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  • VS2010 renders controls JS awkwardly

    - by Juergen Hoffmann
    I have created a Website Project in VS2010. My Controls are not rendered correctly. The JS that is produced is not correctly formatted. Here is an example: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { objListBox.Attributes.Add("onchange", "Control_doPostBack('" + objListBox.ClientID + "','ListBox_OnClick'); return false;"); objListBox.Attributes.Add("onblur", "Control_doPostBack('" + trListbox.ClientID + "','ListBox_OnBlur'); return false;"); img.Attributes.Add("onclick", "Control_doPostBack('" + trListbox.ClientID + "','IMG_OnClick'); return false;"); } } and the responding control is rendered as: <select size="4" name="ctl00$PlaceHolder_Content$drop$objListBox" onchange="Control_doPostBack(&#39;PlaceHolder_Content_drop_objListBox&#39;,&#39;ListBox_OnClick&#39;); return false;setTimeout(&#39;__doPostBack(\&#39;ctl00$PlaceHolder_Content$drop$objListBox\&#39;,\&#39;\&#39;)&#39;, 0)" id="PlaceHolder_Content_drop_objListBox" onblur="Control_doPostBack(&#39;PlaceHolder_Content_drop_trListbox&#39;,&#39;ListBox_OnBlur&#39;); return false;" style="position:absolute;"> </select> As you can see, the ' are rendered to &#39 which screwes up the Browser. Is there a tweak to msbuild or inside the project properties? Any help is highly appreciated.

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  • How can I get the rank of rows relative to total number of rows based on a field?

    - by Arms
    I have a scores table that has two fields: user_id score I'm fetching specific rows that match a list of user_id's. How can I determine a rank for each row relative to the total number of rows, based on score? The rows in the result set are not necessarily sequential (the scores will vary widely from one row to the next). I'm not sure if this matters, but user_id is a unique field. Edit @Greelmo I'm already ordering the rows. If I fetch 15 rows, I don't want the rank to be 1-15. I need it to be the position of that row compared against the entire table by the score property. So if I have 200 rows, one row's rank may be 3 and another may be 179 (these are arbitrary #'s for example only). Edit 2 I'm having some luck with this query, but I actually want to avoid ties SELECT s.score , s.created_at , u.name , u.location , u.icon_id , u.photo , (SELECT COUNT(*) + 1 FROM scores WHERE score > s.score) AS rank FROM scores s LEFT JOIN users u ON u.uID = s.user_id ORDER BY s.score DESC , s.created_at DESC LIMIT 15 If two or more rows have the same score, I want the latest one (or earliest - I don't care) to be ranked higher. I tried modifying the subquery with AND id > s.id but that ended up giving me an unexpected result set and different ties.

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  • Can I join two tables whereby the joined table is sorted by a certain column?

    - by Ferdy
    I'm not much of a database guru so I need some help on a query I'm working on. In my photo community project I want to richly visualize tags by not only showing the tag name and counter (# of images inside them), I also want to show a thumb of the most popular image inside the tag (most karma). The table setup is as follow: Image table holds basic image metadata, important is the karma field Imagefile table holds multiple entries per image, one for each format Tag table holds tag definitions Tag_map table maps tags to images In my usual trial and error query authoring I have come this far: SELECT * FROM (SELECT tag.name, tag.id, COUNT(tag_map.tag_id) as cnt FROM tag INNER JOIN tag_map ON (tag.id = tag_map.tag_id) INNER JOIN image ON tag_map.image_id = image.id INNER JOIN imagefile on image.id = imagefile.image_id WHERE imagefile.type = 'smallthumb' GROUP BY tag.name ORDER BY cnt DESC) as T1 WHERE cnt > 0 ORDER BY cnt DESC [column clause of inner query snipped for the sake of simplicity] This query gives me somewhat what I need. The outer query makes sure that only tags are returned for which there is at least 1 image. The inner query returns the tag details, such as its name, count (# of images) and the thumb. In addition, I can sort the inner query as I want (by most images, alphabetically, most recent, etc) So far so good. The problem however is that this query does not match the most popular image (most karma) of the tag, it seems to always take the most recent one in the tag. How can I make sure that the most popular image is matched with the tag?

