Search Results

Search found 13867 results on 555 pages for 'avoid learning'.

Page 489/555 | < Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >

  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

    Read the article

  • The right approach to loading dynamic content into a UITableView in iOS

    - by OS.
    ok, I've read tons of bits and pieces on the subject of loading dynamic content (from the web) into a UITableView and the problem with calculating cell height upfront. I've tried different simple implementations but the problem persists... Assuming I need to read a JSON file from the web, parse it into 'item' objects, each with variable size image and various text labels, here is what I believe would be the right approach to avoid long hang time of the app while everything is loading: on app load read JSON file and parse into items array provide only small part of the items array to the tableview (about 10 items) - since I need to load the images associated with each item to calculate cell height - I don't want the view to go through the whole items list and load all images - this hangs the app until every image is loaded display the tableview with the available cells (assuming I load a few 'spare' ones, user can even scroll to more items) in the background using Grand Central Dispatch download images for all/some of the remaining items and then reload the tableview with the new data (repeat step 4 if item list is very long) Step 2 above is necessary since I have no way to calculate the cell height without loading the images first, and since tableview first calculates height of all cells it may take a very long time to download all images for all items. Would you say this is the right approach? am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • streaming xml pretty printer in C/C++ using expat or libxml2?

    - by Mark Zeren
    I have a library that outputs xml without whitespace all on one line. In some cases I'd like to pretty print that output. I'm looking for a BSD-ish licensed C/C++ library or sample code that will take a raw xml byte stream and pretty print it. Here's some pseudo code showing one way that I might use this functionality: void my_write(const char* buf, int len); PrettyPrinter pp(bind(&my_write)); while (...) { // ... get some more xml ... const char* buf = xmlSource.get_buf(); int len = xmlSource.get_buf_len(); int written = pp.write(buf, len); // calls my_write with pretty printed xml // ... error handling, maybe call write again, etc. ... } I'd like to avoid instantiating a DOM representation. I already have dependencies on the expat and libxml2 shared libraries, and I'd rather not add any more shared library dependencies.

    Read the article

  • Proper API Design for Version Independence?

    - by Justavian
    I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

    Read the article

  • Where can I view rountrip information in my ASP.NET application?

    - by ajax81
    Hi All, I'm playing around with storing application settings in my database, but I think I may have created a situation where superfluous roundtrips are being made. Is there an easy way to view roundtrips made to an MS Access (I know, I know) backend? I guess while I'm here, I should ask for advice on the best way to handle this project. I'm building an app that generates links based on file names (files are numbered ints, 0-5000). The files are stored on network shares, arranged by name, and the paths change frequently as files are bulk transfered to create space, etc. Example: Files 1000 - 2000 go to /path/1000s Files 2001 - 3000 go to /path/2000s Files 3001 - 4000 go to /path/3000s etc I'm sure by now you can see where I'm going with this. Ultimately, I'm trying to avoid making a roundtrip to get the paths for every single file as they are displayed in a gridview. I'm open to the notion that I've gone about this all wrong and that my idea might be rubbish. I've toyed around with the notion of just creating a flat file, but if I do that, do I still run into the problem of having that file opened and closed for every file displayed in a gridview?

    Read the article

  • C++ variable to const expression

    - by user1344784
    template <typename Real> class A{ }; template <typename Real> class B{ }; //... a few dozen more similar template classes class Computer{ public slots: void setFrom(int from){ from_ = from; } void setTo(int to){ to_ = to; } private: template <int F, int T> void compute(){ using boost::fusion::vector; using boost::fusion::at_c; vector<A<float>, B<float>, ...> v; at_c<from_>(v).operator()(at_c<to_>(v)); //error; needs to be const-expression. }; This question isn't about Qt, but there is a line of Qt code in my example. The setFrom() and setTo() are functions that are called based on user selection via the GUI widget. The root of my problem is that 'from' and 'to' are variables. In my compute member function I need to pick a type (A, B, etc.) based on the values of 'from' and 'to'. The only way I know how to do what I need to do is to use switch statements, but that's extremely tedious in my case and I would like to avoid. Is there anyway to convert the error line to a constant-expression?

