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  • ruby gem not found although it is installed

    - by Eimantas
    I found some similar problems here on SO, but none seem to match my case (sorry if I overlooked). Here's my problem: I installed oauth-plugin gem to ruby gems dir, but trying to use it in rails app tells me that it's not being found. Here's the output of relevant commands: Instalation % s gem install oauth-plugin Successfully installed oauth-plugin-0.3.14 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... Installing RDoc documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... gem which oauth-plugin output: % gem which oauth-plugin /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/oauth-plugin-0.3.14/lib/oauth-plugin.rb gem env output: % gem env RubyGems Environment: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.3.6 - RUBY VERSION: 1.8.7 (2009-12-24 patchlevel 248) [i686-darwin10.2.0] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /usr/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /usr/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86-darwin-10 - GEM PATHS: - /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - /Users/eimantas/.gem/ruby/1.8 - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => true - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - :gem => ["--no-ri", "--no-rdoc"] - :sources => ["http://gems.ruby.lt/", "http://rubygems.org/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://gems.ruby.lt/ - http://rubygems.org/ Doing ls -l /usr/lib/ruby shows this: % ls -l /usr/lib/ruby lrwxr-xr-x 1 root wheel 76 Aug 14 2009 /usr/lib/ruby -> ../../System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/Current/usr/lib/ruby And the gem in question is in intended location. This is not a single gem that is not being found by rubygems (although it's located where it should be). Any guidance towards the solution is much appreciated.

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  • when does factory girl create objects in db?

    - by Pavel K.
    i am trying to simulate a session using factory girl/shoulda (it worked with fixtures but i am having problems with using factories). i have following factories (user login and email both have 'unique' validations): Factory.define :user do |u| u.login 'quentin' u.email '[email protected]' end Factory.define :session_user, :class => Session do |u| u.association :user, :factory => :user u.session_id 'session_user' end and here's the test class MessagesControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase context "normal user" do setup do @request.session[:user_id]=Factory(:user).id @request.session[:session_id]=Factory(:session_user).session_id end should "be able to access new message creation" do get :new assert_response :success end end end but when i run "rake test:functionals", i get this test result 1) Error: test: normal user should be able to access new message creation. (MessagesControllerTest): ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Account name already exists!, Email already exists! which means that record already exists in db when i am referring to it in test setup. is there something i don't understand here? does factory girl create all factories in db on startup? rails 2.3.5/shoulda/factory girl

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  • Unable to download .apk via webbrowser from drupal site

    - by ggrell
    I have a drupal-based website where people can log in and see private discussion forums. This is where I want to have my beta testers for my Android application download the beta .apk files. I tested this thoroughly on my Android 1.6 based myTouch 3G, and was able to log in, and download files attached to forum posts without problems. Now comes the interesting part: my testers on Droids and Nexus Ones (Android 2.0.1 and 2.1) were complaining that their downloads are failing. Since I don't have an 2.0 phone, I tried it out in a 2.0 emulator, and lo-and-behold, it didn't work. The download shows the indeterminate progress for a second or two, then shows "Download unsuccessful". Based on what I see in the logs, it is apparent that the server is returning a 404 for the download request from 2.0 browsers. I can download to my desktop and 1.6 phone no problem. The only reason I can think of that the server would return a 404 for a request is that for some reason the credentials or cookies aren't being passed by the download process. Logcat shows: http error 404 for download x Some background: I added the mime type to my .htaccess like this: AddType application/vnd.android.package-archive apk I checked the server logs and see the following for failed downloads: xx.xx.xx.224 - - [28/Jan/2010:20:39:00 -0500] "GET /system/files/grandmajong-beta090.apk HTTP/1.1" 404 - "http://trickybits.com/forums/beta-testing/grandma-jong/latest-version-090-b1" "Mozilla/5.0 (Linux; U; Android 1.6; en-us; sdk Build/Donut) AppleWebKit/528.5+ (KHTML, like Gecko) Version/3.1.2 Mobile Safari/525.20.1"

