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  • Is it possible in Perl to require a subroutine call is made?

    - by MitchelWB
    I don't know enough about Perl to even know what I'm asking for exactly, but I'm writing a series of subroutines to be available for many individual scripts that all process different incoming flat files. The process is far from perfect, but it's what I've got to deal with and I'm trying to build myself a small library of subs that make it easier for me to manage it all. Each script handles a different incoming flat file with it's own formatting, sorting, grouping and outputting requirements. One common aspect is that we have small text files that house counters that are used to name the output files so that we have no duplicate file names. Because the processing of the data is different for each file, I need to open the file to get my counter value, because this is a common operation, I'd like to put it in a sub to retrieve the counter. But then need to write specific code to process the data. And would like a second sub that allows me to update the counter with the counter once I've processed the data. Is there a way to make the second sub call a requirement if the first one is called? Ideally if it could even be an error that would prevent the script from running at all much like a syntax error. EDIT: Here is a little [ugly and simplified] psuedo-code to give a better feel for what the current process is: require "importLibrary.plx"; #open data source file open DataIn, $filename; #call getCounterInfo from importLibrary.plx to get the counter value from counter file $counter = &getCounterInfo($counterFileName); while (<DataIn>) { #Process data based on unique formatting and requirements #output to task files based on requirements and name files using the $counter #increment $counter } #update counter file with new value of $counter &updateCounterInfo($counter);

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  • Which ORM to use?

    - by Paja
    I'm developing an application which will have these classes: class Shortcut { public string Name { get; } public IList<Trigger> Triggers { get; } public IList<Action> Actions { get; } } class Trigger { public string Name { get; } } class Action { public string Name { get; } } And I will have 20+ more classes, which will derive from Trigger or Action, so in the end, I will have one Shortcut class, 15 Action-derived classes and 5 Trigger-derived classes. My question is, which ORM will best suit this application? EF, NH, SubSonic, or maybe something else (Linq2SQL)? I will be periodically releasing new application versions, adding more triggers and actions (or changing current triggers/actions), so I will have to update database schema as well. I don't know if EF or NH provides any good methods to easily update the schema. Or if they do, is there any tutorial how to do that? I've already found this article about NH schema updating, quoting: Fortunately NHibernate provides us the possibility to update an existing schema, that is NHibernate creates an update script which can the be applied to the database. I've never found how to actually generate the update script, so I can't tell NH to update the schema. Maybe I've misread something, I just didn't found it. Last note: If you suggest EF, will be EF 1.0 suitable as well? I would rather use some older .NET than 4.0.

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  • making clean page via page.tpl.php

    - by user360051
    I have a Drupal module creating a page via hook_menu(). I am trying to make it so the page has no extraneous html output, only what I want. You can view the page here, http://www.thomashansen.me/chat/thomas. If you look at the source, you can see a strange script tag at the end. My page-chat.tpl.php looks like this, <?php // $Id$ ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="<?php print $language->language ?>" lang="<?php print $language->language ?>" dir="<?php print $language->dir ?>"> <head> </head> <body> <?php print $content; ?> </body> </html> Where is that script tag coming from? and how do I get rid of it? If you need more information just ask.

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  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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  • Can a non-redundant RAID5 cause any serious problems (compared to RAID0)?

    - by leemes
    I used to have a three-disc RAID5 (mdadm) in my computer for personal media storage (music, videos, photos, programs, games, ...). It had three discs with 750 GB each, resulting in an array capacity of 1.5 TB. One day (one year ago), I needed one of those discs to install another operating system. I thought, I don't need the redundancy anymore since I backup the most important stuff (personal photos e.g.) on an external disc anyway. So I decided to remove one of the three discs without converting the RAID to RAID0 or even two separate discs, because I had no temporary storage (since one cannot simply convert the RAID5 to RAID0 AFAIK). So now, for about one year, I have a non-redundant RAID5 with 2 of 3 discs running. Sometimes, one of the discs has a defective contact at the power cable or something similar causing the drive to stop working temporarily (I don't know exactly what it is). Since it still works when rebooting the computer and in most cases by calling some mdadm commands, it wasn't that problematic. Note that the data is not very critical, since I still have a backup of the most important stuff. But in the last few weeks, one of the drives fails very frequently (every few hours), so it gets really annoying to manage this. My questions are: Is there any disadvantage (apart from the annoying management) of a non-redundant RAID5 (with one drive less than typical) over a RAID0? If I understand it correctly, both have no redundancy and the same capacity. On a temporary drive failure, I can restart the array in both cases, assuming that the drive itself still works after the failure. Can it happen that the drive contents alter on a drive failure, making the array inconsistent? If so, can I tell mdadm to check the array for failures (without a file system level checking tool)? Since the drive most probably only has a defective contact causing it to fail for a second only, can I tell mdadm to automatically restart the array, so I will not even notice the failure if no application wanted to access the file system during the failure?