    Read the article

  • Creating android app Database with big amount of data

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, The database of my application need to be filled with a lot of data, so during onCreate(), it's not only some create table sql instructions, there is a lot of inserts. The solution I chose is to store all this instructions in a sql file located in res/raw and which is loaded with Resources.openRawResource(id). It works well but I face to encoding issue, I have some accentuated caharacters in the sql file which appears bad in my application. This my code to do this : public String getFileContent(Resources resources, int rawId) throws IOException { InputStream is = resources.openRawResource(rawId); int size = is.available(); // Read the entire asset into a local byte buffer. byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; is.read(buffer); is.close(); // Convert the buffer into a string. return new String(buffer); } public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { try { // get file content String sqlCode = getFileContent(mCtx.getResources(), R.raw.db_create); // execute code for (String sqlStatements : sqlCode.split(";")) { db.execSQL(sqlStatements); } Log.v("Creating database done."); } catch (IOException e) { // Should never happen! Log.e("Error reading sql file " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } catch (SQLException e) { Log.e("Error executing sql code " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } The solution I found to avoid this is to load the sql instructions from a huge static final string instead of a file, and all accentutated characters appears well. But Isn't there a more elegant way to load sql instructions than a big static final String attribute with all sql instructions ? Thanks in advance Thomas

    Read the article

  • jquery form validation, and submit-on-change

    - by Bee
    I want to make all my settings forms across my site confirm that changes are saved, kinda like facebook does if you make changes in a form and then try to navigate away without saving. So I'm disabling the submit button on the forms only enabling if the values change. I then prompt the user to hit save before they leave the page in the case that they do have changes pending. var form = $('form.edit'); if(form.length > 0) { var orig_str = form.serialize(); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.on('change keyup', function(){ if(form.serialize() == orig_str) { setConfirmUnload(false); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); } else { setConfirmUnload(true); $(':submit',form).removeAttr('disabled') } }); $('input[type=submit]').click(function(){ setConfirmUnload(false); }); } function setConfirmUnload(on) { window.onbeforeunload = (on) ? unloadMessage : null; } function unloadMessage() { return 'If you navigate away from this page without saving your changes, they will be lost.'; } One of these forms needs some additional validation which I do using jQuery.validate library. e.g. if i wanted to ensure the user can't double submit the form on accident by double clicking on submit or somesuch (the actual validation in question is for a credit-card form and not this simple): $('form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { $(':submit', form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.submit(); } }); Unfortunately both bits are trying to bind to submit button and they're interfering with each other such that the submit button remains disabled no matter what I do and it is impossible to submit the form at all. Is there some way to chain the validations together or something? Or some other way to avoid re-writing the validation code to repeat the "did you change anything in the form" business?

    Read the article

  • Trouble deciding how to add popup menu to eclipse plugin using either action ObjectContributions or command handlers

    - by user1808408
    The issue is this: Most things I read on the web says that we should avoid actions when creating popup menus because the command framework allows for more decoupling. Example: http://wiki.eclipse.org/FAQ_What_is_the_difference_between_a_command_and_an_action%3F Fair enough. But I am having a heck of a time getting the command framework to add my menu when I right click on a .java file inside the editor, and only when I click inside the editor. I can get the menu to show (using 'with' and the activeEditor variable), but it also shows when I right click on the java file inside the package explorer, which I don't want. I suspect it's because the file is already open inside the editor. I also have a menu that gets added when I right click on the java file inside the package explorer, using IComplilationUnit. That works fine. So my problem is solved using a popup menu action for when I click inside the file. I also get access to to all the ISelection stuff there. But the coupling is to high and I lose the flexability of using handlers. I'm looking for either: Tell me I'm doing it the only way possible; or Tell me how to have my popup appear only when I right click on the java file editor. Regards

    Read the article

  • Jquery Dialog - Is there a way to open it without registering it using .dialog?

    - by Raja
    This is my problem. I have a page with multiple tabs. I load those tabs dynamically and one of those tabs is a message container (mail). Every time I click a folder link (Inbox, Sent Mail etc) I reload just that tab alone with appropriate content. I use Jquery dialog to pick contacts and I have to load contacts everytime. Since I reload the whole tab content every time JQuery Dialog registers (or creates) the whole div content. To avoid this I did this: if ($("#ui-dialog-title-divContacts").length == 0) { //if dialog data is not created then make dialog $("#divContacts").dialog({ bgiframe: true, resizable: false, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 425, modal: true, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { Cancel: function () { //basically do nothing $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'Done': function () { $("#divTo").empty().html($("#divSelectedContacts").html()); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); } I went to generated viewsource in FF and found that only one instance is being created. My problem now is it is not showing the dialog. Is there a way by which I can open this dialog without registering it. Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • MD5CryptoServiceProvider ComputeHash Issues between VS 2003 and VS 2008