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  • Taking the data mapper approach in Zend Framework

    - by Seeker
    Let's assume the following tables setup for a Zend Framework app. user (id) groups (id) groups_users (id, user_id, group_id, join_date) I took the Data Mapper approach to models which basically gives me: Model_User, Model_UsersMapper, Model_DbTable_Users Model_Group, Model_GroupsMapper, Model_DbTable_Groups Model_GroupUser, Model_GroupsUsersMapper, Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers (for holding the relationships which can be seen as aentities; notice the "join_date" property) I'm defining the _referenceMap in Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers: protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'User' => array ( 'columns' => array('user_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Users', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), 'App' => array ( 'columns' => array('group_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'refColumns' => array('id') ) ); I'm having these design problems in mind: 1) The Model_Group only mirrors the fields in the groups table. How can I return a collection of groups a user is a member of and also the date the user joined that group for every group? If I just added the property to the domain object, then I'd have to let the group mapper know about it, wouldn't I? 2) Let's say I need to fetch the groups a user belongs to. Where should I put this logic? Model_UsersMapper or Model_GroupsUsersMapper? I also want to make use of the referencing map (dependent tables) mechanism and probably use findManyToManyRowset or findDependentRowset, something like: $result = $this->getDbTable()->find($userId); $row = $result->current(); $groups = $row->findManyToManyRowset( 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers' ); This would produce two queries when I could have just written it in a single query. I will place this in the Model_GroupsUsersMapper class. An enhancement would be to add a getGroups method to the Model_User domain object which lazily loads the groups when needed by calling the appropriate method in the data mapper, which begs for the second question. Should I allow the domain object know about the data mapper?

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  • Subversion - Do I need to reintegrate if I don't merge from trunk

    - by user314584
    Hi, I have read quite a bit about the need to re-integrate when you merge from a branch back to the trunk in SVN (This article was really helpful http://blogs.open.collab.net/svn/2008/07/subversion-merg.html). The problem seems to come from the fact that people are regularly updating the branch from the trunk which means that the final merge back is reflective. In my use-case, we want to create a release branch which will live for as long as it takes to stabilise the branch and fix any bugs. To maintain stability we don't want to merge up from the trunk but we do want to regularly merge fixes down from the release branch so that trunk gets all the bug fixes for free. We also don't want to wait until the end of QA to merge back to trunk. We therefore want to: 1.) Create the branch 2.) Make regular changes to the branch (and trunk) 3.) Merge back to trunk regularly (daily perhaps) Since we will never merge up from trunk I don't think that we need to worry about the problems that re-intergrating is designed to fix. Can anyone see a problem with this approach? Cheers, Matt

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  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • Unable to connect to UNC share with WindowsIdentity.Impersonate, but works fine using LogonUser

    - by Rob
    Hopefully I'm not missing something obvious here, but I have a class that needs to create some directories on a UNC share and then move files to the new directory. When we connect using LogonUser things work fine with no errors, but when we try and use the user indicated by Integrated Windows authentication we run into problems. Here's some working and non-working code to give you an idea what is going on. The following works and logs the requested information: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); IntPtr token; WindowsIdentity wi; if (LogonUser("user", "network", "password", 8, // LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK_CLEARTEXT 0, // LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT out token)) { wi = new WindowsIdentity(token); WindowsImpersonationContext wic = wi.Impersonate(); Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); wic.Undo(); CloseHandle(token); } The following fails and gives an error message indicating the network name is not available, but the correct user name is indicated by GetCurrent().Name: WindowsIdentity identity = (WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; using (identity.Impersonate()) { Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); }

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  • Facebook connect PHP API - friends_get() returns empty array

