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  • Template with constant expression: error C2975 with VC++2008

    - by Arman
    Hello, I am trying to use elements of meta programming, but hit the wall with the first trial. I would like to have a comparator structure which can be used as following: intersect_by<ID>(L1.data, L2.data, "By ID: "); intersect_by<IDf>(L1.data, L2.data, "By IDf: "); Where: struct ID{};// Tag used for original IDs struct IDf{};// Tag used for the file position //following Boost.MultiIndex examples template<typename Tag,typename MultiIndexContainer> void intersect_by( const MultiIndexContainer& L1,const MultiIndexContainer& L2,std::string msg, Tag* =0 /* fixes a MSVC++ 6.0 bug with implicit template function parms / ) { / obtain a reference to the index tagged by Tag */ const typename boost::multi_index::index<MultiIndexContainer,Tag>::type& L1_ID_index= get<Tag>(L1); const typename boost::multi_index::index<MultiIndexContainer,Tag>::type& L2_ID_index= get<Tag>(L2); std::set_intersection( L1_ID_index.begin(), L1_ID_index.end(), L2_ID_index.begin(), L2_ID_index.end(), std::inserter(s, s.begin()), strComparator() // Here I get the C2975 error ); } template<int N> struct strComparator; template<> struct strComparator<0>{ bool operator () (const particleID& id1, const particleID& id2) const { return id1.ID struct strComparator<1{ bool operator () (const particleID& id1, const particleID& id2) const { return id1.IDf }; What I am missing? kind regards Arman.

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  • Rest WebService error handling.

    - by Pratik
    Hi there, I am using RestWebservice for few basic operations , like creating/searching. The request xml looks something like this <customer> <name/> ..... </customer> For a successful operation I return the same customer XML with extra fields populated in it(eg. systemId etc which we blank in the request) . with Response.Status=2000 For an unsuccessful operation i return something like this with different error codes . e.g Response.Status = 422(Unprocessable entity) Response.Status= 500(Internal Server Error) and few others.. <errors> <error> An exception occurred while creating the customer</error> <error> blah argument is not valid.</error> </errors> Now i am not sure , whether this is the correct way of sending the errors to the client. Maybe it should be present in the header of the response. I will really appreciate any help. Thanks!

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  • JMS MessageCreator.createMessage() in Grails

    - by Hans Wurst
    Hi there, I am trying to implement jms to my grails application. I have several JMS consumer in a spring based enviroment listining on an ActiveMQ broker. I wrote a simple test commandline client which creates messages and receives them in an request response manner. Here is the snippet that sends a MapMessage in Spring JMS way. This works for me as long I am in my spring world. final String corrID = UUID.randomUUID().toString(); asyncJmsTemplate.send("test.RequestQ", new MessageCreator() { public Message createMessage(Session session) throws JMSException { try { MapMessage msg = session.createMapMessage(); msg.setStringProperty("json", mapper.writeValueAsString(List<of some objects>)); msg.setJMSCorrelationID(corrID); msg.setJMSReplyTo(session.createQueue("test.ReplyQ")); return msg; } catch (JsonGenerationException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (JsonMappingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } }); BUT when I tried to implement this methods to my grails test app I receive some METHOD_DEF exceptions. Sending simple TextMessages via the jmsTemplate.convertAndSende(Queue, Message) provided by the JMS Plugin works. Can any one help me? Is this a common problem? Cheers Hans

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  • cx_Oracle makes subprocess give OSError