    - by owensoroke
    I have a database application that generates a MD5 hash and compares the hash value to a value in our DB (SQL 2K). The original application was written in Visual Studio 2003 and a deployed version has been working for years. Recently, some new machines on the .NET framework 3.5 have been having unrelated issues with our runtime. This has forced us to port our code path from Visual Studio 2003 to Visual Studio 2008. Since that time the hash produced by the code is different than the values in the database. The original call to the function posted in code is: RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword(Text_Scrub(GenerateMD5Hash(strPSW))) I am looking for expert guidance as to whether or not the MD5 methods have changed since VS 2K3 (causing this point of failure), or where other possible problems may be originating from. I realize this may not be the best method to hash, but utimately any changes to the MD5 code would force us to change some 300 values in our DB table and would cost us a lot of time. In addition, I am trying to avoid having to redeploy all of the functioning versions of this application. I am more than happy to post other code including the RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword function, or our Text_Scrub if it is necessary to recieve appropriate feedback. Thank you in advance for your input. Public Function GenerateMD5Hash(ByVal strInput As String) As String Dim md5Provider As MD5 ' generate bytes for the input string Dim inputData() As Byte = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(strInput) ' compute MD5 hash md5Provider = New MD5CryptoServiceProvider Dim hashResult() As Byte = md5Provider.ComputeHash(inputData) Return ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(hashResult) End Function

    Read the article

  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • boost thread pool

    - by Dtag
    I need a threadpool for my application, and I'd like to rely on standard (C++11 or boost) stuff as much as possible. I realize there is an unofficial(!) boost thread pool class, which basically solves what I need, however I'd rather avoid it because it is not in the boost library itself -- why is it still not in the core library after so many years? In some posts on this page and elsewhere, people suggested using boost::asio to achieve a threadpool like behavior. At first sight, that looked like what I wanted to do, however I found out that all implementations I have seen have no means to join on the currently active tasks, which makes it useless for my application. To perform a join, they send stop signal to all the threads and subsequently join them. However, that completely nullifies the advantage of threadpools in my use case, because that makes new tasks require the creation of a new thread. What I want to do is: ThreadPool pool(4); for (...) { for (int i=0;i<something;i++) pool.pushTask(...); pool.join(); // do something with the results } Can anyone suggest a solution (except for using the existing unofficial thread pool on sourceforge)? Is there anything in C++11 or core boost that can help me here? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • Django | passing form values

    - by MMRUser
    I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

    - by Emil D
    Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

    Read the article

  • What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

    Read the article

  • Word Automation : Replace do not work after TypeText

    - by wishper
    I need to generate doc (real doc, not docx) files, the "best" way i have found is to use word automation (Word 2010). I have files that I open, and then replace values inside before saving it on a new name. (Ex : I replace "" with "155023"). To do this, I use the Application.Selection.Find. I just had a problem when the new value had more than 255 characters (Thanks Microsofts limitations ...). To avoid this problem, i use TypeText in this case. My problem now is once I use TypeText, the Replace do not work anymore .. And I can't find why. Any idea will be greatly appreciated. My code is in a function, called in a foreach with each values to replace : private void Replace(Application app, string name, string newValue) { Selection selection = app.Selection; Find find = selection.Find; Replacement replacement = find.Replacement; find.ClearFormatting(); find.Text = "<" + name + ">"; // Word limitation : can't replace with more than 255 characters, // use another way to do it if that's the case if (tempNewValue.Length < 255) { replacement.ClearFormatting(); replacement.Text = tempNewValue; find.Execute(Replace: replaceAll); } else { while (find.Execute()) { selection.TypeText(tempNewValue); } } Marshal.ReleaseComObject(replacement); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(find); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(selection); }

    Read the article

  • Is Subversion's 'Lazy Copy' still lazy when overwriting a previously deleted file?

    - by JW
    Is Subversion's 'Lazy Copy' still lazy when overwriting a previously deleted file? I store my externals in a separate folder for each version: i.e say for dojo I'd have: webroot\ scripts\ dojo-v-1.0.0\ dojo-v-1.1.0\ etc. By doing this, for me at least, I feel it makes it easier to switch over to a new version. By only adding each new version i am not really giving svn the history it needs to do lazy copies. So one tactic I have used is to svn copy over the old version over to where the new one will be then svn delete that whole folder then unpack my newer version into that place then svn add them The idea is to avoid having a massive amount of duplicated data in my repo. I hope svn is looking at the new files and saying, "hey, i already had this once, copied, then deleted...so i am only going to be lazy store the changes". That was my theory - but does that happen in practice? p.s. Yes I know an alternative is to set the 'externals properties on the folder' - but that's another question.