    - by Soufiane Hassou
    Couple of hours ago I succeed to get friends_get() to return an array of friends, but, now I don't know if it is my fault or something is wrong in facebooks' end (API problems?). Anyway I used a code from their documentation: <?php require_once 'facebook-platform/php/facebook.php'; $appapikey = ''; //CHANGE THIS $appsecret = ''; //CHANGE THIS $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); //$user_id = $facebook->require_login(); $fb_user=$facebook->get_loggedin_user(); //$fb_user = $facebook->user; $friends = $facebook->api_client->friends_get(); $friends = array_slice($friends, 0, 10); $i=0; foreach ($friends as $friend) { $personArray = $facebook->api_client->users_getInfo($friend,"name"); $person[$i]=$personArray[0]; $i++; } $i=0; foreach ($person as $f) { echo " ".$f['name']; //MORE DETAILS HERE IN STEP 2 echo "<br />"; $i++; } echo "<br />"; ?> The login is working great, but, I can't retrieve the list of friends and I test also with api_client->pages_isFan and it doesn't seem to work too (says not a fan while the user is).

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  • WPF: Same line drawn different?

    - by stefan.at.wpf
    Hello, I have a canvas and in it I'm drawing some lines: for (int i = 1; i >= 100; i++) { // Line LineGeometry line = new LineGeometry(); line.StartPoint = new Point(i * 100, 0); line.EndPoint = new Point(i * 100, 100 * 100); // Path Path myPath = new Path(); myPath.Stroke = Brushes.Black; myPath.StrokeThickness = 1; // Add to canvas myPath.Data = line; canvas1.Children.Add(myPath); } Well, nothing special, but it makes problems - the lines are drawn different! The canvas is inside a scrollviewer, the following image shows different positions of the canvas, however the lines should look the same? Hell, how is this possible? The code above is the only code I've written by hand and it's the only content in the canvas. Anyone knows why this happens and how to prevent this? Thank you very much! Screenshot: http://www.imagebanana.com/view/c01nrd6i/lines.png

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  • Raw FTP SSL with C#

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I'm trying to understand how SSL works. In my wish to make a small FTP client which supports SSL I've run into some problems: TcpClient FtpConnection = new TcpClient(FtpServer, FtpPort); NetworkStream FtpStream = FtpConnection.GetStream(); StreamReader FtpReader = new StreamReader(FtpStream); FtpWriter = new StreamWriter(IrcStream); send_cmd("AUTH SSL"); send_cmd is just a FtpWriter.WriteLine(text); FtpWriter.Flush(); function. My "problem" is this: First I need to make a (non-ssl) connection to the FTP, then tell it to do a ssl connection (AUTH SSL), and I would guess I then need to make a new connection - something like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(FtpServer, FtpPort); SslStream sslStream = new SslStream(client.GetStream(), false, new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(ValidateServerCertificate), null); try { sslStream.AuthenticateAsClient("foobar"); } catch (AuthenticationException e) { MessageBox.Show("Authentication failed - closing the connection."); client.Close(); return; } Taken from msdn. I keep dying on handshake failed due to unexpected packet format (which I've tried googling, but all say it's because the author has connected to a wrong port), which I take as: The connection is not ssl until AUTH SSL is send to it. So my question is, how would i go about making this a "hybrid" connection so I can make an SSL connection to the server? Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Boost.Python wrapping hierarchies avoiding diamond inheritance

    - by stbuton
    I'm having some trouble seeing what the best way to wrap a series of classes with Boost.Python while avoiding messy inheritance problems. Say I have the classes A, B, and C with the following structure: struct A { virtual void foo(); virtual void bar(); virtual void baz(); }; struct B : public A { virtual void quux(); }; struct C : public A { virtual void foobar(); }; I want to wrap all classes A, B, and C such that they are extendable from Python. The normal method for accomplishing this would be along the lines of: struct A_Wrapper : public A, boost::python::wrapper<A> { //dispatch logic for virtual functions }; Now for classes B and C which extend from A I would like to be able to inherit and share the wrapping implementation for A. So I'd like to be able to do something along the lines of: struct B_Wrapper : public B, public A_Wrapper, public boost::python::wrapper<B> { //dispatch logic specific for B }; struct C_Wrapper : public C, public A_Wrapper, public boost::python::wrapper<C> { //dispatch logic specific for C } However, it seems like that would introduce all manner of nastiness with the double inheritance of the boost wrapper base and the double inheritance of A in the B_Wrapper and C_Wrapper objects. Is there a common way that this instance is solved that I'm missing? thanks.