    - by Shrikant Sharat
    I am trying to use the cx_Oracle module with python 2.6.6 on ubuntu Maverick, with Oracle 11gR2 Enterprise edition. I am able to connect to my oracle db just fine, but once I do that, the subprocess module does not work anymore. Here is an iPython session that reproduces the problem... In [1]: import subprocess as sp, cx_Oracle as dbh In [2]: sp.call(['whoami']) sharat Out[2]: 0 In [3]: con = dbh.connect('system', 'password') In [4]: con.close() In [5]: sp.call(['whomai']) --------------------------------------------------------------------------- OSError Traceback (most recent call last) /home/sharat/desk/calypso-launcher/<ipython console> in <module>() /usr/lib/python2.6/subprocess.pyc in call(*popenargs, **kwargs) 468 retcode = call(["ls", "-l"]) 469 """ --> 470 return Popen(*popenargs, **kwargs).wait() 471 472 /usr/lib/python2.6/subprocess.pyc in __init__(self, args, bufsize, executable, stdin, stdout, stderr, preexec_fn, close_fds, shell, cwd, env, universal_newlines, startupinfo, creationflags) 621 p2cread, p2cwrite, 622 c2pread, c2pwrite, --> 623 errread, errwrite) 624 625 if mswindows: /usr/lib/python2.6/subprocess.pyc in _execute_child(self, args, executable, preexec_fn, close_fds, cwd, env, universal_newlines, startupinfo, creationflags, shell, p2cread, p2cwrite, c2pread, c2pwrite, errread, errwrite) 1134 1135 if data != "": -> 1136 _eintr_retry_call(os.waitpid, self.pid, 0) 1137 child_exception = pickle.loads(data) 1138 for fd in (p2cwrite, c2pread, errread): /usr/lib/python2.6/subprocess.pyc in _eintr_retry_call(func, *args) 453 while True: 454 try: --> 455 return func(*args) 456 except OSError, e: 457 if e.errno == errno.EINTR: OSError: [Errno 10] No child processes So, the call to sp.call works fine before connecting to oracle, but breaks after that. Even if I have closed the connection to the database. Looking around, I found http://bugs.python.org/issue1731717 as somewhat related to this issue, but I am not dealing with threads here. I don't know if cx_Oracle is. Moreover, the above issue mentions that adding a time.sleep(1) fixes it, but it didn't help me. Any help appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

    - by Kyle
    I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

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  • Should I use a collection here?

    - by Eva
    So I have code set up like this: public interface IInterface { public void setField(Object field); } public abstract class AbstractClass extends JPanel implements IInterface { private Object field_; public void setField(Object field) { field_ = field; } } public class ClassA extends AbstractClass { public ClassA() { // unique ClassA constructor stuff } public Dimension getPreferredSize() { return new Dimension(1, 1); } } public class ClassB extends AbstractClass { public ClassB() { // unique ClassB constructor stuff } public Dimension getPreferredSize() { return new Dimension(42, 42); } } public class ConsumerA { public ConsumerA(Collection<AbstractClass> collection) { for (AbstractClass abstractClass : collection) { abstractClass.setField(this); abstractClass.repaint(); } } } All hunky-dory so far, until public class ConsumerB { // Option 1 public ConsumerB(ClassA a, ClassB b) { methodThatOnlyTakesA(a); methodThatOnlyTakesB(b); } // Option 2 public ConsumerB(Collection<AbstractClass> collection) { for (IInterface i : collection) { if (i instanceof ClassA) { methodThatOnlyTakesA((ClassA) i); else if (i instanceof ClassB) { methodThatOnlyTakesB((ClassB) i); } } } } public class UsingOption1 { public static void main(String[] args) { ClassA a = new ClassA(); ClassB b = new ClassB(); Collection<AbstractClass> collection = Arrays.asList(a, b); ConsumerA consumerA = new ConsumerA(collection); ConsumerB consumerB = new ConsumerB(a, b); } } public class UsingOption2 { public static void main(String[] args) { Collection<AbstractClass> collection = Arrays.asList(new ClassA(), new ClassB()); ConsumerA = new ConsumerA(collection); ConsumerB = new ConsumerB(collection); } } With a lot more classes extending AbstractClass, both options get unwieldly. Option1 would make the constructor of ConsumerB really long. Also UsingOption1 would get long too. Option2 would have way more if statements than I feel comfortable with. Is there a viable Option3? If it helps, ClassA and ClassB have all the same methods, they're just implemented differently. Thanks for slogging through my code!