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  • How to populate a listview in ASP.NET 3.5 through a dataset?

    - by EasyDot
    Is it possible to populate a listview with a dataset? I have a function that returns a dataset. Why im asking this is because my SQL is quite complicated and i can't convert it to a SQLDataSource... Public Function getMessages() As DataSet Dim dSet As DataSet = New DataSet Dim da As SqlDataAdapter Dim cmd As SqlCommand Dim SQL As StringBuilder Dim connStr As StringBuilder = New StringBuilder("") connStr.AppendFormat("server={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERserver").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("database={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERdb").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("uid={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERuid").ToString()) connStr.AppendFormat("pwd={0};", ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("USERpwd").ToString()) Dim conn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(connStr.ToString()) Try SQL = New StringBuilder cmd = New SqlCommand SQL.Append("SELECT m.MESSAGE_ID, m.SYSTEM_ID, m.DATE_CREATED, m.EXPIRE_DATE, ISNULL(s.SYSTEM_DESC,'ALL SYSTEMS') AS SYSTEM_DESC, m.MESSAGE ") SQL.Append("FROM MESSAGE m ") SQL.Append("LEFT OUTER JOIN [SYSTEM] s ") SQL.Append("ON m.SYSTEM_ID = s.SYSTEM_ID ") SQL.AppendFormat("WHERE m.SYSTEM_ID IN ({0}) ", sSystems) SQL.Append("OR m.SYSTEM_ID is NULL ") SQL.Append("ORDER BY m.DATE_CREATED DESC; ") SQL.Append("SELECT mm.MESSAGE_ID, mm.MODEL_ID, m.MODEL_DESC ") SQL.Append("FROM MESSAGE_MODEL mm ") SQL.Append("JOIN MODEL m ") SQL.Append(" ON m.MODEL_ID = mm.MODEL_ID ") cmd.CommandText = SQL.ToString cmd.Connection = conn da = New SqlDataAdapter(cmd) da.Fill(dSet) dSet.Tables(0).TableName = "BASE" dSet.Tables(1).TableName = "MODEL" Return dSet Catch ev As Exception cLog.EventLog.logError(ev, cmd) Finally 'conn.Close() End Try End Function

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  • Caching DNS server (bind9.2) CPU usage is so so so high

    - by Gk.
    I have a caching-only dns server which get ~3k queries per second. Here is specs: Xeon dual-core 2,8GHz 4GB of RAM Centos 5x (kernel 2.6.18-164.15.1.el5PAE) bind 9.4.2 rndc status: recursive clients: 666/4900/5000 About 300 new queries (not in cache) per second. Bind always uses 100% on one core on single-thread config. After I recompiled it to multi-thread, it uses nearly 200% on two core :( No iowait, only sys and user. I searched around but didn't see any info about how bind use CPU. Why does it become bottleneck? One more thing, here is RAM usage: cat /proc/meminfo MemTotal: 4147876 kB MemFree: 1863972 kB Buffers: 143632 kB Cached: 372792 kB SwapCached: 0 kB Active: 1916804 kB Inactive: 276056 kB I've set max-cache-size to 0 to make sure bind can use as much RAM as it want, but it always stop at ~2GB. Since every second we got not cached queries so theoretically RAM must be exhausted but it wasn't. Do you have any idea? TIA, -Gk

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  • Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS

    - by Dezigo
    I wrote a trigger. USE [TEST] GO /****** Object: Trigger [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] Script Date: 05/26/2010 08:54:03 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] ON [dbo].[BCT_CNTR_EVENTS] FOR INSERT AS BEGIN DECLARE @MOVE_TIME varchar(14); DECLARE @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED varchar(20); DECLARE @RELEASE_NOTE varchar(32); DECLARE @CMR_NUMBER varchar(15); DECLARE @MOVE_TYPE varchar(2); SELECT @MOVE_TIME = inserted.move_time ,@MOVE_TYPE = inserted.move_type ,@RELEASE_NOTE = inserted.release_note ,@CMR_NUMBER = inserted.cmr_number FROM inserted IF(@MOVE_TYPE = 'YC') BEGIN SET @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED = SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,1,4) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,5,2) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,7,2) + ' 00:00:00' --UPDATE OpenQuery(POSTGRESQL_SERV,'SELECT visit_cmr,visit_timestamp,visit_pin FROM VISIT') -- SET visit_cmr = @RELEASE_NOTE -- WHERE visit_timestamp = @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED -- AND visit_pin = right(@CMR_NUMBER,5) -- AND visit_cmr IS NULL END SET NOCOUNT ON; END When I have inserted a row,I have get an error **Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS and ANSI_WARNINGS options to be set for the connection. This ensures consistent query semantics. Enable these options and then reissue your query.** Then I ofcourse SET SET ANSI_WARNINGS is ON but it`s not work for me. (trigger fo linked server postgresql) I have restarted a server. not work again.

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  • What are current options to scan or convert a hand written note to a file on my laptop?

    - by goldenmean
    I wonder how come there are not many options when it comes to scan or convert a device which could be connected to a laptop/desktop, which could - 1] Allow me to write with a digital pen on some special surface, which is connected to my laptop and thus converts my hand written notes to a pdf/jpg/word. (Microsoft's failed attempt at windows based tablet PC in past comes to mind, but not anymore) Any such solution I can use with my laptop? 2] A document scanning device, apart from a flat bed scanner, integrated these days into multi function printers; anything that is portable enough to connect to my laptop?

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  • Calc_Anniversary Function with a Loop

    - by Rachel Ann Arndt
    Name: Calc_Anniversary Input: Pay_Date, Hire_Date, Termination_Date Output: "Y" if is the anniversary of the employee's Hire_Date, "N" if it is not, and "T" if he has been terminated before his anniversary. Description: Create local variables to hold the month and day of the employee's Date_of_Hire, Termination_Date, and of the processing date using the TO_CHAR function. First check to see if he was terminated before his anniversary. The anniversary could be on any day during the pay period, so there will be a loop to check all 14 days in the pay period to see if one was his anniversary. CREATE OR replace FUNCTION Calc_anniversary( incoming_anniversary_date IN VARCHAR2) RETURN BOOLEAN IS hiredate VARCHAR2(20); terminationdate VARCHAR(20); employeeid VARCHAR2(38); paydate NUMBER := 0; BEGIN SELECT Count(arndt_raw_time_sheet_data.pay_date) INTO paydate FROM arndt_raw_time_sheet_data; WHILE paydate <= 14 LOOP SELECT To_char(employee_id, '999'), To_char(hire_date, 'DD-MON'), To_char(termination_date, 'DD-MON') INTO employeeid, hiredate, terminationdate FROM employees, time_sheet WHERE employees.employee_id = time_sheet.employee_id AND paydate = pay_date; IF terminationdate > hiredate THEN RETURN 'T'; ELSE IF To_char(SYSDATE, 'DD-MON') = To_char(hiredate, 'DD-MON')THEN RETURN 'Y'; ELSE RETURN 'N'; END IF; END IF; paydate := paydate + 1; END LOOP; END; I need help with the loop..

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  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

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  • How can you pre-define a variable that will contain an anonymous type?

    - by HitLikeAHammer
    In the simplified example below I want to define result before it is assinged. The linq queries below return lists of anonymous types. result will come out of the linq queries as an IEnumerable<'a but I can't define it that way at the top of the method. Is what I am trying to do possible (in .NET 4)? bool large = true; var result = new IEnumerable(); //This is wrong List<int> numbers = new int[]{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}.ToList<int>(); if (large) { result = from n in numbers where n > 5 select new { value = n }; } else { result = from n in numbers where n < 5 select new { value = n }; } foreach (var num in result) { Console.WriteLine(num.value); } EDIT: To be clear I know that I do not need anonymous types in the example above. It is just to illustrate my question with a small, simple example.