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  • Forking in PHP on Windows

    - by Doug Kavendek
    We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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  • Problem with authentication from different domains using Django sessions.

    - by Greg
    Hi all, I am developing a bookmarklet which essentially adds a toolbar to a web page user is currently looking at. To use it, user needs to be logged in. To login user clicks on 'Singin' which displays a standard form containing Username, Password etc fields. When user successfully logs in they may chose to navigate to a different web-site. When on another page, they (a) re-load the bookmarklet (b) their session is retrieved from the server (c) user doesn't need to login again. Pretty standard I've would have thought. Using Django sessions and JQuery. I'm having troubles implementing the above usecase. Here are some problems I've encountered: Cross domain POST AJAX requests are disallowed. That was solved with JSONp. I doubt it is a very secure approach but for now it works. My server returns the session id in a cookie, however when the user navigates to a different page I don't really know how to retrieve that session id to send back to my server. Can I even read third party cookies from my JavaScript? I'm looking for some guidelines on implementing the above usecase. Ideally I don't want to redirect user to another page for them to sign in. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • ASP.net AppendHeader not working in ASP MVC

    - by Chao
    I'm having problems getting AppendHeader to work properly if I am also using an authorize filter. I'm using an actionfilter for my AJAX actions that applies Expires, Last-Modified, Cache-Control and Pragma (though while testing I have tried including it in the action method itself with no change in results). If I don't have an authorize filter the headers work fine. Once I add the filter the headers I tried to add get stripped. The headers I want to add Response.AppendHeader("Expires", "Sun, 19 Nov 1978 05:00:00 GMT"); Response.AppendHeader("Last-Modified", String.Format("{0:r}", DateTime.Now)); Response.AppendHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); Response.AppendHeader("Cache-Control", "post-check=0, pre-check=0"); Response.AppendHeader("Pragma", "no-cache"); An example of the headers from a correct page: Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date Mon, 14 Jun 2010 17:22:24 GMT X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 Pragma no-cache Expires Sun, 19 Nov 1978 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified Mon, 14 Jun 2010 18:22:24 GMT Cache-Control no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 352 Connection Close And from an incorrect page: Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date Mon, 14 Jun 2010 17:27:34 GMT X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 Pragma no-cache, no-cache Cache-Control private, s-maxage=0 Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 4937 Connection Close

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  • Check if the internet cannot be accessed in Python

    - by Sridhar Ratnakumar
    I have an app that makes a HTTP GET request to a particular URL on the internet. But when the network is down (say, no public wifi - or my ISP is down, or some such thing), I get the following traceback at urllib.urlopen: 70, in get u = urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 126, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data, timeout) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 391, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 409, in _open '_open', req) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 369, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 1161, in http_open return self.do_open(httplib.HTTPConnection, req) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 1136, in do_open raise URLError(err) URLError: <urlopen error [Errno 8] nodename nor servname provided, or not known> I want to print a friendly error to the user telling him that his network maybe down instead of this unfriendly "nodename nor servname provided" error message. Sure I can catch URLError, but that would catch every url error, not just the one related to network downtime. I am not a purist, so even an error message like "The server example.com cannot be reached; either the server is indeed having problems or your network connection is down" would be nice. How do I go about selectively catching such errors? (For a start, if DNS resolution fails at urllib.urlopen, that can be reasonably assumed as network inaccessibility? If so, how do I "catch" it in the except block?)

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  • Enterprise Eclipse Provisioning - Or - How to share your standard Eclipse setup with other developer

    - by nikhil
    We use Eclipse as the IDE for developing all sorts of Java/J2EE applications in our 150 people odd IT department. One of the common problems we have been seeing is that developers download and install different versions of Eclipse and plugins based on their personal likes and dislikes. We have been trying to bring some consistency to this and have standardized on the version and the plugins that developers should be using. So the problem now is how do we distribute this installation to the team. We have zipped the directories and shared it through a shared drive. But I am looking for a better solution using some kind of provisioning tool for Eclipse using which people can install the IDE or get updates. Has anyone faced this problem? What are your solutions to this? How do you ensure a standard Eclipse environment across developers? I found Yoxos as a potential solution to this. Does anyone have any experience with it? Can p2 be used to do this?

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  • Can SOTI's MobiControl software interfere with an ASP.Net web service?

    - by MusiGenesis
    We have a set of WinMo (5.0) devices running a .NET CF application that talks to an ASP.Net web service running on a server. The devices connect to the network either via ActiveSync through a networked PC or directly to the network via an Ethernet dongle. In our development environment, the communication between devices and web service is 100% reliable. In our production environment, the communications are failing erratically and unpredictably. Sometimes calls to the web service (even to a simple test call that just returns a boolean) begin failing every time on a particular device, with the error message "Could not establish connection to network." This is usually fixed by flip-flopping the selected combo box values on the SETTINGS | NETWORKS screen. Sometimes calls on a particular device begin failing with a generic "WebException" message. The fix for this problem (so far) is either to reset the device (i.e. reinstall the OS) or else it just can't be fixed on some devices. To the best of our knowledge, everything about the DEV and PROD systems are the same (same server and device specs). The most obvious difference to us is that the PROD devices are all controlled by SOTI's MobiControl (which is server-side software that communicates with a SOTI client application installed on each device), whereas our DEV environment does not have SOTI installed anywhere (obviously we should have it there as well - long story). Does anybody have any experience with SOTI MobiControl and/or know of any documented problems where SOTI interferes with other communication mechanisms on a device?

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  • Should the entity framework + self tracking entities be saving me time

    - by sipwiz
    I've been using the entity framework in combination with the self tracking entity code generation templates for my latest silverlight to WCF application. It's the first time I've used the entity framework in a real project and my hope was that I would save myself a lot of time and effort by being able to automatically update the whole data access layer of my project when my database schema changed. Happily I've found that to be the case, updating my database schema by adding a new table, changing column names, adding new columns etc. etc. can be propagated to my business object classes by using the update from database option on the entity framework model. Where I'm hurting is the CRUD operations within my WCF service in response to actions on my Silverlight client. I use the same self tracking entity framework business objects in my Silverlight app but I find I'm continually having to fight against problems such as foreign key associations not being handled correctly when updating an object or the change tracker getting confused about the state of an object at the Silverlight end and the data access operation within the WCF layer throwing a wobbly. It's got to a point where I have now spent more time dealing with this quirks than I have on my previous project where I used Linq-to-SQL as the starting point for rolling my own business objects. Is it just me being hopeless or is the self tracking entities approach something that should be avoided until it's more mature?

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  • video streaming over http in blackberry

    - by ysnky
    hi all, while i was searching video player over http, i found the article which is located at this url; http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/Stream ing_media_-_Start_to_finish.html?nodeid=2456737&ve rnum=0 i can run by adding ";deviceside=true" at the end of url. it works fine in the jde4.5 simulator. it gets 3gp videos from my local server. i tested with 580kb files and works fine. but when i get the same file from my server (not local, real server) i have problems with big files (e.g 580 kb). it plays 180kb files (but sometimes it does not play this file either) but not plays 580kb file. and also i deployed my application to my 9000 device it sometimes plays small file (180kb) but never plays big file (580kb). why it plays if it is on my local file, not play in real world? i ve stucked for days. hope you help me. and also the code at the url given below is not work, the only code i ve found is the above. blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How_To _-_Play_video_within_a_BlackBerry_smartphone_appli cation.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 btw, there is no method such as resize(long param) of CircularByteBuffer class. so i comment relavent line (buffer.resize(buffer.getSize() + (buffer.getSize() * percent / 100)); as shown below. public void increaseBufferCapacity(int percent) { if(percent < 0){ log(0, "FAILED! SP.setBufferCapacity() - " + percent); throw new IllegalArgumentException("Increase factor must be positive.."); } synchronized(readLock){ synchronized(connectionLock){ synchronized(userSeekLock){ synchronized(mediaIStream){ log(0, "SP.setBufferCapacity() - " + percent); //buffer.resize(buffer.getSize() + (buffer.getSize() * percent / 100)); this.bufferCapacity = buffer.getSize(); } } } } } thanks in advance.