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  • WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

    - by RemotecUk
    Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

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  • Android change context for findViewById to super from inline class

    - by wuntee
    I am trying to get the value of a EditText in a dialog box. A the "*"'ed line in the following code, the safeNameEditText is null; i am assuming because the 'findVeiwById' is searching on the context of the 'AlertDialog.OnClickListener'; How can I get/change the context of that 'findViewById' call? protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); switch(id){ case DIALOG_NEW_SAFE: builder.setTitle(R.string.news_safe); builder.setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); LayoutInflater factory = LayoutInflater.from(this); View newSafeView = factory.inflate(R.layout.newsafe, null); builder.setView(newSafeView); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new AlertDialog.OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { * EditText safeNameEditText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.new_safe_name); String safeName = safeNameEditText.getText().toString(); Log.i(LOG, safeName); setSafeDao(safeName); } }); builder.setNegativeButton(R.string.cancel, new AlertDialog.OnClickListener(){ public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.dismiss(); } }); return(builder.create()); default: return(null); } }

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  • Capture *all* display-characters in JavaScript?

    - by Jean-Charles
    I was given an unusual request recently that I'm having the most difficult time addressing that involves capturing all display-characters when typed into a text box. The set up is as follows: I have a text box that has a maxlength of 10 characters. When the user attempts to type more than 10 characters, I need to notify the user that they're typing beyond the character count limit. The simplest solution would be to specify a maxlength of 11, test the length on every keyup, and truncate back down to 10 characters but this solution seems a bit kludgy. What I'd prefer to do is capture the character before keyup and, depending on whether or not it is a display-character, present the notification to the user and prevent the default action. A white-list would be challenging since we handle a lot of international data. I've played around with every combination of keydown, keypress, and keyup, reading event.keyCode, event.charCode, and event.which, but I can't find a single combination that works across all browsers. The best I could manage is the following that works properly in =IE6, Chrome5, FF3.6, but fails in Opera: NOTE: The following code utilizes jQuery. $(function(){ $('#textbox').keypress(function(e){ var $this = $(this); var key = ('undefined'==typeof e.which?e.keyCode:e.which); if ($this.val().length==($this.attr('maxlength')||10)) { switch(key){ case 13: //return case 9: //tab case 27: //escape case 8: //backspace case 0: //other non-alphanumeric break; default: alert('no - '+e.charCode+' - '+e.which+' - '+e.keyCode); return false; }; } }); }); I'll grant that what I'm doing is likely over-engineering the solution but now that I'm invested in it, I'd like to know of a solution. Thanks for your help!

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  • How to access generic property without knowing the closed generic type

    - by Martin Booka Weser
    I have a generic Type as follows public class TestGeneric<T> { public T Data { get; set; } public TestGeneric(T data) { this.Data = data; } } If i have now an object (which is coming from some external source) from which i know that it's type is of some closed TestGeneric<, but i don't know the TypeParameter T. Now I need to access the Data of my object. Problem is that i can't cast the object, since i don't know exactly to which closed TestGeneric. I use // thx to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/457676/c-reflection-check-if-a-class-is-derived-from-a-generic-class private static bool IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(Type rawGeneric, Type subclass) { while (subclass != typeof(object)) { var cur = subclass.IsGenericType ? subclass.GetGenericTypeDefinition() : subclass; if (rawGeneric == cur) { return true; } subclass = subclass.BaseType; } return false; } to make sure, my object is of the generic type. The code in question is as follows: public static void Main() { object myObject = new TestGeneric<string>("test"); // or from another source if (IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(typeof(TestGeneric<>), myObject.GetType())) { // the following gives an InvalidCastException // var data = ((TestGeneric<object>)myObject).Data; // if i try to access the property with reflection // i get an InvalidOperationException var dataProperty = typeof(TestGeneric<>).GetProperty("Data"); object data = dataProperty.GetValue(myObject, new object[] { }); } } I need the Data regardless of its type (well, if i could ask for its type using GetType() would be fine, but not necessary) since i just want to dump it in xml using ToString(). Any suggestions? Thanx.

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  • Draw Rectangle with XNA

    - by mazzzzz
    Hey guys, I was working on game, and wanted to highlight a spot on the screen when something happens, I created a class to do this for me, and found a bit of code to draw the rectangle static private Texture2D CreateRectangle(int width, int height, Color colori) { Texture2D rectangleTexture = new Texture2D(game.GraphicsDevice, width, height, 1, TextureUsage.None, SurfaceFormat.Color);// create the rectangle texture, ,but it will have no color! lets fix that Color[] color = new Color[width * height];//set the color to the amount of pixels in the textures for (int i = 0; i < color.Length; i++)//loop through all the colors setting them to whatever values we want { color[i] = colori; } rectangleTexture.SetData(color);//set the color data on the texture return rectangleTexture;//return the texture } Problem is that the code above is called every update, (60 times a second), and it was not written with optimization in mind, I have no clue how else to write a code to do this though. It needs to be extremely fast (the code above freezes the game, which has only skeleton code right now).. Any suggestions. Note: Any new code would be great (WireFrame/Fill are both fine). I would like to be able to specify color. Something to point in the right direction would be great, Thanks, Max

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  • HashMap key problems

    - by Peterdk
    I'm profiling some old java code and it appears that my caching of values using a static HashMap and a access method does not work. Caching code (a bit abstracted): static HashMap<Key, Value> cache = new HashMap<Key, Value>(); public static Value getValue(Key key){ System.out.println("cache size="+ cache.size()); if (cache.containsKey(key)) { System.out.println("cache hit"); return cache.get(key); } else { System.out.println("no cache hit"); Value value = calcValue(); cache.put(key, value); return value; } } Profiling code: for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { getValue(new Key()); } Result output: cache size=0 no cache hit (..) cache size=99 no cache hit It looked like a standard error in Key's hashing code or equals code. However: new Key().hashcode == new Key().hashcode // TRUE new Key().equals(new Key()) // TRUE What's especially weird is that cache.put(key, value) just adds another value to the hashmap, instead of replacing the current one. So, I don't really get what's going on here. Am I doing something wrong?

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  • Excel COM Add-In dialog interrupts script

    - by usac
    Hi all! I have written an Excel COM Add-In in C++ for automation of Excel with VBA. It contains an own dialog showing some general informations about the Add-In. Now i create a button in Excel that opens the dialog. Leaving the dialog with the escape key leads to an Excel message that the script is being interrupted instead of just closing the dialog. I could suppress the interruption message with: Application.EnableCancelKey = xlDisabled But that seems not to be the solution as the script can not be interrupted any more. Here is an example how i use VBA to open the dialog: Private Sub ShowAboutDialog_Click() Dim oComAddIn As COMAddIn Set oComAddIn = Application.COMAddIns.Item("MyComAddIn.Example") oComAddIn.Connect = True Call oComAddIn.Object.ShowAboutDlg End Sub My guess is that the problem is somewhere in the message handler of the dialog: INT_PTR CALLBACK CAboutDialog::AboutDlg( HWND hwndDlg, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { switch(uMsg) { ... case WM_COMMAND: if (LOWORD(wParam) == IDOK || LOWORD(wParam) == IDCANCEL) { // Here, the ESCAPE key should also be trapped? EndDialog(hwndDlg, LOWORD(wParam)); return TRUE; } ... } return FALSE; } The Dialog is created with: DialogBox(g_hModule, MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDD_ABOUT), hWndParent, (DLGPROC)AboutDlg) Thanks a lot!