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  • start-stop-daemon quoted arguments misinterpreted

    - by Martin Westin
    Hi, I have been trying to make an init script using start-stop-daemon. I am stuck on the arguments to the daemon. I want to keep these in a variable at the top of the script but I can't get the quotations to filter down correctly. I'll use ls here so we don't have to look at binaries and arguments that most people wont know or care about. The end result I am looking for is for start-stop... to run ls -la "/folder with space/" DAEMON=/usr/bin/ls DAEMON_OPTS='-la "/folder with space/"' start-stop-daemon --start --make-pidfile --pidfile $PID --exec $DAEMON -- $DAEMON_OPTS Double escaping the options and trying innumerable variations of quotations do not help... Then they end up at the daemon they are always messed up. Enclosing $DAEMON_OPTS in quotes changes things... then they are seen as one since quote... never the right number though :) Echoing the command-line (start-stop...) prints exactly the right stuff to screen. But the daemon (the real one, not ls) complains about the wrong number of arguments. How do I specify a variable so that quotes inside it are brought along to the daemon correctly? Thanks, Martin

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  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

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  • php mailer attachments

    - by Matthew
    I have been using this script to send emails to certain staff but because of changes to my system i have to now send attachements with the email and i have tried multipul peices of code to accomplish this but have been unsuccessful... I still recive the email but without the attachement which is quite pointless in this case i have placed the script i am using bellow i have removed the real addresses i was using and smtp server require("PHPMailer/class.phpmailer.php"); $mail = new PHPMailer(); $mail->IsSMTP(); // set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = "SMTP.SErver.com"; $mail->From = "[email protected]"; $mail->FromName = "HCSC"; $mail->AddAddress("[email protected]", "Example"); $mail->AddReplyTo("[email protected]", "Hcsc"); $mail->WordWrap = 50; $mail->IsHTML(false); $mail->Subject = "AuthSMTP Test"; $mail->Body = "AuthSMTP Test Message!"; $mail->AddAttachment("matt.txt"); //this is basicly what i am trying to attach as a test but will be using excel spreadsheets in the production if(!$mail->Send()) { echo "Message could not be sent. <p>"; echo "Mailer Error: " . $mail->ErrorInfo; exit; } echo "Message has been sent"; i have also tried a few other emtods of attaching the file but none seem to work any help is greatly appricated

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • Forces to prompt download box IE

    - by Bruno Costa
    Hello, I'm having a problem with some reports in the application I'm doing manutention I've a button that does a postback to the server and do some information and then get back to the cliente and open a popup to download the report. private void grid_ItemCommand(object source, System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ... ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this.GetType(), "xxx", "<script>javascript:window.location('xx.aspx?m=x','xxx','width=750,height=350,directories=no,location=no,menubar=no,scrollbars,status=no,toolbar=no,resizable=yes,left=50,top=50');</script>"); } Then in xxx.aspx I've the code: Response.ClearContent(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.TransmitFile(tempFileName); Response.Flush(); Response.Close(); File.Delete(tempFileName); Response.End(); This works fine if IE option Automatic prompting for file downloads is enabled. But by default this is disabled and I need to force the download box to be prompting. Can I do anything without change a lot of code? Thanks.

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  • Nokogiri changing custom elements

    - by dagda1
    Hi, I have sample html that I have marked up with some special tags that will be used by a different program, an example of the html is below. You should note the <START:organization>..<END> elements. <html> <head/> <body> <ul> <li> <START:organization> Advanced Integrated Pest Management <END> </li> <li> <START:organization> American Bakers Association <END> </li> </ul> </body> </html> I wanted to use nokogiri to preprocess the html to easily remove irrelevant tags like <script>. I created the following extension to the nokogiri document class: module Nokogiri module HTML class Document def prepare_html xpath("//script").remove to_html.remove_new_lines end end end end The problem is that nokogiri is changing the <START:organization> element to <organization>. Is there anyway that I can preserve the htnl to maintain my custom markup tags? Thanks Paul

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  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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  • CSS style refresh in IE after dynamic removal of style link

    - by rybz
    Hi! I've got a problem with the dynamic style manipulation in IE7 (IE8 is fine). Using javascript I need to add and remove the < link / node with the definition of css file. Adding and removing the node as a child of < head / works fine under Firefox. Unfortunately, after removing it in the IE, although The tag is removed properly, the page style does not refresh. In the example below a simple css (makes background green) is appended and removed. After the removal in FF the background turns default, but in IE stays green. index.html <html> <head> </head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var node; function append(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; node = document.createElement('link'); node.type = 'text/css'; node.rel = 'stylesheet'; node.href = "s.css"; node.media = 'screen'; headID.appendChild(node); } function remove(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; headID.removeChild(node); } </script> <body> <div onClick="append();"> add </div> <div onClick="remove();"> remove </div> </body> </html> And the style sheet: s.css body { background-color:#00CC33 } Here is the live example: http://rlab.pl/dynamic-style/ Is there a way to get it working?