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  • sql statement supposed to have 2 distinct rows, but only 1 is returned

    - by jello
    I have an sql statement that is supposed to return 2 rows. the first with psychological_id = 1, and the second, psychological_id = 2. here is the sql statement select * from psychological where patient_id = 12 and symptom = 'delire'; But with this code, with which I populate an array list with what is supposed to be 2 different rows, two rows exist, but with the same values: the second row. OneSymptomClass oneSymp = new OneSymptomClass(); ArrayList oneSympAll = new ArrayList(); string connStrArrayList = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; string queryStrArrayList = "select * from psychological where patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id + " and symptom = '" + SymptomComboBoxes[tag].SelectedItem + "';"; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStrArrayList)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStrArrayList, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { oneSymp.psychological_id = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["psychological_id"]); oneSymp.patient_history_date_psy = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_psy"]; oneSymp.strength = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["strength"]); oneSymp.psy_start_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_start_date"]; oneSymp.psy_end_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_end_date"]; oneSympAll.Add(oneSymp); } } conn.Close(); } OneSymptomClass testSymp = oneSympAll[0] as OneSymptomClass; MessageBox.Show(testSymp.psychological_id.ToString()); the message box outputs "2", while it's supposed to output "1". anyone got an idea what's going on?

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  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

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  • rsyslog forward all except ldap

    - by Brian
    I have Centos 6 servers running openLDAP. In the rsyslog.conf, I forward the logs to my central server with this line: *.* @10.10.10.10:514 openldap seems incredibly chatty. I have 3 servers in a multi-master cluster. Those 3 servers generate twice as many logs as my other 80 servers combined. I have been unsuccessful in figuring out how to tell openLDAP to use a sensible log level. (we never specifically set the log level) Since these are my main authentication sources, I'm a bit hesitant to "play around" with them. Is there a way to tell rsyslog to forward everything EXCEPT LOCAL4?

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  • subquery in join with doctrine dql

    - by Martijn de Munnik
    I want to use DQL to create a query which looks like this in SQL: select e.* from e inner join ( select uuid, max(locale) as locale from e where locale = 'nl_NL' or locale = 'nl' group by uuid ) as e_ on e.uuid = e_.uuid and e.locale = e_.locale I tried to use QueryBuilder to generate the query and subquery. I think they do the right thing by them selves but I can't combine them in the join statement. Does anybody now if this is possible with DQL? I can't use native SQL because I want to return real objects and I don't know for which object this query is run (I only know the base class which have the uuid and locale property). $subQueryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $subQueryBuilder ->addSelect('e.uuid, max(e.locale) as locale') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->where($subQueryBuilder->expr()->in('e.locale', $localeCriteria)) ->groupBy('e.uuid'); $queryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $queryBuilder ->addSelect('e') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->join('('.$subQueryBuilder.') as', 'e_')->join ->where('e.uuid = e_.uuid') ->andWhere('e.locale = e_.locale');

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  • Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

    - by MadBoy
    When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

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  • eclipse - starting with android sdk