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  • Mixed Mode C++ DLL function call failure when app launched from network share. Called from unmanage

    - by Steve
    Mixed-mode DLL called from native C application fails to load: An unhandled exception of type 'System.IO.FileLoadException' occurred in Unknown Module. Additional information: Could not load file or assembly 'XXSharePoint, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=e0fbc95fd73fff47' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant minimum permission requests. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131417) My environment is: Native C application calling a mixed mode C++ DLL, which then loads a C# DLL.. This works correctly when loaded from a local drive, but when launched from a network drive, it fails with the above messages. The call to LoadLibrary succeeds, as does the GetProcAddress. The load error happens when I call the function. I have digitally signed the C application, and I've performed "strong name" signing on the 2 DLLs. The PublickKeyToken in the message above does match the named DLL. I have also issued the CASPOLcommands on my client to grant FullTrust to that strong name keytoken. When that failed to work, I tried the CASPOL command to grant FullTrust to the URL of the network drive (including path to my application's directory); no change in results. I tried removing all dependencies, so that there was just the initial mixed-mode DLL... I replaced the bodies of all the functions with just a return of a "success" integer value. Results unchanged. Only when I changed it from Mixed Mode to Win32, and changed the Configuration Properties General Common Language Runtime Support from "Common Language Runtime Support" to "No Common Language Runtime Support" did calling the DLL produce the expected result (just returned the "success" integer return value).

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  • GLSL shader render to texture not saving alpha value

    - by quadelirus
    I am rendering to a texture using a GLSL shader and then sending that texture as input to a second shader. For the first texture I am using RGB channels to send color data to the second GLSL shader, but I want to use the alpha channel to send a floating point number that the second shader will use as part of its program. The problem is that when I read the texture in the second shader the alpha value is always 1.0. I tested this in the following way: at the end of the first shader I did this: gl_FragColor(r, g, b, 0.1); and then in the second texture I read the value of the first texture using something along the lines of vec4 f = texture2D(previous_tex, pos); if (f.a != 1.0) { gl_FragColor = vec4(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); return; } No pixels in my output are black, whereas if I change the above code to read gl_FragColor(r, g, 0.1, 1.0); //Notice I'm now sending 0.1 for blue and in the second shader vec4 f = texture2D(previous_tex, pos); if (f.b != 1.0) { gl_FragColor = vec4(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); return; } All the appropriate pixels are black. This means that for some reason when I set the alpha value to something other than 1.0 in the first shader and render to a texture, it is still seen as being 1.0 by the second shader. Before I render to texture I glDisable(GL_BLEND); It seems pretty clear to me that the problem has to do with OpenGL handling alpha values in some way that isn't obvious to me since I can use the blue channel in the way I want, and figured someone out there will instantly see the problem.

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  • X++ Coming Out Of QueryRun In Fetch Method

    - by will
    I can't seem to find the resolution for this. I have modified the Fetch method in a report, so that if the queryRun is changed, and the new ID is fetched, then the while loop starts over and a new page appears and 2 elements are executed. This part works fine, the next part does not, in each ID there are several Records which I am using Element.Execute(); and element.Send(); to process. What happens is, the first ID is selected, the element (body) of the reports is executed and the element is sent as expected, however the while loop does not go onto the next ID? Here is the code; public boolean fetch() { APMPriorityId oldVanId, newVanId; LogisticsControlTable lLogisticsControlTable; int64 cnt, counter; ; queryRun = new QueryRun(this); if (!queryRun.prompt() || !element.prompt()) { return false; } while (queryRun.next()) { if (queryRun.changed(tableNum(LogisticsControlTable))) { lLogisticsControlTable = queryRun.get(tableNum(LogisticsControlTable)); if (lLogisticsControlTable) { info(lLogisticsControlTable.APMPriorityId); cnt = 0; oldVanId = newVanId; newVanId = lLogisticsControlTable.APMPriorityId; if(newVanId) { element.newPage(); element.execute(1); element.execute(2); } } if (lLogisticsControlTable.APMPriorityId) select count(recId) from lLogisticsControlTable where lLogisticsControlTable.APMPriorityId == newVanId; counter = lLogisticsControlTable.RecId; while select lLogisticsControlTable where lLogisticsControlTable.APMPriorityId == newVanId { cnt++; if(lLogisticsControlTable.APMPriorityId == newVanId && cnt <= counter) { element.execute(3); element.send(lLogisticsControlTable); } } } } return true; }