    Read the article

  • Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

    - by davetron5000
    Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

    Read the article

  • Using struts 2 with no tags

    - by WannaAsk
    Hi everyone, I wonder if you could guide me on this struts issue - I feel hopeless on this... I am working on migrating our web application to a Struts 2 portlet (I'm using Struts 2.1.8). The thing is, I am forced to avoid struts tags because our application relies on Dijit widgets, which are omitted when using struts tags. So now I should implement the <s:form tag using scriptlets. My question is: how you would suggest I imitate the way struts handles the "action" attribute? Right now it appears I should: Create a regular html form in my jsp. Get/create the ActionConfig object during onsubmit and set on it values which match my desired destination: class+method+result jsp. Execute the action I set in 2. Would you recommend this? If so - is ActionConfig obtained from the session? Can I initiate an action execution from ActionConfig? (Aletrnatively... generating an action url using struts' form.vm file - what do you say?) I would appreciate any help on this - Thanks a lot in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • Output columns not in destination table?

    - by lance
    SUMMARY: I need to use an OUTPUT clause on an INSERT statement to return columns which don't exist on the table into which I'm inserting. If I can avoid it, I don't want to add columns to the table to which I'm inserting. DETAILS: My FinishedDocument table has only one column. This is the table into which I'm inserting. FinishedDocument -- DocumentID My Document table has two columns. This is the table from which I need to return data. Document -- DocumentID -- Description The following inserts one row into FinishedDocument. Its OUTPUT clause returns the DocumentID which was inserted. This works, but it doesn't give me the Description of the inserted document. INSERT INTO FinishedDocument OUTPUT INSERTED.DocumentID SELECT DocumentID FROM Document WHERE DocumentID = @DocumentID I need to return from the Document table both the DocumentID and the Description of the matching document from the INSERT. What syntax do I need to pull this off? I'm thinking it's possible only with the one INSERT statement, by tweaking the OUTPUT clause (in a way I clearly don't understand)? Is there a smarter way that doesn't resemble the path I'm going down here? EDIT: SQL Server 2005

    Read the article

  • A better way of getting a data table with various column types into string array

    - by Vlad
    This should be an easy one, looks like I got myself too confused. I get a table from a database, data ranges from varchar to int to Null values. Cheap and dirty way of converting this into a tab-delimited file that I already have is this (shrunken to preserve space, ugliness is kept on par with original): da.Fill(dt) ' da - DataAdapter ' ' dt - DataTable ' Dim lColumns As Long = dt.Columns.Count Dim arrColumns(dt.Columns.Count) As String Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object Dim j As Long = 0 Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Count - 1 arrData = dt.Rows(i).ItemArray() For j = 0 To arrData.GetUpperBound(0) - 1 arrColumns(j) = arrData(j).ToString Next wrtOutput.WriteLine(String.Join(strFieldDelimiter, arrColumns)) Array.Clear(arrColumns, 0, arrColumns.GetLength(0)) Array.Clear(arrData, 0, arrData.GetLength(0)) Next Not only this is ugly and inefficient, it is also getting on my nerves. Besides, I want, if possible, to avoid the infamous double-loop through the table. I would really appreciate a clean and safe way of rewriting this piece. I like the approach that is used here - especially that is trying to solve the same problem that I have, but it crashes on me when I apply it to my case directly.

    Read the article

  • How to lazy load a data structure (python)

    - by Anton Geraschenko
    I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

    Read the article

  • Delphi static method of a class returning property value

    - by mitko.berbatov
    I'm making a Delphi VCL application. There is a class TStudent where I have two static functions: one which returns last name from an array of TStudent and another one which returns the first name of the student. Their code is something like: class function TStudent.FirstNameOf(aLastName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].LastName = aLastName then begin result := studentsArray[i].FirstName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; class function TStudent.LastNameOf(aFirstName: string): string; var i : integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(studentsArray) - 1 do begin if studentsArray[i].FirstName = aFirstName then begin result := studentsArray[i].LastName; Exit; end; end; result := 'no match was found'; end; My question is how can I avoid writing almost same code twice. Is there any way to pass the property as parameter of the functions.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >