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  • Problem with File IO and splitting strings with Environment.NewLine in VB.Net

    - by Senthil
    Hi, I was experimenting with basic VB.Net file read/write and encountered this problem. I don't know whether it has something to do with the File IO or the String splitting. I am writing text to a file like so Dim sWriter As New StreamWriter("Data.txt") sWriter.WriteLine("FirstItem") sWriter.WriteLine("SecondItem") sWriter.WriteLine("ThirdItem") sWriter.Close() Then, I am reading the text from the file Dim sReader As New StreamReader("Data.txt") Dim fileContents As String = sReader.ReadToEnd() sReader.Close() Now, I am splitting the fileContents variable using Environment.NewLine and saving the returned String array. Dim tempStr() As String = fileContents.Split(Environment.NewLine) When I print the array, I get some weird results For Each str As String In tempStr Console.WriteLine("*" + str + "*") Next I added the *'s to the beginning and end to find out what is going on. Since NewLine is used as the delimiter, I expect the strings in the array to NOT have any NewLine's. But the output was this - *FirstItem* * SecondItem* * ThirdItem* * * Shouldn't it be this - *FirstItem* *SecondItem* *ThirdItem* ?? Since I am using WriteLine, my guess is a new line is added after the last string and hence the last empty item in the array after splitting. But why is there a new line in the beginning of the second and third strings?

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  • How Do I Use jQuery/JavaScript To Open A Popup Window/Tab (ASPX Login Page) & Then Pass Values To Op

    - by Terry Robinson
    Hi All, We currently have two asp.net 2.x web applications and we need to perform the following functionality: From one application, we want to auto-login to the other web application automatically in a new tab; using the same browser instance/window. So the process is: Open New Window/Tab With Second System URL/Login Page Wait For Popup Window/Tab Page To Load (DOM Ready?) OnPopupDomReady { Get Usename, Password, PIN Controls (jQuery Selectors) and Populate In Code Then Click Login Button (All Programatically). } I am currently using JavaScript to Open the window as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href')); return false; }); }); </script> I would like to use jQuery chaining functionality if possible to extent the method above so that I can attach a DOM Ready event to the popped up page and then use that event to call a method on the code behind of the popped up page to automatically login. Something similar to this (Note: The Following Code Sample Does Not Work, It Is Here To Try And Help Illustrate What We Are Trying To Achieve)... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href').ready(function () { // Use JavaScript (Pref. jQuery Partial Control Name Selectors) To Populate Username/Password TextBoxes & Click Login Button. }) }); }); </script> Our Architecture Is As Follows: We have the source for both products (ASP.NET WebSite[s]) and they are run under different app. pools in IIS. I hope this all makes sense, and if my plan is not going to work, please provide hints ;) Thanks All/Kind Regards, Terry Robinson.

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  • Javascript/Greasemonkey: search for something then set result as a value

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'm a bit of a n00b when it comes to JS (I'm not the greatest programmer) so please be gentle - specially if my questions been asked already somewhere and I'm too stupid to find the right answer. Self deprecation out of the way, let's get to the question. Problem There is a site me and a large group of friends frequently use which doesn't display all the information we may like to know - in this case an airline bookings site and the class of travel. While the information is buried in the code of the page, it isn't displayed anywhere to the user. Using a Greasemonkey script, I'd like to liberate this piece of information and display it in a suitable format. Here's the psuedocode of what I'm looking to do. Search dom for specified element define variables Find a string of text If found Set result to a variable Write contents to page at a specific location (before a specified div) If not found Do nothing I think I've achieved most of it so far, except for the key bits of: Searching for the string: The page needs to search for the following piece of text in the page HEAD: mileageRequest += "&CLASSES=S,S-S,S-S"; The Content I need to extract and store is between the second equals (=) sign and the last comma ("). The contents of this area can be any letter between A-Z. I'm not fussed about splitting it up into an array so I could use the elements individually at this stage. Writing the result to a location: Taking that found piece of text and writing it to another location. Code so far This is what I've come up so far, with bits missing highlighted. buttons = document.getElementById('buttons'); ''Search goes here var flightClasses = document.createElement("div"); flightClasses.innerHTML = '<div id="flightClasses"> ' + '<h2>Travel classes</h2>' + 'For the above segments, your flight classes are as follows:' + 'write result here' + '</div>'; main.parentNode.insertBefore(flightClasses, buttons); If anyone could help me, or point me in the right direction to finish this off I'd appreciate it.