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  • PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass:

    - by 4D
    I've got an array coming back from a Flash app created in Flash Builder 4. I have a service setup that queries and brings data back from the DB successfully, however the Update script is generating the Undefined Property errors. I'm still learning both PHP and Flash Builder, and don't fully understand what the $this- commands do. If anyone can suggest where this script is going wrong, it is basically just generated by Flash Builder and is not something I've developed myself, I would appreciate it? Also if someone can explain $this- to me that would be awesome too? I've seen them before, but then I've seen scripts doing the same thing that do not use them, so is this an old way of doing things? Really appreciate any input anyone can give. public function updateItem($item) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // Update an existing record in the database and return the item // Sample code \' $this->connect(); $sql = "UPDATE tbltrust SET inst_code = '$item->inst_code', trust_name = '$item->trust_name', trust_code = '$item->trust_code' WHERE trust_key = '$item->trust_key'"; mysqli_query($this->connection, $sql) or die('Query failed: ' . mysqli_error($this->connection)); mysqli_close($this->connection); }

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  • jQuery UI sortable - sorting images

    - by GSTAR
    I've just implemented the jQuery UI sortable plugin for a set of images. The markup I have is as follows: <ul id="images" class="ui-sortable"> <li id="7884029"><img src="/images/member/4698568/7884029_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="7379458"><img src="/images/member/4698568/7379458_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="1704208"><img src="/images/member/4698568/1704208_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="1750715"><img src="/images/member/4698568/1750715_t.jpg" alt="" /></li> <li id="4364912"><img src="/images/member/4698568/4364912_t.png" alt="" /></li> </ul> <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ jQuery(function($) { jQuery('#images').sortable({'delay':'100'}); }); /*]]>*/ </script> The LI id is the 'name' column in the DB table - I prefer not to display the ID column. Now my question is how do I capture the sorting? I understand this would be an AJAX request but I have no idea how to do it. I have set up a sort_order column in my DB table and I am using PHP as my scripting language. I could do with a code example. EDIT: Ideally I prefer if the sort order is applied upon moving an item, i.e. I do not want to enclose it all in a form.

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  • JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

    - by prabu
    Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

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  • Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

    - by lerac
    <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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  • jqtouch load content with ajax

    - by ndrizza
    I am loading this page directly inside of jqtouch. First the page shows "Loading..." Then it should execute a GET Request and refresh the content of the div ("tagcloud") as soon as it get's the content from another php file. (I prefer to load the content this way as otherwise jqtouch freezes for 2 seconds until the content is loaded and then animates to the next page.) <?php $link = $_GET['link']; ?> <div id="TagNews"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1>TagNews</h1> <a href="#" class="back">NZZ</a> </div> <div id="tagcloud">Loading...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get("cloudnews2.php?link=<?php echo $link; ?>", function(data){ document.getElementById("tagcloud").innerHTML = data; }); </script> </div> Howewer, the request never gets loaded. The code is working outside of jqtouch. But inside jqtouch the GET Request doesn't work. I can't figure out why. Could you please help me to do this request?

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  • ActiveX won't run from server

    - by user1709555
    I have a MFC activeX that runs fine from disk but when I put it on a server I get errors. Client: WIN7 machine Server: Ubunto running apache The HTML and the errors are below, please advice. 10xs, Nahum HTML: <html> <HEAD> <TITLE>myFirstOCX.CAB</TITLE> <script type="text/javascript" FOR="window"> function fn() { try{ document.all('Ctrl1').AboutBox();//error: Undifiend : object doesn't have AboutBox() method //OR var obj = new ActiveXObject ("activex.activexCtrl"); obj.AboutBox ();//error: Undifiend : Automation server can't create object } catch (ex) { alert("Error: " + ex.Description + " : " + ex.message); } } </script> </HEAD> <body bgcolor=lightblue > <TABLE BORDER> <TR> <TD><OBJECT CLASSID="CLSID:E228C560-FA68-48E6-850F-B1167515C920" CODEBASE=".\nsip.CAB#version=1,0,0,1" ID="Ctrl1" name="Ctrl1"> </OBJECT> </TD> </TR> <TR> <TD ALIGN="CENTER"> <INPUT TYPE=BUTTON VALUE="Click Me" onclick="fn()" > </TD> </TR> </TABLE> <INPUT TYPE=TEXT ID="ConnectionString" VALUE="" > </body> </html>