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  • F#: Tell me what I'm missing about using Async.Parallel

    - by JBristow
    ok, so I'm doing ProjectEuler Problem #14, and I'm fiddling around with optimizations in order to feel f# out. in the following code: let evenrule n = n / 2L let oddrule n = 3L * n + 1L let applyRule n = if n % 2L = 0L then evenrule n else oddrule n let runRules n = let rec loop a final = if a = 1L then final else loop (applyRule a) (final + 1L) n, loop (int64 n) 1L let testlist = seq {for i in 3 .. 2 .. 1000000 do yield i } let getAns sq = sq |> Seq.head let seqfil (a,acc) (b,curr) = if acc = curr then (a,acc) else if acc < curr then (b,curr) else (a,acc) let pmap f l = seq { for a in l do yield async {return f a} } |> Seq.map Async.RunSynchronously let pmap2 f l = seq { for a in l do yield async {return f a} } |> Async.Parallel |> Async.RunSynchronously let procseq f l = l |> f runRules |> Seq.reduce seqfil |> fst let timer = System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch() timer.Start() let ans1 = testlist |> procseq Seq.map // 837799 00:00:08.6251990 printfn "%A\t%A" ans1 timer.Elapsed timer.Reset() timer.Start() let ans2 = testlist |> procseq pmap printfn "%A\t%A" ans2 timer.Elapsed // 837799 00:00:12.3010250 timer.Reset() timer.Start() let ans3 = testlist |> procseq pmap2 printfn "%A\t%A" ans3 timer.Elapsed // 837799 00:00:58.2413990 timer.Reset() Why does the Async.Parallel code run REALLY slow in comparison to the straight up map? I know I shouldn't see that much of an effect, since I'm only on a dual core mac. Please note that I do NOT want help solving problem #14, I just want to know what's up with my parallel code.

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  • How do I Unit Test Actions without Mocking that use UpdateModel?

    - by Hellfire
    I have been working my way through Scott Guthrie's excellent post on ASP.NET MVC Beta 1. In it he shows the improvements made to the UpdateModel method and how they improve unit testing. I have recreated a similar project however anytime I run a UnitTest that contains a call to UpdateModel I receive an ArgumentNullException naming the controllerContext parameter. Here's the relevant bits, starting with my model: public class Country { public Int32 ID { get; set; } public String Name { get; set; } public String Iso3166 { get; set; } } The controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Int32 id, FormCollection form) { using ( ModelBindingDataContext db = new ModelBindingDataContext() ) { Country country = db.Countries.Where(c => c.CountryID == id).SingleOrDefault(); try { UpdateModel(country, form); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(country); } } } And finally my unit test that's failing: [TestMethod] public void Edit() { CountryController controller = new CountryController(); FormCollection form = new FormCollection(); form.Add("Name", "Canada"); form.Add("Iso3166", "CA"); var result = controller.Edit(2 /*Canada*/, form) as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.IsNotNull(result, "Expected to be redirected on successful POST."); Assert.AreEqual("Show", result.RouteName, "Expected to redirect to the View action."); } ArgumentNullException is thrown by the call to UpdateModel with the message "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext". I'm assuming that somewhere the UpdateModel requires the System.Web.Mvc.ControllerContext which isn't present during execution of the test. I'm also assuming that I'm doing something wrong somewhere and just need to pointed in the right direction. Help Please!

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  • Which languages support *recursive* function literals / anonymous functions?