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  • How to call SQL Function with multiple parameters from C# web page

    - by Marshall
    I have an MS SQL function that is called with the following syntax: SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = 7 AND LocationName = ''Default'' ', 10) The first parameter passes a specific WHERE clause that is used by the function for one of the internal queries. When I call this function in the front-end C# page, I need to send parameter values for the individual fields inside of the WHERE clause (in this example, both the ClientID & LocationName fields) The current C# code looks like this: String SQLText = "SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName ',10)"; SqlCommand Cmd = new SqlCommand(SQLText, SqlConnection); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ClientID", SqlDbType.Int).Value = 7; // Insert real ClientID Cmd.Parameters.Add("@LocationName", SqlDbType.NVarChar(20)).Value = "Default"; // Real code uses Location Name from user input SqlDataReader reader = Cmd.ExecuteReader(); When I do this, I get the following code from SQL profiler: exec sp_executesql N'SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationID nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' When this executes, SQL throws an error that it cannot parse past the first mention of @ClientID stating that the Scalar Variable @ClientID must be defined. If I modify the code to declare the variables first (see below), then I receive an error at the second mention of @ClientID that the variable already exists. exec sp_executesql N'DECLARE @ClientID int; DECLARE @LocationName nvarchar(20); SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationName nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' I know that this method of adding parameters and calling SQL code from C# works well when I am selecting data from tables, but I am not sure how to embed parameters inside of the ' quote marks for the embedded WHERE clause being passed to the function. Any ideas?

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  • jquery ajax using 'addresses' to update url for bookmarking

    - by Jay
    $("document").ready(function(){ contM = $('#main-content'); contS = $('#second-content'); $(contM).hide(); $(contS).hide(); function loadURL(url) { console.log("loadURL: " + url); $.post(url,{post_loader: 1},{post_loader: 1}, function(data){ $(contM).html($(data)); $(contM).show(); }); } // Event handlers $.address.init(function(event) { console.log("init: " + $('[rel=address:' + event.value + ']').attr('href')); }).change(function(event) { $.post($('[rel=address:' + event.value + ']').attr('href'), {post_loader: 1}, function(data){ $(contM).html($(data)); $(contM).show(); }); console.log("change"); }) $('.update-main a').click(function(){ loadURL($(this).attr('href')); }); }); I'm using this code to make calls to a server to update the main content of a web page. Everything works fine in Google Chrome, but fails to execute properly in Firefox. The strange thing is that when I have the console open to monitor server communication, the application works fine, only when it is closed do problems occur : the script starts to communicate with the server, but before it receives the data the browser jumps to the source url. any ideas?

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  • Usinng svnadmin dump to revert the latest revision committed

    - by Wux
    What I need is that the latest (mistake) revision being reverted and that the repository does not store it in anyway. That is, I'm trying to erase the latest revision out of existence, NOT trying to fix things by coming back to the latest-1 revision. In other words, I want to avoid the repository growing in size. Suppose head revision is 100. I knew that the suggested answer is that svnadmin dump -r0:80 old-repo | svnadmin load --force-uuid new-repo. What I'm confusing myself about is why not svnadmin dump -r81:100 old-repo Why the first and not the second solution? I suppose svnadmin dump will erase the repository completely? And keeping only revision 0 - 80 in a dump file? Is my understanding of "taking a part out of the repository into a dump file" about svnadmin dump completely wrong? (That is revision 81 - 100 is still there) Sincere apologies if this has been asked. I did spend some time searching though no specific things about this were found. A topic link in case I miss it would be greatly appreciated.

