given date (in general; during daily rebuilding it can be in an invalid state temporarily). By default, all items are added (and re-added if removed) to a category (derived from outside data) automatically on a daily basis, and their membership in that category matches the lifespan of the item (items have their own begin and end date, and usually spend their entire lives in the same category, which is why this matches). For items in category X, it is occasionally desirable to override the default category by adding them to category Y. Membership in category Y could entirely replace membership in category X (that is, the begin and end dates for membership in category Y would match the begin and end dates of the item itself), or it could override it for an arbitrary period of time (at the beginning, middle or end the item's lifespan, possibly overriding for short periods at multiple times). Membership in category Y is not renewed automatically and additions to that category is done by manual data entry. Every day, when category X is rebuilt, we get an overlap, where any item in category Y will now be in category X as well (which is forbidden, as noted previously). Goal: After each repopulation of category X (which is done in a rather complicated and fragile manner, and ideally would be left alone), I'm trying to find an efficient means of writing a stored procedure that: Identifies the overlaps Changes existing entries, adds new ones where necessary (such as in the case where an item starts in category X, switches to category Y, then eventually switches back to category X before ending), or removes entries (when an item is in category Y for its entire life) such that every item remains in category Y (and only Y) where specified, while category X membership is maintained when not overridden by category Y. Does not affect memberships of categories A, B, C, Z, etc., which do not have override categories and are built separately, by completely different rules. Note: It can be assumed that X membership covers the entire lifespan of the item before this procedure is called, so it is unnecessary to query any data outside this table. Bonus credit: If for some reason there are two adjacent or overlapping memberships in for the same item in category Y, stitching them together into a single entry is appreciated, but not necessary. Example: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20090628 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 X 20080201 20080731 2 Y 20080201 20080731 Should become: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20081231 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 X 20090201 20090531 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 Y 20080201 20080731 If it matters, this needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2008

  Read the article

• Array within Form collecting multiple values with the same name possible?

  - by JM4

  Good afternoon, I will first start with the goal I am trying to accomplish and then give a very basic sample of what I need to do. Goal Instead of collecting several variables and naming them with keys individually, I have decided to give in and use an array structure to handle all inputs of the same type and rules. Once I have the variables, I will validate against them and if 'ok' store them in a MySQL table. The table will hold consumer information and will need to store multiple rows of the same type of information. First Pass I will leave out the validation portion of this question because I feel I need to first understand the basics. <form action="?" method="POST" name="Form"> Member 1 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 2 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 3 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Continue" /> </form> I am hoping that each input given for First Name (a required field) will generate a unique key for that particular entry and not overwrite any data entered. Because I am carrying information from page to page (checkout form), I am turning the POST variables into SESSION variables then storing in a mysql database in the end. My hope is to have: <?php $conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("DBname",$conn); $sql = "INSERT INTO tablename VALUES ('$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member1LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member1Email]', '$_SESSION[Member2FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member2LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member2Email]', '$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member3LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member3Email]')"; $result = mysql_query($sql, $conn) or die(mysql_error()); Header ("Location: completed.php"); ?> Where Member1, Member2, and Member3 values will appear on their own row within the table. I KNOW my code is wrong but I am giving a first shot at the overall business purpose I am trying to achieve and trying to learn how to code the right way. I am very, very new to programming so any 'baby advice' is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• JQuery in ASP.NET - Form Validation Issue