    - by Hugh Allen
    It seems quite a few mainstream languages support function literals these days. They are also called anonymous functions, but I don't care if they have a name. The important thing is that a function literal is an expression which yields a function which hasn't already been defined elsewhere, so for example in C, &printf doesn't count. EDIT to add: if you have a genuine function literal expression <exp>, you should be able to pass it to a function f(<exp>) or immediately apply it to an argument, ie. <exp>(5). I'm curious which languages let you write function literals which are recursive. Wikipedia's "anonymous recursion" article doesn't give any programming examples. Let's use the recursive factorial function as the example. Here are the ones I know: JavaScript / ECMAScript can do it with callee: function(n){if (n<2) {return 1;} else {return n * arguments.callee(n-1);}} it's easy in languages with letrec, eg Haskell (which calls it let): let fac x = if x<2 then 1 else fac (x-1) * x in fac and there are equivalents in Lisp and Scheme. Note that the binding of fac is local to the expression, so the whole expression is in fact an anonymous function. Are there any others?

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  • Using $.get with jquery validation

    - by Jimmy McCarthy
    I'm trying to use the Jquery builtin validator on my page. The issue is that I have certain fields that only are required if the JobID (entered into another field) does not already exist in our database. I have a simple service which simply takes JobID and returns True or False based on whether the JobID exists, but I can't seem to get this information where I want it. Some sample code: $("#dep_form").validate({ rules: { JobID: { required: true, digits: true, minlength: 3 }, OrgName: { required: function(element) { //This field is required if the JobID is new. return $("#jobinfo").html().length==15; } } }, messages: { JobID: { required: "Enter a Job Number.", digits: "Only numbers are allowed in Job ID's.", minlength: "Job Number must be at least 3 digits" }, OrgName: { required: "Select a Practice from the dropdown list." } }, errorClass: "ui-state-error-input", errorLabelContainer: "#errorbox", errorElement: 'li', errorContainer: "#validation_errors", onfocusout: false, onkeyup: false, focusinvalid: false }; Currently, I'm using a lazy method to validate (shown above). However, I now have access to a service using the URL: var lookupurl = "/deposits/jobidvalidate/?q=" + $("#id_JobID").val() + "&t=" + new Date().getTime(); which is a page which will contain just the word True or False based on whether that given JobID exists. I've tried half a dozen different ways of setting variables and calling functions within functions and still cannot get a way to simply return the value of that page (which I've been trying to access with $.get() ) to my validator, so that required is set to true when the Job does not exist and false if the job already exists. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Correct method to search for AD user by email address from .NET

    - by BrianLy
    I'm having some issues with code that is intended to find a user in Active Directory by searching on their email address. I have tried 2 methods but I'm sometimes finding that the FindOne() method will not return any results on some occasions. If I look up the user in the GAL in Outlook I see the SMTP email address listed. My end goal is to confirm that the user exists in AD. I only have the email address as search criteria, so no way to use first or last name. Method 1: Using mail property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(mail=" + email + ")"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); Method 2: proxyAddresses property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(proxyAddresses=SMTP:" + email + ")"; // I've also tried with =smtp: search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); I've tried changing the case of the email address input but it still does not return a result. Is there a problem here with case sensitivity? If so, what is the best way to resolve it?

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  • Value is not changing in the javascript variable on the onClick event

    - by Chetan sharma
    I am trying to implement a dynamic search jquery and php, but I am not able to change the value of a javascript variable on my onclick event. <script type="text/javascript"> var main_category = '<?php echo $main_category?>'; var main_url = '<?php echo $url?>get/' + encodeURIComponent(main_category) + '/'; var container_id = '<?php echo $unique_id?>content_area'; //name $('#<?php echo $unique_id?>search_by_name').autocomplete('<?php echo $url?>get_autocomplete_data/' + encodeURIComponent(main_category) + '/names/', { matchContains: "word", autoFill: true, width: 310 });$('#<?php echo $unique_id?>search_by_name').result(function (event, data){ var url = main_url + 'search/title/' + encodeURIComponent(data); load_div(container_id, url); }); //on click of displayed categories $('[rel="<?php echo $unique_id?>sub_category"]').click(function (){ window['main_category'] = this.title; $('#<?php echo $unique_id?>category').html('' +main_category+ ''); return false; }); }); </script> It changes the value when on click is fired //on click of displayed categories $('[rel="<?php echo $unique_id?>sub_category"]').click(function (){ window['main_category'] = this.title; $('#<?php echo $unique_id?>category').html('' +main_category+ ''); return false; }); but when after that i add data for the search it still searches for the old category $('#<?php echo $unique_id?>search_by_name').result(function (event, data){ var url = main_url + 'search/title/' + encodeURIComponent(data); load_div(container_id, url); }); "main_category" value is not changing in the "main_url"

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  • How can I run a local Windows Application and have the output be piped into the Browser.