    - by dontHaveName
    I want start programming for android.. What I have: -Windows 7 -Eclipse Classic 4.2 -Downloaded all there required files - http://developer.android.com/sdk/installing/adding-packages.html -ADT Plugin I want install new ADT plugin.. at first I tried to download it from http://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse, I add it, but if i selected it there is only "pending.." and nothing has load..(maybe internet connection?I have selected Native connection in preferences after pending it wrotes: Unable to connect to repository http://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/content.xml org.eclipse.equinox.p2.core.ProvidesException ) Thats why I download ADT plugin. So if I select downloaded ADT plugin - content of it load - developer tools and ndk plugin so I select all and click next. It loads and writes this: "Cannot complete the install because one or more required items could not be found. Software being installed: Android Development Tools 20.0.3.v201208082019-427395 (com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.feature.group 20.0.3.v201208082019-427395) Missing requirement: Android Development Tools 20.0.3.v201208082019-427395 (com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.feature.group 20.0.3.v201208082019-427395) requires 'org.eclipse.wst.sse.core 0.0.0' but it could not be found" requires 'org.eclipse.wst.sse.core 0.0.0 this problem is shown here: http://developer.android.com/resources/faq/troubleshooting.html#installeclipsecomponents but there is solution only for version 3.3 and 3.4 (I have 4.2) anyway but I tried it- I look for updates but nothing were found I really dont know where could be problem.. Thanks for any answer. (sorry for my english) I will send 1€ to somebody who can solve my problem ;) (I think all problems all for internet connection but I cant set it..)

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  • Using the hardware keyboard to simulate button press on Android

    - by Bevor
    Hello, it is difficult to test a game with the mouse pointer on android buttons. I would like to control those buttons with the hardware keyboard. Actually I don't want to control the buttons itself but I want to control the behaviour the buttons would also do. For example I have 4 buttons in the android application with "arrow up, down, left, right". I'd like to use the arrow buttons of my hardware keyboard to control the same. How can I do that? Actually the question is, where can I set the Listener? I tried something in my activity. I set this listener to the application button: button.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_DOWN) //scroll down return true; } }); The behaviour is the following: I can't scroll down with my hardware keyboard but with the hardware keyboard I can select the android buttons (they will be highlighted when I move on any button). After I selected the button with the Listener I can't select any other button anymore but then the Listener comes into force. Now I can scroll down with the hardware keyboard arrow down button. I would like to achieve this behaviour without selecting any button. So I thought about setting the listener to the layout container or any other layout but this has no effect. Is there any other approach to achieve this?

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  • Windows undetectable after interrupted chkdsk

    - by Felthragar
    I have a computer that is running Windows XP. For some reason, the other day it wouldn't start giving me the following message: "ntoskrnl.exe is missing or corrupt" So I put the XP disc in the tray and fired up the repair console and ran the following: chkdsk /r It was on for about eight hours and it got to about 52% I believe. Then there was a power outage and the computer shut down (obviously). Today when I was booting it, it isn't even detecting there's an OS anymore. If I boot the computer with no cd in the tray it says: "Reboot and select a proper Boot device or Insert Boot Media in selected Boot device and press a key" If I run the repair console, or the xp installation program it isn't finding any OS installations. Any ideas on what to do next? Any help is appreciated. Thanks! Update: After turning boot-time diagnostics on, I got this message when booting without cd (instead of the previous one): "Couldn't open drive multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(0)partition(2)"

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  • jquery how to make insertBefore work only once, on first click?

    - by user313271
    jquery $(function(){ $('#4').click(function() { $('<input name="if4" type="text" value="other price>"').insertBefore('form textarea'); }); }); html <form> < input name="name" type="text" value="Enter your name" /><br /> < input name="contacts" type="text" value="Contact info" /><br /> < select name="services"> < option value="1">1</option> < option value="2">2</option> < option value="3">3</option> < option id="4" value="Other">4</option> < /select><br /> < textarea name="description">Description</textarea><br /> < /form> And one more question about it, when i press on option number 4 two time,there appears 2 new fields, is there any way how to fix it, that new field appear only 1 time, after first click ?

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  • Stack Overflow problem transforming with a custom xslt

    - by Flynn1179
    I've got a system that allows the user the option of providing their own XSLT to apply to some data that's been retrieved, as a means of specifying how that data should be presented. However, if the user includes code in the XSLT equivalent to: <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:element name="data"> <xsl:apply-templates select="." /> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> this causes .NET to infinitely recurse trying to process it, and produces a stack overflow error. I need to be able to trap this before it crashes the app, as the data that's been retrieved is occasionally quite time-consuming to obtain, and the data is lost when this happens. Is there any way of doing this? I know it's theoretically possible to identify any occurrences of xsl:apply-templates with "." in the select attribute, but this isn't the only way an infinite recursion could happen, I need a way of generically trapping it.