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  • htaccess redirect http to https on a magento site

    - by joesalvator
    I have a magento site and i need to have it redirect to https, i have the cert installed but i am not sure how to mod the htaccess file? here is a copy of the root htaccess file thanks # uncomment these lines for CGI mode make sure to specify the correct cgi php binary file name it might be /cgi-bin/php-cgi Action php5-cgi /cgi-bin/php5-cgi AddHandler php5-cgi .php # GoDaddy specific options Options -MultiViews you might also need to add this line to php.ini cgi.fix_pathinfo = 1 if it still doesn't work, rename php.ini to php5.ini # this line is specific for 1and1 hosting #AddType x-mapp-php5 .php #AddHandler x-mapp-php5 .php # default index file DirectoryIndex index.php # adjust memory limit php_value memory_limit 64M php_value memory_limit 128M php_value max_execution_time 18000 # disable magic quotes for php request vars php_flag magic_quotes_gpc off # disable automatic session start before autoload was initialized php_flag session.auto_start off # enable resulting html compression #php_flag zlib.output_compression on # disable user agent verification to not break multiple image upload php_flag suhosin.session.cryptua off # turn off compatibility with PHP4 when dealing with objects php_flag zend.ze1_compatibility_mode Off # disable POST processing to not break multiple image upload SecFilterEngine Off SecFilterScanPOST Off # # Insert filter on all content ###SetOutputFilter DEFLATE # Insert filter on selected content types only #AddOutputFilterByType DEFLATE text/html text/plain text/xml text/css text/javascript # Netscape 4.x has some problems... #BrowserMatch ^Mozilla/4 gzip-only-text/html # Netscape 4.06-4.08 have some more problems #BrowserMatch ^Mozilla/4\.0[678] no-gzip # MSIE masquerades as Netscape, but it is fine #BrowserMatch \bMSIE !no-gzip !gzip-only-text/html # Don't compress images #SetEnvIfNoCase Request_URI \.(?:gif|jpe?g|png)$ no-gzip dont-vary # Make sure proxies don't deliver the wrong content #Header append Vary User-Agent env=!dont-vary # make HTTPS env vars available for CGI mode SSLOptions StdEnvVars # enable rewrites Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on # you can put here your magento root folder path relative to web root #RewriteBase /magento/ # workaround for HTTP authorization in CGI environment RewriteRule .* - [E=HTTP_AUTHORIZATION:%{HTTP:Authorization}] # always send 404 on missing files in these folders RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/(media|skin|js)/ # never rewrite for existing files, directories and links RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l # rewrite everything else to index.php RewriteRule .* index.php [L] # Prevent character encoding issues from server overrides If you still have problems, use the second line instead AddDefaultCharset Off #AddDefaultCharset UTF-8 # s ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" # By default allow all access Order allow,deny Allow from all

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  • Feature element repeatedly added with every feature activation/deactivation

    - by ccomet
    This is a very minor behavior when compared with the entire scope, but it is one that I'd like to put a stop to. I have created a very, very simple SharePoint Feature. It has two elements in its manifest: an aspx webpart page, and an elements xml. I'll paraphrase my elements xml, which just adds a module, below. <Elements xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/"> <Module Name="Pass" Url="" Path=""> <File Url="pasq.aspx" NavBarHome="True" Type="Ghostable"> <AllUsersWebPart WebPartZoneID="Left" WebPartOrder="0"> <![CDATA[ WARGH THIS PART DOESN'T MATTER FOR THIS QUESTION! ]]> </AllUsersWebPart> </File> </Module> </Elements> Now, on the first time I deploy and activate this feature, it works properly. But if I have to deactivate and then reactivate the feature in order to fix some properties in the webpart, then I find myself with a second webpart on the page. Naturally, each similar cycle will just add more and more. I understand that a new webpart must be created in order to employ the changes I just made, but why is the old webpart still on the page? Can I make this older webpart go away automatically as part of the feature activation/deactivation process without needing to employ a Receiver class?

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  • Cannot rollback ransaction with Entity Framework

    - by Luca
    I have to do queries on uncommitted changes and I tried to use transactions, but I found that it do not work if there are exceptions. I made a simple example to reproduce the problem. I have a database with only one table called "Tabella" and the table has two fields: "ID" is a autogenerated integer, and "Valore" is an integer with a Unique constraint. Then I try to run this code: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { Db1Container db1 = new Db1Container(); try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); //Unique constraint is violated here and an exception is thrown } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 2 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } //scope.Complete(); //NEVER called } //here everything should be rolled back Now if I look into the database it should contain no records because the transaction should rollback, instead I find two records!!!! One with Valore=1 and one with Valore=2. I am missing something? It looks like the second call to SaveChanges method rollback its own changes and "deletes" the transaction, then the third call to SaveChanges commits the changes of the first and the third insert (at this point it is like the transaction not exists). I also tried to use SaveChanges(false) method (even without calling AcceptAllChanges method), but with no success: I have the same behaviour. I do not want the transaction to be rolled back automatically by SaveChanges, because I want to correct the errors (for example by user interaction in the catch statement) and make a retry. Can someone help me with this? It seems like a "bug", and it is giving me a really big headache...