  - by user1026288

  It's not working at all and I'm not sure why. Ideally I'd like to have all the errors pop up in a modal dialog box. But right now I can't even get it to work normally. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks. HTML <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.0/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.16/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../Scripts/Frame.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body runat="server" id="bodyLogin"> <div runat="server" id="frameLogin"> <form runat="server" id="formLogin"> <asp:CheckBox runat="server" ID="checkboxRemember" /> <div><span id="un">Username</span><div id="forgotUsername">?</div><br /> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="textUsername" Name="username" /></div> <div><span id="pw">Password</span><div id="forgotPassword">?</div><br /> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="textPassword" Name="password" TextMode="Password" /></div> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="buttonLogin" Text="L" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="buttonRegister" Text="R" /> </form> </div> <div id="dialog" title="Errors" style="display:none;"><ul></ul></div> </body> </html> JQuery <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("#formLogin").validate({ rules: { username: { required:true, minlength:3, maxlength:15 }, password: { required:true, minlength:6, maxlength:15 }, }, messages: { username: { required: "Username is required.", minlength: "Username minimum length is 3 characters.", maxlength: "Username maxumum length is 15 characters." }, password: { required: "Password is required.", minlength: "Password minumum length is 6 characters.", maxlength: "Password maximum length is 15 characters." } } }); }); </script>

  Read the article

• Code golf - hex to (raw) binary conversion

  - by Alnitak

  In response to this question asking about hex to (raw) binary conversion, a comment suggested that it could be solved in "5-10 lines of C, or any other language." I'm sure that for (some) scripting languages that could be achieved, and would like to see how. Can we prove that comment true, for C, too? NB: this doesn't mean hex to ASCII binary - specifically the output should be a raw octet stream corresponding to the input ASCII hex. Also, the input parser should skip/ignore white space. edit (by Brian Campbell) May I propose the following rules, for consistency? Feel free to edit or delete these if you don't think these are helpful, but I think that since there has been some discussion of how certain cases should work, some clarification would be helpful. The program must read from stdin and write to stdout (we could also allow reading from and writing to files passed in on the command line, but I can't imagine that would be shorter in any language than stdin and stdout) The program must use only packages included with your base, standard language distribution. In the case of C/C++, this means their respective standard libraries, and not POSIX. The program must compile or run without any special options passed to the compiler or interpreter (so, 'gcc myprog.c' or 'python myprog.py' or 'ruby myprog.rb' are OK, while 'ruby -rscanf myprog.rb' is not allowed; requiring/importing modules counts against your character count). The program should read integer bytes represented by pairs of adjacent hexadecimal digits (upper, lower, or mixed case), optionally separated by whitespace, and write the corresponding bytes to output. Each pair of hexadecimal digits is written with most significant nibble first. The behavior of the program on invalid input (characters besides [a-fA-F \t\r\n], spaces separating the two characters in an individual byte, an odd number of hex digits in the input) is undefined; any behavior (other than actively damaging the user's computer or something) on bad input is acceptable (throwing an error, stopping output, ignoring bad characters, treating a single character as the value of one byte, are all OK) The program may write no additional bytes to output. Code is scored by fewest total bytes in the source file. (Or, if we wanted to be more true to the original challenge, the score would be based on lowest number of lines of code; I would impose an 80 character limit per line in that case, since otherwise you'd get a bunch of ties for 1 line).

  Read the article

• C# mvc 3 using selectlist with selected value in view

  - by Rob

  I'm working on a MVC3 web application. I want a list of categories shown when editing a blo from whe applications managements system. In my viewmodel i've got the following property defined for a list of selectlistitems for categories. /// <summary> /// The List of categories /// </summary> [Display(Name = "Categorie")] public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Categories { get; set; } The next step, my controller contains the following edit action where the list of selectlistitems is filled from the database. public ActionResult Edit(Guid id) { var blogToEdit = _blogService.First(x => x.Id.Equals(id)); var listOfCategories = _categorieService.GetAll(); var selectList = listOfCategories.Select(x =>new SelectListItem{Text = x.Name, Value = x.Id.ToString(), Selected = x.Id.Equals(blogToEdit.Category.Id)}).ToList(); selectList.Insert(0, new SelectListItem{Text = Messages.SelectAnItem, Value = Messages.SelectAnItem}); var viewModel = new BlogModel { BlogId = blogToEdit.Id, Active = blogToEdit.Actief, Content = blogToEdit.Text, Title = blogToEdit.Titel, Categories = selectList //at this point i see the expected item being selected //Categories = new IEnumerable<SelectListItem>(listOfCategories, "Id", "Naam", blogToEdit.CategorieId) }; return View(viewModel); } When i set a breakpoint just before the view is being returned, i see that the selectlist is filled as i expected. So at this point everything seems to be okay. The viewmodel is filled entirely correct. Then in my view (i'm using Razor) i've got the following two rules which are supposed to render the selectlist for me. @Html.LabelFor(m => m.Categories) @Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.Categories, Model.Categories, Model.CategoryId) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Categories) When I run the code and open the view to edit my blog, I can see all the correct data. Also the selectlist is rendered correctly, but the item i want to be selected lost it's selection. How can this be? Until the point the viewmodel is being returned with the view everything is okay. But when i view the webpage in the browser, the selectlist is there only with out the correct selection. What am I missing here? Or doing wrong?