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  • Chrome extension:Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null

    - by T_t
    Hi,i am beginner with chrome extension.There is simple problem. There is the code in my extension,but it do not work.I don't know how to figure it out. In my extension, i used a xml file to stroe some data.There is the code in my background.html,but it do not work,i don't know how to figure it out... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function loadXmlFile(){ var xmlDom = null; var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); if( xmlhttp ){ xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if( xmlhttp.readyState == 4 ){ if( xmlhttp.status == 200 ){ xmlDom = xmlhttp.responseXML; } } } xmlhttp.open( "GET",chrome.extension.getURL("/xml/123.xml"),true); xmlhttp.send( null ); } return xmlDom; } var xmlDom = loadXmlFile(); var s = xmlDom.getElementsByTagName( "to" ); alert( s[0].nodeType ); </script> </body> </html> I used developer tools to debug,but it says " Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null"... who can help me?

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  • jQuery - Unchecking checkboxes that act like radio buttons

    - by Cecil
    Hey All, I have the following jQuery code to make my checkboxes act like radio buttons, so that only 1 of the 3 can be checked at a time. <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#testing input:checkbox").change(function(){ var checkname = $(this).attr("name"); $("input:checkbox[name='" + checkname + "']").removeAttr("checked"); this.checked = true; }); }); </script> The checkboxes are layed out like the following: <input type="checkbox" id="testing" name="testing" value="B"> <input type="checkbox" id="testing" name="testing" value="I"> <input type="checkbox" id="testing" name="testing" value="A"> This works exactly how i want it to work, not a problem, except once i click one of the 3, i cant unclick it so that none of them are checked, this is what i want to happen, so along with being only able to click one at a time, im able to uncheck them completely. Any help would be grand :)

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  • adding an uncertain number of fields using javascript

    - by user306472
    I'm new to javascript and a novice programmer, so this might be a really easy question to answer. I would like to loop over the values of x number of fields and add them up to display the sum in a final field. I can perform this function if I explicitly call each field, but I want to abstract this so I can deal with a flexible number of fields. Here's example code I've come up with (that's not working for me). Where am I going wrong? <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function startAdd(){ interval = setInterval("addfields()",1); } function addfields(){ a = document.addition.total.value; b = getElementByTagName("sum").value; for (i=0; i<=b.length; i++){ a+=i; } return a; } function stopAdd(){ clearInterval(interval); } </script> </head> <body> <form name="addition"> <input type="text" name="sum" onFocus="startAdd();" onBlur="stopAdd;"> + <input type="text" name="sum" onFocus="startAdd();" onBlur="stopAdd;"> = <input type="text" name ="total"> </form> </body> </html>

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  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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  • How to use IO.popen to write-to and read-from a child process?

    - by mackenir
    I am running net share from a ruby script to delete a windows network share. If files on the share are in use, net share will ask the user if they want to go ahead with the deletion, so my script needs to inspect the output from the command, and write out Y if it detects that net share is asking it for input. In order to be able to write out to the process I open it with access flags "r+". When attempting to write to the process with IO#puts, I get an error: Errno::EPIPE: Broken pipe What am I doing wrong here? (The error occurs on the line net_share.puts "Y") (The question text written out by net share is not followed by a newline, so I am using IO#readpartial to read in the output.) def delete_network_share share_path command = "net share #{share_path} /DELETE" net_share = IO.popen(command, "r+") text = "" while true begin line = net_share.readpartial 1000 #read all the input that's available rescue EOFError break end text += line if text.scan("Do you want to continue this operation? (Y/N)").size > 0 net_share.puts "Y" net_share.flush #probably not needed? end end net_share.close end

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  • Javascript array of dates - not iterating properly (jquery ui datepicker)

    - by PaulB
    Hi I have some code which builds an array of date ranges. I then call a function, passing it a date, and compare that date with dates in the array. I'm doing it this way because the dates are stored in a cms, and I'm manipulating the JqueryUI datepicker. Unfortunately my code only checks the first date range in the array - and I can't figure out why! I think it's probably something simple (/stupid!) - if anyone can shed some light on it I'd be extremely grateful! The code is below - the june-september range works fine, the december to jan is totally ignored... <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> var ps1 = new Date(2010, 06-1, 18); var pe1 = new Date(2010, 09-1, 03); var ps2 = new Date(2010, 12-1, 20); var pe2 = new Date(2011, 01-1, 02); var peakStart = new Array(ps1,ps2); var peakEnd = new Array(pe1,pe2); function checkDay(date) { var day = date.getDay(); for (var i=0; i<peakStart.length; i++) { if ((date > peakStart[i]) && (date < peakEnd[i])) { return [(day == 5), '']; } else { return [(day == 1 || day == 5), '']; } } } </script>

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