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  • SSL Slow in IE 8.0.7600.16385IC

    - by discovery.jerrya
    I'm having a performance problem on my company's web site using a specific version of IE 8 to load a page using https. Here's what I know. Server: Virtual machine running on VMWare ESX Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP 2 Tomcat 6.0.16 Client: Windows XP and Window 7 Internet Explorer 8.0.7600.16385IC Page loads/refreshes in under 1 second using HTTP. Page loads/refreshes in 15-16 seconds in HTTPS using this version of IE. Problem reproduced on multiple client machines with same IE version. Problem reproduced on multiple client machines with different Windows versions (XP and 7). No performance problem using Chrome, Firefox, Opera, or Safari from same machine. No performance problem using other versions of IE 8 on other machines. Slow load causes virtually no CPU, memory, or I/O spike on server or client machine. No performance problem on other sites using HTTPS on same client machine. The pages in question use JavaScript and innerHTML to replace the contents of div elements to create a collapsible menu, and an iframe to display some content. A couple of the div elements contain images. If I remove the iframe and the JavaScript, the performance issues go away. However, rewriting the entire site to make these changes would be very time consuming. We're in the process of replacing the whole site, but it may be 2-3 months before we do so and we really cannot live with this slowdown that long. I've already looked at several IE tuning options, such as disabling add ons, running IE-rereg, and resetting IE, with no luck. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Binding from View-Model to View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight? 2 sources - 1 target..

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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  • How to speed up WPF programs?

    - by Sam
    I love programming with and for Windows Presentation Framework. Mostly I write browser-like apps using WPF and XAML. But what really annoys me is the slowness of WPF. A simple page with only a few controls loads fast enough, but as soon as a page is a teeny weeny bit more complex, like containing a lot of data entry fields, one or two tab controls, and stuff, it gets painful. Loading of such a page can take more than one second. Seconds, indeed, especially on not so fast computers (read: the customers computers) it can take ages. Same with changing values on the page. Everything about the WPF UI is somehow sluggy. This is so mean! They give me this beautiful framework, but make it so excruciatingly slow so I'll have to apologize to our customers all the time! My Question: How do you speed up WPF? How do you profile bottlenecks? How do you deal with the slowness? Since this seems to be an universal problem with WPF, I'm looking for general advice, useful for many situations and problems. Some other related questions: What tools do you use for WPF development Tools to develop WPF or Silverlight applications

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  • Incorporating the Windows 7 onscreen keyboard into a WPF app

    - by mmr
    Windows 7 has a really nice onscreen keyboard program/control for touchscreens. I have a touchscreen app that was originally written for, and will be deployed on, XP. Is it possible to incorporate this keyboard directly into my app, rather than me using a custom control? I can find no programmatic information about it, so any links would be very helpful. Specifically, I'd need: To be able to use the keyboard on an XP machine that will have .NET 3.5 sp1 installed on it. To be able to hide the native keyboard on Windows 7, because I've already incorporated the touchscreen keyboard in my UI and so I don't need another one cluttering up the UI. This native keyboard has two attractive aspects to it. First off, it's automatically localized to the customer's language (though the rest of the app will need modification), and second off, it doesn't seem to suffer from 'touch lag' as the OS tries to figure out whether or not I'm doing a gesture, because I'm clearly typing on a keyboard. The app is WPF based, which should mean easy integration with Windows 7 based controls. EDIT: I'd really like the XP thing, but it's not a requirement. The ability to use the keyboard in Win7, though, seems like it should be possible and even the right way to do it.