    - by Trey Sherrill
    I have Windows Application (.EXE file is written in C and built with MS-Visual Studio), that outputs ASCII text to stdout. I’m looking to enhance the ASCII text to include limited HTML with a few links. I’d like to invoke this application (.EXE File) and take the output of that application and pipe it into a Browser. This is not a one time thing, each new web page would be another run of the Local Application! The HTML/java-script application below has worked for me to execute the application, but the output has gone into a DOS Box windows and not to pipe it into the Browser. I’d like to update this HTML Application to enable the Browser to capture that text (that is enhanced with HTML) and display it with the browser. <body> <script> function go() { w = new ActiveXObject("WScript.Shell"); w.run('C:/DL/Browser/mk_html.exe'); return true; } </script> <form> Run My Application (Window with explorer only) <input type="button" value="Go" onClick="return go()"> </FORM> </body>

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  • c# Most efficient way to combine two objects

    - by Dested
    I have two objects that can be represented as an int, float, bool, or string. I need to perform an addition on these two objects with the results being the same thing c# would produce as a result. For instance 1+"Foo" would equal the string "1Foo", 2+2.5 would equal the float 5.5, and 3+3 would equal the int 6 . Currently I am using the code below but it seems like incredible overkill. Can anyone simplify or point me to some way to do this efficiently? private object Combine(object o, object o1) { float left = 0; float right = 0; bool isInt = false; string l = null; string r = null; if (o is int) { left = (int)o; isInt = true; } else if (o is float) { left = (float)o; } else if (o is bool) { l = o.ToString(); } else { l = (string)o; } if (o1 is int) { right = (int)o1; } else if (o is float) { right = (float)o1; isInt = false; } else if (o1 is bool) { r = o1.ToString(); isInt = false; } else { r = (string)o1; isInt = false; } object rr; if (l == null) { if (r == null) { rr = left + right; } else { rr = left + r; } } else { if (r == null) { rr = l + right; } else { rr = l + r; } } if (isInt) { return Convert.ToInt32(rr); } return rr; }

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  • dynamic date formats in eyecon's Bootstrap Datepicker

    - by Jennifer Michelle
    I need to update my datepickers' date format (mm.dd.yyyy etc) using a select box. I am currently using Eyecon's Bootstrap Datepicker because it had the smallest files size that I could find (8k minified), and includes the date formats I need. I also tried to trigger date format changes in several other datepickers without any success. Fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/Yshy7/8/ Is there an obvious way to trigger a change from the select box to the datepickers? //date format var dateFormat = $('#custom_date_format').val() || "mm/dd/yyyy"; $('#custom_date_format').change(function() { var dateFormat = $(this).val(); }); //start and end dates var nowTemp = new Date(); var now = new Date(nowTemp.getFullYear(), nowTemp.getMonth(), nowTemp.getDate(), 0, 0, 0, 0); var checkin = $('.j-start-date').datepicker({ format: dateFormat, onRender: function(date) { //return date.valueOf() < now.valueOf() ? 'disabled' : ''; } }).on('changeDate', function(ev) { if (ev.date.valueOf() > checkout.date.valueOf()) { var newDate = new Date(ev.date) newDate.setDate(newDate.getDate()); checkout.setValue(newDate); } checkin.hide(); $('.j-end-date')[0].focus(); }).data('datepicker'); var checkout = $('.j-end-date').datepicker({ format: dateFormat, onRender: function(date) { return date.valueOf() <= checkin.date.valueOf() ? 'disabled' : ''; } }).on('changeDate', function(ev) { checkout.hide(); }).data('datepicker');

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