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  • Multiple page technique

    - by the Hampster
    Six years ago I wrote an large web application. It was my very first php program, and it grew, and grew. I used a lot of forms, and some very (atrocious) techniques to give an AJAX "look" to the site, and to handle multiple users with various permissions. I am looking to expand this, and sell it to other companies in the field, but I need to seriously modernize it. Currently, it loads index.php where you log in. The user can then select from various "students" or "participants" (We work with people with disabilities). From there, you can select different lesson plans or life skills that are being worked on. There are many other branches as well. At each stage, a different page is served: Sel_Paricipant.php, Sel_Program.php, etc. Are there any fundamental problems with doing it this way? If so, what are some good techniques for eliminating this, so that people only see the TLD in their address bar? Thanks in advance. --Dave

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  • Keeping dates in order when using date_select and discarding year in Rails?

    - by MikeH
    My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true To explain our problem, consider that our products are apples. Vendor X carries apples every year from September to January. Years are irrelevant here, and that's why we're using discard_year => true. However, while the specific years are irrelevant, the relative point in time from the start date to the end date is relevant. This is where our problem arises. When you use discard_year => true, Rails does set a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to 0001 in our app. Going back to our apple example, this means that the database now thinks the user has selected September 0001 to January 0001. This is a problem for us for a number of reasons. To solve this, the logic that I need to implement is the following: - If season_start month/date is before season_end month/date, then standard Rails approach is fine. - But, if season_start month/date is AFTER season_end month/date, then I need to dynamically update the database field such that the year for season_end is equal to the year for season_start + 1. My best guess is that I would create a custom method that runs as an after_save or after_update in my products model. But I'm not really sure how to do this. Ideas? Anybody ever had this issue? Thanks!

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  • RandR 1.4 Optimus Dual Monitor

    - by mathepic
    So, I have a dual monitor setup. HDMI comes in through Nvidia, main display is through Intel (I think). I want to use XMonad with the dual setup, and I want to be able to run with or without the second monitor. Is this even doable? I'm using RandR 1.4 and can get both monitors to display something at the same time (by messing with xrandr) but XMonad can never detect more than one rectangle form Xinerama. Does anyone have a working multi-monitor xinerama or twinview configuration that works with optimus/randr 1.4?

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • Return type from DAL class (Sql ce, Linq to Sql)

    - by bretddog
    Hi, Using VS2008 and Sql CE 3.5, and preferably Linq to Sql. I'm learning database, and unsure about DAL methods return types and how/where to map the data over to my business objects: I don't want direct UI binding. A business object class UserData, and a class UserDataList (Inherits List(Of UserData)), is represented in the database by the table "Users". I use SQL Compact and run SqlMetal which creates dbml/designer.vb file. This gives me a class with a TableAttribute: <Table()> _ Partial Public Class Users I'm unsure how to use this class. Should my business object know about this class, such that the DAL can return the type Users, or List(Of Users) ? So for example the "UserDataService Class" is a part of the DAL, and would have for example the functions GetAll and GetById. Will this be correct : ? Public Class UserDataService Public Function GetAll() As List(Of Users) Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As List(Of Users) = From n In ctx.Users Select n Return q End Function Public Function GetById(ByVal id As Integer) As Users Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As Users = (From n In ctx.Users Where n.UserID = id Select n).Single Return q End Function And then, would I perhaps have a method, say in the UserDataList class, like: Public Class UserDataList Inherits List(Of UserData) Public Sub LoadFromDatabase() Me.clear() Dim database as New UserDataService dim users as List(Of Users) users = database.GetAll() For each u in users dim newUser as new UserData newUser.Id = u.Id newUser.Name = u.Name Me.Add(newUser) Next End Sub End Class Is this a sensible approach? Would appreciate any suggestions/alternatives, as this is my first attempt on a database DAL. cheers!

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