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  • iPhone crashing when presenting modal view controller

    - by Michael Waterfall
    Hi there, I'm trying to display a modal view straight after another view has been presented modally (the second is a loading view that appears). - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load LoadViewController *loader = [[LoadViewController alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController: loader animated:NO]; [loader release]; } But when I do this I get a "Program received signal: "EXC_BAD_ACCESS"." error. The stack trace is: 0 0x30b43234 in -[UIWindowController transitionViewDidComplete:fromView:toView:] 1 0x3095828e in -[UITransitionView notifyDidCompleteTransition:] 2 0x3091af0d in -[UIViewAnimationState sendDelegateAnimationDidStop:finished:] 3 0x3091ad7c in -[UIViewAnimationState animationDidStop:finished:] 4 0x0051e331 in run_animation_callbacks 5 0x0051e109 in CA::timer_callback 6 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific 7 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode 8 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal 9 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun 10 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain 11 0x00002154 in main at main.m:14 Any ideas? I'm totally stumped! The loading view is empty so there's definitely nothing going on in there that's causing the error. Is it something to do with launching 2 views modally in the same event loop or something? Thanks, Mike Edit: Very strange... I have modified it slightly so that the loading view is shown after a tiny delay, and this works fine! So it appears to be something within the same event loop! - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load [self performSelector:@selector(doit) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.1]; } - (void)doit { [self presentModalViewController:loader animated:YES]; }

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  • Editing a UITextField inside a UITableViewCell fails

    - by Stephen Darlington
    In my application I have a UITextField inside a UITableViewCell. If I click inside the text field and add some text I find that if try to move the insertion point it works the first time but fails on subsequent attempts. I am completely unable to move the selection; no "magnifying glass" appears. Even more curious, this "setting" seems to be permanent until I restart the application. And it affects all UITextFields on that screen and not just the one that I originally tried to edit. If you want to see it yourself, try the "UICatalog" sample that comes with the iPhone SDK. Click "text fields" and then "edit" and play around with the text boxes. I've done a lot of digging on this but it's pretty hard to Google for! The best references I've found are on Apple's support board and MacRumors formum (both reference a solution that apparently used to work on iPhone 2.0 but does work not with contemporary versions -- I did try). My feeling that is that this is a bug in the OS, but I thought I'd throw this out to the SO crowd for a second opinion and to see if there are any workarounds. Any ideas? Following benzado's suggestion, I tried building my application using the 2.0, 2.1 and 2.2 SDKs. I got the same behaviour in all versions. (Actually, something related but not the same broke in 2.2 but that's probably another question!)

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  • InvalidCastException for two Objects of the same type

    - by LLEA
    hi, I have this weird problem that I cannot handle myself. A class in the model of my mvp-project designed as singleton causes an InvalidCastException. The source of error is found in this code line where the deserialised object is assigned to the instance variable of the class: engineObject = (ENGINE)xSerializer.Deserialize(str); It occurs whenever I try to add one of my UserControls to a Form or to a different UC. All of my UCs have a special presenter that access the above mentioned instance variable of the singleton class. This is what I get when trying to add a UC somewhere: 'System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'MVP.Model.EngineData' threw an exception. ---- System.InvalidCastException: [A]Engine cannot be cast to [B]Engine. Type A originates from 'MVP.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location '[...]\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies\uankw1hh01\MVP.Model.dll'. Type B originates from 'MVP.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location '[...]\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies\u_hge2de01\MVP.Model.dll'... So I somehow have two assemblies and they are not accessed from my project folder, but from a VS temp folder? I googled a lot and only found this: IronPython Exception: [A]Person cannot be cast to [B]Person. There is a solution offered, but first it concerns IronPhyton and second I don't know where to use it within my project? It would be just great, if u could help me out here :-) thx

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  • Keyboard Animation Issues When Calling becomeFirstResponder within a Modal View Controller