  Read the article

• How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

  - by olivehour

  I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

  Read the article

• jQuery Validation plugin, IE7 "SCRIPT3: Member not found"

  - by jkinz

  I have the following: <html> <head> </head> <body> <div> <form method="post"> <div id="questions"> <label for="question-6">Name of Course:</label> <input type="text" name="name_of_course[response]" value="" id="question-6" class="required"> <label class="control-label" for="reporting-year">Reporting Year: </label> <select name="reporting_year" id="reporting-year"> <option value="-1" selected="selected">Select option...</option> <option value="4">2013-2014</option> <option value="1">2012-2013</option> <option value="2">2011-2012</option> <option value="3">2010-2011</option> </select> </div> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Save Entry" class="btn"> </form> </div> <script src="//code.jquery.com/jquery.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.10.0/jquery.validate.min.js"></script> <script> $(function(){ jQuery.validator.addMethod("notEqual", function(value, element, param) { return this.optional(element) || value !== param; }, "Please select an option"); $('form').validate({ rules:{ 'reporting_year': { notEqual: "-1" } } }); }); </script> </body> </html> Everyone's favorite browser, IE7 (IE10 w/compatibility really) is reporting the following error in the console: SCRIPT3: Member not found. jquery.js, line 2525 character 4 Of course IE8 and above work fine, but my client is using IE7.

  Read the article

• Difference in DocumentBuilder.parse when using JRE 1.5 and JDK 1.6

  - by dhiller

  Recently at last we have switched our projects to Java 1.6. When executing the tests I found out that using 1.6 a SAXParseException is not thrown which has been thrown using 1.5. Below is my test code to demonstrate the problem. import java.io.StringReader; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.transform.stream.StreamSource; import javax.xml.validation.SchemaFactory; import org.junit.Test; import org.xml.sax.InputSource; import org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; /** * Test class to demonstrate the difference between JDK 1.5 to JDK 1.6. * * Seen on Linux: * * <pre> * #java version "1.6.0_18" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_18-b07) * Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (build 16.0-b13, mixed mode) * </pre> * * Seen on OSX: * * <pre> * java version "1.6.0_17" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04-248-10M3025) * Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01-101, mixed mode) * </pre> * * @author dhiller (creator) * @author $Author$ (last editor) * @version $Revision$ * @since 12.03.2010 11:32:31 */ public class TestXMLValidation { /** * Tests the schema validation of an XML against a simple schema. * * @throws Exception * Falls ein Fehler auftritt * @throws junit.framework.AssertionFailedError * Falls eine Unit-Test-Pruefung fehlschlaegt */ @Test(expected = SAXParseException.class) public void testValidate() throws Exception { final StreamSource schema = new StreamSource( new StringReader( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>" + "<xs:schema xmlns:xs=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" " + "elementFormDefault=\"qualified\" xmlns:xsd=\"undefined\">" + "<xs:element name=\"Test\"/>" + "</xs:schema>" ) ); final String xml = "<Test42/>"; final DocumentBuilderFactory newFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); newFactory.setSchema( SchemaFactory.newInstance( "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" ).newSchema( schema ) ); final DocumentBuilder documentBuilder = newFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); documentBuilder.parse( new InputSource( new StringReader( xml ) ) ); } } When using a JVM 1.5 the test passes, on 1.6 it fails with "Expected exception SAXParseException". The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilderFactory.setSchema(Schema) Method says: When errors are found by the validator, the parser is responsible to report them to the user-specified ErrorHandler (or if the error handler is not set, ignore them or throw them), just like any other errors found by the parser itself. In other words, if the user-specified ErrorHandler is set, it must receive those errors, and if not, they must be treated according to the implementation specific default error handling rules. The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilder.parse(InputSource) method says: BTW: I tried setting an error handler via setErrorHandler, but there still is no exception. Now my question: What has changed to 1.6 that prevents the schema validation to throw a SAXParseException? Is it related to the schema or to the xml that I tried to parse?