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  • Overriding deep functions in javascript

    - by PintSizedCat
    I'm quite new to javascript but have undertaken a task to get better aquainted with it. However, I am running into some problems with jQuery. The following javascript is the code that is in a third party jQuery plugin and I would love to be able to override the funFunction() function here to do my own implementation. Is this possible, if so, how can I do it? I've been doing a fair amount of searching and have tried a number of methods for overriding the function using things like: jQuery.blah.funFunction = funtion() { alert("like this"); }; Main code: (function($) { $.extend( { blah: new function() { this.construct = = function(settings) { //Construct... stuff }; function funFunction() { //Function I want to override } } }); })(jQuery); For those further interested I am trying to override tablesorter so that the only way a user can sort a column is in ascending order only. Edit: There is a wordpress installation that uses WP-Table-Reloaded which in turn uses this plugin. I don't want to change the core code for this plugin because if there was ever an update I would then have to make sure that my predecessor knew exactly what I had done. I've been programming for a long time and feel like I should easily be able to pick up javascript whilst also looking at jQuery. I know exactly what I need to do for this, just not how I can override this function.

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  • Double Free inside of a destructor upon adding to a vector

    - by Shawn B
    Hey, I am working on a drum machine, and am having problems with vectors. Each Sequence has a list of samples, and the samples are ordered in a vector. However, when a sample is push_back on the vector, the sample's destructor is called, and results in a double free error. Here is the Sample creation code: class XSample { public: Uint8 Repeat; Uint8 PlayCount; Uint16 Beats; Uint16 *Beat; Uint16 BeatsPerMinute; XSample(Uint16 NewBeats,Uint16 NewBPM,Uint8 NewRepeat); ~XSample(); void GenerateSample(); void PlaySample(); }; XSample::XSample(Uint16 NewBeats,Uint16 NewBPM,Uint8 NewRepeat) { Beats = NewBeats; BeatsPerMinute = NewBPM; Repeat = NewRepeat-1; PlayCount = 0; printf("XSample Construction\n"); Beat = new Uint16[Beats]; } XSample::~XSample() { printf("XSample Destruction\n"); delete [] Beat; } And the 'Dynamo' code that creates each sample in the vector: class XDynamo { public: std::vector<XSample> Samples; void CreateSample(Uint16 NewBeats,Uint16 NewBPM,Uint8 NewRepeat); }; void XDynamo::CreateSample(Uint16 NewBeats,Uint16 NewBPM,Uint8 NewRepeat) { Samples.push_back(XSample(NewBeats,NewBPM,NewRepeat)); } Here is main(): int main() { XDynamo Dynamo; Dynamo.CreateSample(4,120,2); Dynamo.CreateSample(8,240,1); return 0; } And this is what happens when the program is run: Starting program: /home/shawn/dynamo2/dynamo [Thread debugging using libthread_db enabled] XSample Construction XSample Destruction XSample Construction XSample Destruction *** glibc detected *** /home/shawn/dynamo2/dynamo: double free or corruption (fasttop): 0x0804d008 *** However, when the delete [] is removed from the destructor, the program runs perfectly. What is causing this? Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Question about functional OOP style in JavaScript