    - by LucasTizma
    I've been having some issues with calling -becomeFirstResponder on a UITextField contained with a view controller that is presented modally. I call this method in the modal view controller's -viewDidLoad method so that the keyboard is immediately displayed. What I expected is for both the keyboard and the modal view controller to animate from up the bottom of the screen at the same time. However, what I'm observing is the following: There is a ~0.2 second UI lag between clicking the button that calls the -presentModalViewController:animated: method on the parent view controller and when the child view controller begins to animate modally. The keyboard is immediately presented with absolutely no animation about half-way through the modal view controller's animation. Once the modal view controller's animation is complete, everything else seems to operate smoothly. Dismissing the modal view controller results in it being smoothly animated off screen (along with the keyboard, coincidentally). It's as if the keyboard's animation and the modal view controller's animation are both competing for some lower-level Core Animation resource at the same time, but I don't see why this should be happening. What further seems to corroborate this hunch is if I don't ask the UITextField to become the first responder (i.e., if I don't ask the keyboard to present itself), then there is absolutely no UI lag, and the modal view controller animates instantly. Interestingly, if I do something like [self.textField performSelector:@selector(becomeFirstResponder) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.0001]; then the animation of the keyboard happens nearly at the same time as the modal view controller's animation -- it's extremely difficult to tell that they aren't both being animated at the exact same time. Furthermore, there's no more UI lag. Has anyone experienced anything similar to this?

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  • Stanford iPhone dev Paparazzi 1 setup help

    - by cksubs
    Hi, I'm having trouble using a tab bar control. Basically, when I build and run I'm just getting the blank white default "Window" screen. I was following this guide: http://www.iphoneosdevcafe.com/2010/03/assignment-4-part-1/#comment-36 Drag a Tab Bar Controller from the Library to MainWindow.xib. Control drag from the App Delegate to the Tab Bar Controller. Drag a Navigation Controller from the Library to MainWindow.xib. Control drag from the App Delegate to the Navigation Controller. Drag a second Navigation Controller from the Library to MainWindow.xib. Control drag from the App Delegate to the Navigation Controller. This completes all the connections between the App Delegate and the tab bar and two navigation controllers. By using IB to set up the tab bar and navigation controllers in this way, you need not allocate and init the controllers in AppDelegate.m. When you build and run this, you will see the tab bar controller and two navigation controllers. Is there a step there that he missed? How do I hook the Tab Bar Controller up to the Window? EDIT: Do I need to do something like this? mainTabBar = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [window addSubview:mainTabBar.view]; That's still not working, but I feel like I'm on the right track? Why can't this all be done from Interface Builder?

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  • malloc: error checking and freeing memory

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I'm using malloc to make an error check of whether memory can be allocated or not for the particular array z1. ARRAY_SIZE is a predefined with a numerical value. I use casting as I've read it's safe to do so. long double *z1 = (long double *)malloc(sizeof (long double) * ARRAY_SIZE); if(z1 == NULL){ printf("Out of memory\n"); exit(-1); } The above is just a snippet of my code, but when I add the error checking part (contained in the if statement above), I get a lot of compile time errors with visual studio 2008. It is this error checking part that's generating all the errors. What am I doing wrong? On a related issue with malloc, I understand that the memory needs to be deallocated/freed after the variable/array z1 has been used. For the array z1, I use: free(z1); z1 = NULL; Is the second line z1 = NULL necessary? Thanks a lot...

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  • Multiple asynchronous method calls to method while in a loop

    - by ranabra
    I have spent a whole day trying various ways using 'AddOnPreRenderCompleteAsync' and 'RegisterAsyncTask' but no success so far. I succeeded making the call to the DB asynchronous using 'BeginExecuteReader' and 'EndExecuteReader' but that is missing the point. The asynch handling should not be the call to the DB which in my case is fast, it should be afterwards, during the 'while' loop, while calling an external web-service. I think the simplified pseudo code will explain best: (Note: the connection string is using 'MultipleActiveResultSets') "Select ID, UserName from MyTable" 'Open connection to DB ExecuteReader(); if (DR.HasRows) {     while (DR.Read())     {         'Call external web-service         'and get current Temperature of each UserName - DR["UserName"].ToString()         'Update my local DB         Update MyTable set Temperature = ValueFromWebService where UserName =                                       DR["UserName"]         CmdUpdate.ExecuteNonQuery();     }     'Close connection etc } Accessing the DB is fast. Getting the returned result from the external web-service is slow and that at least should be handled Asynchnously. If each call to the web service takes just 1 second, assuming I have only 100 users it will take minimum 100 seconds for the DB update to complete, which obviously is not an option. There eventually should be thousands of users (currently only 2). Currently everything works, just very synchnously :) Thoughts to myself: Maybe my way of approaching this is wrong? Maybe the entire process should be called Asynchnously Many thanx