  Read the article

• How to fine tune FluentNHibernate's auto mapper?

  - by Venemo

  Okay, so yesterday I managed to get the latest trunk builds of NHibernate and FluentNHibernate to work with my latest little project. (I'm working on a bug tracking application.) I created a nice data access layer using the Repository pattern. I decided that my entities are nothing special, and also that with the current maturity of ORMs, I don't want to hand-craft the database. So, I chose to use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature with NHibernate's "hbm2ddl.auto" property set to "create". It really works like a charm. I put the NHibernate configuration in my app domain's config file, set it up, and started playing with it. (For the time being, I created some unit tests only.) It created all tables in the database, and everything I need for it. It even mapped my many-to-many relationships correctly. However, there are a few small glitches: All of the columns created in the DB allow null. I understand that it can't predict which properties should allow null and which shouldn't, but at least I'd like to tell it that it should allow null only for those types for which null makes sense in .NET (eg. non-nullable value types shouldn't allow null). All of the nvarchar and varbinary columns it created, have a default length of 255. I would prefer to have them on max instead of that. Is there a way to tell the auto mapper about the two simple rules above? If the answer is no, will it work correctly if I modify the tables it created? (So, if I set some columns not to allow null, and change the allowed length for some other, will it correctly work with them?) EDIT: I managed to achieve the above by using Fluent NHibernate's convention API. Thanks to everyone who helped! However, there is one more thing: after checking out the convention API, I really would like my IDs to be calld "ID", not "Id", but it seems to me that the PrimaryKey.Name.Is(x => "ID") is not working at all. If I add it to the conventions collection and rewrite my entities' properties to "ID" instead of "Id", it throws an exception that there is no primary key mapped. Any thoughts on this?

  Read the article

• jQuery toggling divs, expand collapse all and keep first item selected when page loads

  - by hollyb

  Hi, I have a question about some functionality I'm trying to add to my jQuery to enable a button or text to expand/contract all the divs on click... and I'd like to figure out how to keep the first div open when the page loads. Here is the jQuery: (document).ready(function(){ //Hides containers on load $(".toggle_container").hide(); //Switch "Open" and "Close" state on click $("h2.trigger").toggle(function(){ $(this).addClass("active"); }, function () { $(this).removeClass("active"); }); //Slide up and down on click $("h2.trigger").click(function(){ $(this).next(".toggle_container").slideToggle("slow"); }); }); And the css: // uses a background image with an on (+) and off (-) state stacked on top of each other h2.trigger { background: url(buttonBG.gif) no-repeat;height: 46px;line-height: 46px;width: 300px;font-size: 2em;font-weight: normal;} h2.trigger a {color: #fff;text-decoration: none; display: block;} h2.active {background-position: left bottom;} .toggle_container { overflow: hidden; } .toggle_container .block {padding: 20px;} And the html <h2 class="trigger"><a href="#">Heading</a></h2> <div class="toggle_container"> <div class="block">Stuff goes here</div> </div> <h2 class="trigger"><a href="#">Heading 2</a></h2> <div class="toggle_container"> <div class="block">Stuff goes here</div> </div> So it works great and looks great. However, when I try to get it to keep the first instance open, the background image that should adjust show the (-) state doesn't change. The code I used to this was: $(".toggle_container:first").show(); So, my question is, does anyone know of an easier way to show the first instance of this as open without having to created specials rules/class for the first item? Also, any ideas about how to make an open all/close all link? Thanks!