    - by valums
    I prefer to use functional OOP style for my code (similar to the module pattern) because it helps me to avoid the "new" keyword and all problems with the scope of "this" keyword in callbacks. But I've run into a few minor issues with it. I would like to use the following code to create a class. namespace.myClass = function(){ var self = {}, somePrivateVar1; // initialization code that would call // private or public methods privateMethod(); self.publicMethod(); // sorry, error here function privateMethod(){} self.publicMethod = function(){}; return self; } The problem is that I can't call public methods from my initialization code, as these functions are not defined yet. The obvious solution would be to create an init method, and call it before "return self" line. But maybe you know a more elegant solution? Also, how do you usually handle inheritance with this pattern? I use the following code, butI would like to hear your ideas and suggestions. namespace.myClass2 = function(){ var self = namespace.parentClass(), somePrivateVar1; var superMethod = self.someMethod; self.someMethod = function(){ // example shows how to overwrite parent methods superMethod(); }; return self; } Edit. For those who asked what are the reasons for choosing this style of OOP, you can look into following questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1557386/prototypal-vs-functional-oop-in-javascript http://stackoverflow.com/questions/383402/is-javascript-s-new-keyword-considered-harmful

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  • Simulating pass by reference for an array reference (i.e. a reference to a reference) in Java

    - by Leif Andersen
    I was wondering, in java, is it possible to in anyway, simulate pass by reference for an array? Yes, I know the language doesn't support it, but is there anyway I can do it. Say, for example, I want to create a method that reverses the order of all the elements in an array. (I know that this code snippet isn't the best example, as there is a better algorithms to do this, but this is a good example of the type of thing I want to do for more complex problems). Currently, I need to make a class like this: public static void reverse(Object[] arr) { Object[] tmpArr = new Object[arr.length]; count = arr.length - 1; for(Object i : arr) tmpArr[count--] = i; // I would like to do arr = tmpArr, but that will only make the shallow // reference tmpArr, I would like to actually change the pointer they passed in // Not just the values in the array, so I have to do this: count = arr.length - 1; for(Object i : tmpArr) arr[count--] = i; return; } Yes, I know that I could just swap the values until I get to the middle, and it would be much more efficient, but for other, more complex purposes, is there anyway that I can manipulate the actual pointer? Again, thank you.

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  • Mode specific key bindings

    - by rejeep
    Hey, I have a minor mode that also comes with a global mode. The mode have some key bindings and I want the user to have the posibility to specify what bindings should work for each mode. (my-minor-mode-bindings-for-mode 'some-mode '(key1 key2 ...)) (my-minor-mode-bindings-for-mode 'some-other-mode '(key3 key4 ...)) So I need some kind of mode/buffer-local key map. Buffer local is a bit problematic since the user can change the major mode. I have tried some solutions of which neither works any good. Bind all possible keys always and when the user types the key, check if the key should be active in that mode. Execute action if true, otherwise fall back. Like the previous case only that no keys are bound. Instead I use a pre command hook and check if the key pressed should do anything. For each buffer update (whatever that means), run a function that first clears the key map and then updates it with the bindings for that particular mode. I have tried these approaches and I found problems with all of them. Do you know of any good way to solve this? Thanks!

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  • Perl: Exporting variables in a subclass

    - by Jonathan
    I have a base class like this: package MyClass; use vars qw/$ME list of vars/; use Exporter; @ISA = qw/Exporter/; @EXPORT_OK = qw/ many variables & functions/; %EXPORT_TAGS = (all => \@EXPORT_OK ); sub my_method { } sub other_methods etc { } --- more code--- I want to subclass MyClass, but only for one method. package MySubclass; use MyClass; use vars qw/@ISA/; @ISA = 'MyClass'; sub my_method { --- new method } And I want to call this MySubclass like I would the original MyClass, and still have access to all of the variables and functions from exporter. However I am having problems getting the Exporter variables from the original class, MyClass, to export correctly. Do I need to run exporter again inside the subclass? That seems redundant and unclear. Example file: #!/usr/bin/perl use MySubclass /$ME/; -- rest of code But I get compile errors when I try to import the $ME variable. Any suggestions?

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