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  • jQuery AJAX slow in Firefox, fast in IE

    - by Brandon Montgomery
    I'm using jQuery to post to an ASP .NET Web Service to implement a custom auto-complete function. The code works great, except it's slow in FireFox (can't get it to go faster than 1 second). IE is blazing fast - works great. I watch the post in Firefox using Firebug. Here's the service code: <ScriptService(), _ WebService(Namespace:="http://tempuri.org/"), _ WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo:=WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1), _ ToolboxItem(False)> _ Public Class TestWebSvc Inherits System.Web.Services.WebService <WebMethod(), _ ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat:=Script.Services.ResponseFormat.Json, UseHttpGet:=True)> _ Public Function GetAccounts(ByVal q As String) As Object 'Code taken out for simplicity Return result End Function End Class And the jQuery ajax call: $.ajax({ beforeSend: function (req) { req.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/json"); }, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", type: "GET", url: "http://localhost/Suggest/TestWebSvc.asmx/GetAccounts", data: "q='" + element.val() + "'", dataType: "json", success: testWebSvcSuccess }); As you can see, I've tried to use the HTTP GET verb instead in hopes that that would make the call faster. As it does not, I'll probably switch it back to using POST if I can. Right now I'm just focused on why it's super fast in IE and super slow in Firefox. Versions: jQuery 1.3.2; Firefox 3.0.11; IE 8.0.6001.18783 (64-bit) Thank you for any insight you can provide.

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  • Storing info in a PostgreSQl database issue

    - by MrEnder
    Ok I am making a registry for my website. First page asks for some personal info if($error==false) { $query = pg_query("INSERT INTO chatterlogins(firstName, lastName, gender, password, ageMonth, ageDay, ageYear, email, createDate) VALUES('$firstNameSignup', '$lastNameSignup', '$genderSignup', md5('$passwordSignup'), $monthSignup, $daySignup, $yearSignup, '$emailSignup', now());"); $query = pg_query("INSERT INTO chatterprofileinfo(email, lastLogin) VALUES('$emailSignup', now());"); $userNameSet = $emailSignup; $_SESSION['$userNameSet'] = $userNameSet; header('Location: signup_step2.php'.$rdruri); } The first query works. The second query works but doesn't save the email... the session doesn't work but the header works and sends me to the next page I get no errors even if I comment out header next page @session_start(); $conn = pg_connect("host=localhost dbname=brittains_db user=brittains password=XXXX" ); $signinCheck = false; $checkForm = ""; if(isset($_SESSION['$userName'])) { $userName = $_SESSION['$userName']; $signinCheck = true; $query = pg_query("UPDATE chatterprofileinfo SET lastLogin='now()' WHERE email='$userName'"); } if(isset($_SESSION['$userNameSet'])) { $userName = $_SESSION['$userNameSet']; $signinCheck = true; $query = pg_query("UPDATE chatterprofileinfo SET lastLogin='now()' WHERE email='$userName'"); } This is the top starting the session depending on if your logged in or not. then if I enter in the info here and put it through this if($error==false) { $query = pg_query("UPDATE chatterprofileinfo SET aboutSelf='$aboutSelf', hobbies='$hobbies', music='$music', tv='$tv', sports='$sports', lastLogin='now()' WHERE email='$userName'") or exit(pg_last_error()); //header('Location: signup_step3.php'.$rdruri); } nothing shows up for on my database from this. I have no idea where I went wrong the website is http://opentech.durhamcollege.ca/~intn2201/brittains/chatter/