  Read the article

• iPhone Debugger Message -- Weird

  - by Bill Shiff

  Hello, I have an iPhone app that I've been working on and have recently upgraded my version of XCode. Since the upgrade, I can build and debug in the iPhone Simulator just fine, but when I try to debug on an attached device I get the following messages: From Xcode4: GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1510) (Fri Oct 22 04:12:10 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "--host=i386-apple-darwin --target=arm-apple-darwin".tty /dev/ttys001 sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all warning: Unable to read symbols from "dyld" (prefix __dyld_) (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/MessageUI.framework/MessageUI (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "MessageUI" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/MapKit.framework/MapKit (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "MapKit" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "Foundation" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/UIKit.framework/UIKit (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "UIKit" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols for (null)/Library/Frameworks/CoreGraphics.framework/CoreGraphics (file not found). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreGraphics" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreData" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "QuartzCore" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "libgcc_s.1.dylib" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "libSystem.B.dylib" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "libobjc.A.dylib" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreFoundation" (not yet mapped into memory). target remote-mobile /tmp/.XcodeGDBRemote-3836-28 Switching to remote-macosx protocol mem 0x1000 0x3fffffff cache mem 0x40000000 0xffffffff none mem 0x00000000 0x0fff none [Switching to thread 11523] [Switching to thread 11523] gdb stack crawl at point of internal error: 0 gdb-arm-apple-darwin 0x0013216e internal_vproblem + 316

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

  - by Terminal Frost

  Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

  Read the article

• Are there known problems with >= and <= and the eval function in JS?

  - by Augier

  I am currently writing a JS rules engine which at one point needs to evaluate boolean expressions using the eval() function. Firstly I construct an equation as such: var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is the value I want to compare. relation.operator is the operator (either "==", "!=", <=, "<", "", ="). relation.value is the value I want to compare with. I then simply pass this string to the eval function and it returns true or false as such: return eval(equation); This works absolutely fine (with words and numbers) or all of the operators except for = and <=. E.g. When evaluating the equation: relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue <= 100 It returns true when previousValue = 0,1,10,100 & all negative numbers but false for everything in between. I would greatly appreciate the help of anyone to either answer my question or to help me find an alternative solution. Regards, Augier. P.S. I don't need a speech on the insecurities of the eval() function. Any value given to relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue is predefined. edit: Here is the full function: function evaluateRelation(relation) { console.log("Evaluating relation") var currentValue; //if multiple values if(relation.value.indexOf(";") != -1) { var values = relation.value.split(";"); for (x in values) { var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "values[x]"; currentValue = eval(equation); if (currentValue) return true; } return false; } //if single value else { //Evaluate the relation and get boolean var equation = "relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue" + " " + relation.operator + " " + "relation.value"; console.log("relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue " + relation.relatedTrigger.previousValue); console.log(equation); return eval(equation); } } Answer: Provided by KennyTM below. A string comparison doesn't work. Converting to a numerical was needed.

  Read the article

• ajaxSubmit options success & error functions aren't fired

  - by Thommy Tomka

  jQuery 1.7.2 jQuery Validate 1.1.0 jQuery Form 3.18 Wordpress 3.4.2 I am trying to code a contact/ mail form in above environment/ with above jQuery libs. Now I am having a problem with the jQuery Form JS: I have taken the original code from the developers page for ajaxSubmit and only altered the target option to an ID which exists in my HTML source and replaced $ with jQuery in function showRequest. The problem is, that the function namend after success: does not fire. I tried the same with error: and again nothing fired. Only complete: did and the function I placed there alerted the responseText from the receiving script. Does anyone has an idea whats going wrong? Thanks in advance! Thomas jQuery(document).ready(function() { var options = { target: '#mail-status', // target element(s) to be updated with server response beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: type // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) //clearForm: true // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: //timeout: 3000 }; jQuery("#mailform").validate( { submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery(form).ajaxSubmit(options); }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { }, rules: { author: { minlength: 2, required: true }, email: { required: true, email: true }, comment: { minlength: 2, required: true } }, highlight: function(element) { jQuery(element).addClass("e"); jQuery(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass("e"); }, unhighlight: function(element) { jQuery(element).removeClass("e"); jQuery(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass("e"); } }); }); // pre-submit callback function showRequest(formData, jqForm, options) { // formData is an array; here we use $.param to convert it to a string to display it // but the form plugin does this for you automatically when it submits the data var queryString = jQuery.param(formData); // jqForm is a jQuery object encapsulating the form element. To access the // DOM element for the form do this: // var formElement = jqForm[0]; alert('About to submit: \n\n' + queryString); // here we could return false to prevent the form from being submitted; // returning anything other than false will allow the form submit to continue return true; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { // for normal html responses, the first argument to the success callback // is the XMLHttpRequest object's responseText property // if the ajaxSubmit method was passed an Options Object with the dataType // property set to 'xml' then the first argument to the success callback // is the XMLHttpRequest object's responseXML property // if the ajaxSubmit method was passed an Options Object with the dataType // property set to 'json' then the first argument to the success callback // is the json data object returned by the server alert('status: ' + statusText + '\n\nresponseText: \n' + responseText + '\n\nThe output div should have already been updated with the responseText.'); }

  Read the article

• How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

  Read the article

• can we include maven pmd plugin execution within build goal ?

  - by RN

  Guys, I wanted generate the pmd report while building the project so I have added plugin to build section of my pom.xml but still it don't execute until I explicitly call mvn clean install pmd:pmd. I want to execute it with mvn clean install itself. is it possible ? my pom entries are as under: <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-pmd-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.4</version> <configuration> <skip>false</skip> <targetJdk>${compile.source}</targetJdk> <rulesets> <ruleset>./current.pmd.rules.xml</ruleset> </rulesets> <excludes> <exclude>com/cm/**/*.java</exclude> <exclude>com/sm/**/*.java</exclude> </excludes> <linkXref>true</linkXref> <failOnViolation>true</failOnViolation> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>check</goal> <goal>cpd-check</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jxr-plugin</artifactId> </plugin> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-project-info-reports-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.0.1</version> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• A NSMutableArray is destroying my life!

  - by camilo

  EDITED to show the relevant part of the code Hi. There's a strange problem with an NSMutableArray which I'm just not understanding... Explaining: I have a NSMutableArray, defined as a property (nonatomic, retain), synthesized, and initialized with 29 elements. realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; After the initialization, I can insert elements as I wish and everything seems to be working fine. While I'm running the application, however, if I insert a new element in the array, I can print the array in the function where I inserted the element, and everything seems ok. However, when I select a row in the table, and I need to read that array, my application crashes. In fact, it cannot even print the array anymore. Is there any "magical and logical trick" everybody should know when using a NSMutableArray that a beginner like myself can be missing? Thanks a lot. I declare my array as realSectionNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:29]; I insert objects in my array with [realSectionNames addObject:[category categoryFirstLetter]]; although I know i can also insert it with [realSectionNames insertObject:[category categoryFirstLetter] atIndex:i]; where the "i" is the first non-occupied position. After the insertion, I reload the data of my tableView. Printing the array before or after reloading the data shows it has the desired information. After that, selecting a row at the table makes the application crash. This realSectionNames is used in several UITableViewDelegate functions, but for the case it doesn't matter. What truly matters is that printing the array in the beginning of the didSelectRowAtIndexPath function crashes everything (and of course, doesn't print anything). I'm pretty sure it's in that line, for printing anything he line before works (example): NSLog(@"Anything"); NSLog(@"%@", realSectionNames); gives the output: 2010-03-24 15:16:04.146 myApplicationExperience[3527:207] Anything [Session started at 2010-03-24 15:16:04 +0000.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-967) (Tue Jul 14 02:11:58 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i386-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 3527. Still not understanding what kind of stupidity I've done this time... maybe it's not too late to follow the career of brain surgeon?