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  • CALayer won't display

    - by Paul from Boston
    I'm trying to learn how to use CALayers for a project and am having trouble getting sublayers to display. I created a vanilla View-based iPhone app in XCode for these tests. The only real code is in the ViewController which sets up the layers and their delegates. There is a delegate, DelegateMainView, for the viewController's view layer and a second different one, DelegateStripeLayer, for an additional layer. The ViewController code is all in awakeFromNib, - (void)awakeFromNib { DelegateMainView *oknDelegate = [[DelegateMainView alloc] init]; self.view.layer.delegate = oknDelegate; CALayer *newLayer = [CALayer layer]; DelegateStripeLayer *sldDelegate = [[DelegateStripeLayer alloc] init]; newLayer.delegate = sldDelegate; [self.view.layer addSublayer:newLayer]; [newLayer setNeedsDisplay]; [self.view.layer setNeedsDisplay]; } The two different delegates are simply wrappers for the CALayer delegate method, drawLayer:inContext:, i.e., - (void)drawLayer:(CALayer *)layer inContext:(CGContextRef)context { CGRect bounds = CGContextGetClipBoundingBox(context); ... do some stuff here ... CGContextStrokePath(context); } each a bit different. The layer, view.layer, is drawn properly but newLayer is never drawn. If I put breakpoints in the two delegates, the program stops in DelegateMainView but never reaches DelegateStripeLayer. What am I missing here? Thanks.

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  • How to prove writing specifications beats code cowboys?

    - by Andrew Grant
    So I have a problem. Or rather my friend has a problem, since I would never write about my company on an internet forum. At my friend's company specification writing is, shall we say, a little underused. There's a deeply ingrained culture of writing code first and asking questions later, whether it's for a library routine or a new tool to inflict on their long suffering designers. This of course leads to situations where functionality is partially correct, incorrect, or just completely missing ("oh, just save before trying anything you may want to undo"). This usually results in a loss of productivity for those poor designers, or beta periods where bug-fixing is largely spent implementing things correctly. My friend's found his suggestions of writing (and testing against) specifications to be generally well received. Most of his colleagues have embraced the wonderful feeling of discovering false-assumptions on paper, instead of at 11pm on a Sunday in the middle of beta. Viva La Revolution! However there are a few who poo-poo anything that stands between their task and a keyboard. They laugh at the thought of actually designing anything, and write code with merry abandon. Mostly these are senior, long employed developers, reluctant to "waste time". The problem is that this second group of heretics invariably produce things (or at least something) quicker than the first. Subsequently this becomes justification along the lines of "It's pointless to write specifications for something as simple as an image resizer! Oh and those bugs where width!=height or the image uses RLE just need a few tweaks". And now the question :) Other than saying "told you so" at the end of a project, what are some good short-term ways to demonstrate how the practice of writing functional or technical specifications leads to better software in the long run? Cheers!

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  • Legit? Two foreign keys referencing the same primary key.

    - by Ryan
    Hi All, I'm a web developer and have recently started a project with a company. Currently, I'm working with their DBA on getting the schema laid out for the site, and we've come to a disagreement regarding the design on a couple tables, and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Basically, we are working on a site that will implement a "friends" network. All users of the site will be contained in a table tblUsers with (PersonID int identity PK, etc). What I am wanting to do is to create a second table, tblNetwork, that will hold all of the relationships between users, with (NetworkID int identity PK, Owners_PersonID int FK, Friends_PersonID int FK, etc). Or conversely, remove the NetworkID, and have both the Owners_PersonID and Friends_PersonID shared as the Primary key. This is where the DBA has his problem. Saying that "he would only implement this kind of architecture in a data warehousing schema, and not for a website, and this is just another example of web developers trying to take the easy way out." Now obviously, his remark was a bit inflammatory, and that have helped motivate me to find an suitable answer, but more so, I'd just like to know how to do it right. I've been developing databases and programming for over 10 years, have worked with some top-notch minds, and have never heard this kind of argument. What the DBA is wanting to do is instead of storing both the Owners_PersonId and Friends_PersonId in the same table, is to create a third table tblFriends to store the Friends_PersonId, and have the tblNetwork have (NetworkID int identity PK, Owner_PersonID int FK, FriendsID int FK(from TBLFriends)). All that tblFriends would house would be (FriendsID int identity PK, Friends_PersonID(related back to Persons)). To me, creating the third table is just excessive in nature, and does nothing but create an alias for the Friends_PersonID, and cause me to have to add (what I view as unneeded) joins to all my queries, not to mention the extra cycles that will be necessary to perform the join on every query. Thanks for reading, appreciate comments. Ryan

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