  Read the article

• Design patterns and interview question

  - by user160758

  When I was learning to code, I read up on the design patterns like a good boy. Long after this, I started to actually understand them. Design discussions such as those on this site constantly try to make the rules more and more general, which is good. But there is a line, over which it becomes over-analysis starts to feed off itself and as such I think begins to obfuscate the original point - for example the "What's Alternative to Singleton" post and the links contained therein. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1300655/whats-alternative-to-singleton I say this having been asked in both interviews I’ve had over the last 2 weeks what a singleton is and what criticisms I have of it. I have used it a few times for items such as user data (simple key-value eg. last file opened by this user) and logging (very common i'm sure). I've never ever used it just to have what is essentially global application data, as this is clearly stupid. In the first interview, I reply that I have no criticisms of it. He seemed disappointed by this but as the job wasn’t really for me, I forgot about it. In the next one, I was asked again and, as I wanted this job, I thought about it on the spot and made some objections, similar to those contained in the post linked to above (I suggested use of a factory or dependency injection instead). He seemed happy with this. But my problem is that I have used the singleton without ever using it in this kind of stupid way, which I had to describe on the spot. Using it for global data and the like isn’t something I did then realised was stupid, or read was stupid so didn’t do, it was just something I knew was stupid from the start. Essentially I’m supposed to be able to think of ways of how to misuse a pattern in the interview? Which class of programmers can best answer this question? The best ones? The medium ones? I'm not sure.... And these were both bright guys. I read more than enough to get better at my job but had never actually bothered to seek out criticisms of the most simple of the design patterns like this one. Do people think such questions are valid and that I ought to know the objections off by heart? Or that it is reasonable to be able to work out what other people who are missing the point would do on the fly? Or do you think I’m at least partially right that the question is too unsubtle and that the questions ought to be better thought out in order to make sure only good candidates can answer. PS. Please don’t think I’m saying that I’m just so clever that I know everything automatically - I’ve learnt the hard way like everyone else. But avoiding global data is hardly revolutionary.

  Read the article

• ASP.Net MVC Ajax form with jQuery validation

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I have an MVC view with a form built with the Ajax.BeginForm() helper method, and I'm trying to validate user input with the jQuery Validation plugin. I get the plugin to highlight the inputs with invalid input data, but despite the invalid input the form is posted to the server. How do I stop this, and make sure that the data is only posted when the form validates? My code The form: <fieldset> <legend>leave a message</legend> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Post", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "GBPostList", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertBefore, OnSuccess = "getGbPostSuccess", OnFailure = "showFaliure" })) { %> <div class="column" style="width: 230px;"> <p> <label for="Post.Header"> Rubrik</label> <%= Html.TextBox("Post.Header", null, new { @style = "width: 200px;", @class="text required" }) %></p> <p> <label for="Post.Post"> Meddelande</label> <%= Html.TextArea("Post.Post", new { @style = "width: 230px; height: 120px;" }) %></p> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="OK!" /></p> </fieldset> The JavaScript validation: $(document).ready(function() { // for highlight var elements = $("input[type!='submit'], textarea, select"); elements.focus(function() { $(this).parents('p').addClass('highlight'); }); elements.blur(function() { $(this).parents('p').removeClass('highlight'); }); // for validation $("form").validate(); }); EDIT: As I was getting downvotes for publishing follow-up problems and their solutions in answers, here is also the working validate method... function ajaxValidate() { return $('form').validate({ rules: { "Post.Header": { required: true }, "Post.Post": { required: true, minlength: 3 } }, messages: { "Post.Header": "Please enter a header", "Post.Post": { required: "Please enter a message", minlength: "Your message must be 3 characters long" } } }).form(); }

  Read the article

• Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

  - by David Stone

  How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

  Read the article

• Running out of memory.. How?

  - by maxdj

  I'm attempting to write a solver for a particular puzzle. It tries to find a solution by trying every possible move one at a time until it finds a solution. The first version tried to solve it depth-first by continually trying moves until it failed, then backtracking, but this turned out to be too slow. I have rewritten it to be breadth-first using a queue structure, but I'm having problems with memory management. Here are the relevant parts: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { ... int solved = 0; do { solved = solver(queue); } while (!solved && !pblListIsEmpty(queue)); ... } int solver(PblList *queue) { state_t *state = (state_t *) pblListPoll(queue); if (is_solution(state->pucks)) { print_solution(state); return 1; } state_t *state_cp; puck new_location; for (int p = 0; p < puck_count; p++) { for (dir i = NORTH; i <= WEST; i++) { if (!rules(state->pucks, p, i)) continue; new_location = in_dir(state->pucks, p, i); if (new_location.x != -1) { state_cp = (state_t *) malloc(sizeof(state_t)); state_cp->move.from = state->pucks[p]; state_cp->move.direction = i; state_cp->prev = state; state_cp->pucks = (puck *) malloc (puck_count * sizeof(puck)); memcpy(state_cp->pucks, state->pucks, puck_count * sizeof(puck)); /*CRASH*/ state_cp->pucks[p] = new_location; pblListPush(queue, state_cp); } } } return 0; } When I run it I get the error: ice(90175) malloc: *** mmap(size=2097152) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Bus error The error happens around iteration 93,000. From what I can tell, the error message is from malloc failing, and the bus error is from the memcpy after it. I have a hard time believing that I'm running out of memory, since each game state is only ~400 bytes. Yet that does seem to be what's happening, seeing as the activity monitor reports that it is using 3.99GB before it crashes. I'm using http://www.mission-base.com/peter/source/ for the queue structure (it's a linked list). Clearly I'm doing something dumb. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• XML serialization options in .NET

  - by Borek

  I'm building a service that returns an XML (no SOAP, no ATOM, just plain old XML). Say that I have my domain objects already filled with data and just need to transform them to the XML format. What options do I have on .NET? Requirements: The transformation is not 1:1. Say that I have an Address property of type Address with nested properties like Line1, City, Postcode etc. This may need to result in an XML like <xaddr city="...">Line1, Postcode</xaddr>, i.e. quite different. Some XML elements/attributes are conditional, for example, if a Customer is under 18, the XML needs to contain some additional information. I only need to serialize the objects to XML, the other direction (XML to objects) is not important Some technologies, i.e. Data Contracts use .NET attributes. Other means of configuration (external XML config, buddy classes etc.) would be a plus. Here are the options as I see them as the moment. Corrections / additions will be very welcome. String concatenation - forget it, it was a joke :) Linq 2 XML - complete control but quite a lot of hand written code, would need good suite of unit tests View engines in ASP.NET MVC (or even Web Forms theoretically), the logic being in controllers. It's a question how to structure it, I can have simple rules engine in my controller(s) and one view template per each possible output, or have the decision logic directly in the template. Both have upsides and downsides. XML Serialization - I'm not sure about the flexibility here Data Contracts from WCF - not sure about the flexibility either, plus would they work in a simple ASP.NET MVC app (non-WCF service)? Are they a super-set of the standard XML serialization now? If it exists, some XML-to-object mapper. The more I think about it the more I think I'm looking for something like this but I couldn't find anything appropriate. Any comments / other options?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489  | Next Page >