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  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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  • Fastest way to modify a decimal-keyed table in MySQL?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

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  • Ruby on Rails - Primary and Foreign key

    - by Eef
    Hey, I am creating a site in Ruby on Rails, I have two models a User model and a Transaction model. These models both belong to an account so they both have a field called account_id I am trying to setup a association between them like so: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account has_many :transactions end class Transaction < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user end I am using these associations like so: user = User.find(1) transactions = user.transactions At the moment the application is trying to find the transactions with the user_id, here is the SQL it generates: Mysql::Error: Unknown column 'transactions.user_id' in 'where clause': SELECT * FROM `transactions` WHERE (`transactions`.user_id = 1) This is incorrect as I would like the find the transactions via the account_id, I have tried setting the associations like so: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account has_many :transactions, :primary_key => :account_id, :class_name => "Transaction" end class Transaction < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user, :foreign_key => :account_id, :class_name => "User" end This almost achieves what I am looking to do and generates the following SQL: Mysql::Error: Unknown column 'transactions.user_id' in 'where clause': SELECT * FROM `transactions` WHERE (`transactions`.user_id = 104) The number 104 is the correct account_id but it is still trying to query the transaction table for a user_id field. Could someone give me some advice on how I setup the associations to query the transaction table for the account_id instead of the user_id resulting in a SQL query like so: SELECT * FROM `transactions` WHERE (`transactions`.account_id = 104) Cheers Eef

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  • PHP programmer wanting to learn Flash game development

    - by grokker
    Hi! I'm currently a PHP programmer and one of my childhood dreams is to create a game. A game to show my friends or my children when the time comes :) The problem is I don't know Flash. I'm not great at drawing stuff or even artistic. I could program a little with Javascript and I could consider myself intermediate with jQuery. So my question is, how do I get started? What books do I read first? What's the steps that I should take on this journey? Thank you SO friends. I hope you all could help me create something I could be proud of :) P.S. I'm just assuming that Flash is the easiest way to create and show to other people my game. Anyway I'm very open for other suggestions! My game in mind is a side scroller about an indiana jones type of character and the setting is on the jungle with trees and snakes and a lot of animals!

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  • How to simulate OutOfMemory exception

    - by Gacek
    I need to refactor my project in order to make it immune to OutOfMemory exception. There are huge collections used in my project and by changing one parameter I can make my program to be more accurate or use less of the memory... OK, that's the background. What I would like to do is to run the routines in a loop: Run the subroutines with the default parameter. Catch the OutOfMemory exception, change the parameter and try to run it again. Do the 2nd point until parameters allow to run the subroutines without throwing the exception (usually, there will be only one change needed). Now, I would like to test it. I know, that I can throw the OutOfMemory exception on my own, but I would like to simulate some real situation. So the main question is: Is there a way of setting some kind of memory limit for my program, after reaching which the OutOfMemory exception will be thrown automatically? For example, I would like to set a limit, let's say 400MB of memory for my whole program to simulate the situation when there is such an amount of memory available in the system. Can it be done?

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  • Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

    - by Igor Ganapolsky
    Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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  • Display image background fully for last repeat in a div

    - by Stiggler
    I have a 700x300 background repeating seamlessly under the main content-div. Now I'd like to attach a div at the bottom of the content-div, containing a continuation-to-end of the background image, connecting seamlessly with the background above it. Due to the nature of the pattern, unless the full 300px height of the background image is visible in the last repeat of the content-div's backround, the background in the div below won't seamlessly connect. Basically, I need the content div's height to be a multiple of 300px under all circumstances. What's a good approach to this sort of problem? I've tried resizing the content-div on loading the page, but this only works as long as the content div doesn't contain any resizing, dynamic content, which is not my case: function adjustContentHeight() { // Setting content div's height to nearest upper multiple of column backgrounds height, // forcing it not to be cut-off when repeated. var contentBgHeight = 300; var contentHeight = $("#content").height(); var adjustedHeight = Math.ceil(contentHeight / contentBgHeight); $("#content").height(adjustedHeight * contentBgHeight); } $(document).ready(adjustContentHeight); What I'm looking for there is a way to respond to a div resizing event, but there doesn't seem to be such a thing. Also, please assume I have no access to the JS controlling the resizing of content in the content-div, though this is potentially a way of solving the problem. Another potential solution I was thinking off was to offset the background image in the bottom div by a certain amount depending on the height of the content-div. Again, the missing piece seems to be the ability to respond to a resize event.

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  • Word-wrap grid cells in Ext JS

    - by richardtallent
    (This is not a question per se, I'm documenting a solution I found using Ext JS 3.1.0. But, feel free to answer if you know of a better solution!) The Column config for an Ext JS Grid object does not have a native way to allow word-wrapped text, but there is a css property to override the inline CSS of the TD elements created by the grid. Unfortunately, the TD elements contain a DIV element wrapping the content, and that DIV is set to white-space:nowrap by Ext JS's stylesheet, so overriding the TD CSS does no good. I added the following to my main CSS file, a simple fix that appears to not break any grid functionality, but allows any white-space setting I apply to the TD to pass through to the DIV. .x-grid3-cell { /* TD is defaulted to word-wrap. Turn it off so it can be turned on for specific columns. */ white-space:nowrap; } .x-grid3-cell-inner { /* Inherit DIV's white-space from TD parent, since DIV's inline style is not accessible in the column definition. */ white-space:inherit; } YMMV, but it works for me, wanted to get it out there as a solution since I couldn't find a working solution by searching the Interwebs.

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  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages (Client Side Only!) - Javascript / Jquery

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation?

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  • Stuck on Object scope in Java

    - by ivor
    Hello, I'm working my way through an exercise to understand Java, and basically I need to merge the functionality of two classes into one app. I'm stuck on one area though - the referencing of objects across classes. What I have done is set up a gui in one class (test1), and this has a textfield in ie. chatLine = new JTextField(); in another class(test2), I was planning on leaving all the functionality in there and referencing the various gui elements set up in test1 - like this test1.chatLine I understand this level of referencing, I tested this by setting up a test method in the test2 class public static void testpass() { test1.testfield.setText("hello"); } I'm trying to understand how to implement the more complex functionality in test2 class though, specifically this existing code; test1.chatLine.addActionListener(new ActionAdapter() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { String s = Game.chatLine.getText(); if (!s.equals("")) { appendToChatBox("OUTGOING: " + s + "\n"); Game.chatLine.selectAll(); // Send the string sendString(s); } } }); This is the bit I'm stuck on, if I should be able to do this - as it's failing on the compile, can I add the actionadapter stuff to the gui element thats sat in test1, but do this from test2 - I'm wondering if I'm trying to do something that's not possible. Hope this makes sense, I'm pretty confused over this - I'm trying to understand how the scope and referencing works. Ideally what i'm trying to achieve is one class that has all the main stuff in, the gui etc, then all the related functionality in the other class, and target the first class's gui elements with the results etc. Any thoughts greatly appreciated.

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  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Java map with values limited by key's type parameter

    - by Ashley Mercer
    Is there a way in Java to have a map where the type parameter of a value is tied to the type parameter of a key? What I want to write is something like the following: public class Foo { // This declaration won't compile - what should it be? private static Map<Class<T>, T> defaultValues; // These two methods are just fine public static <T> void setDefaultValue(Class<T> clazz, T value) { defaultValues.put(clazz, value); } public static <T> T getDefaultValue(Class<T> clazz) { return defaultValues.get(clazz); } } That is, I can store any default value against a Class object, provided the value's type matches that of the Class object. I don't see why this shouldn't be allowed since I can ensure when setting/getting values that the types are correct. EDIT: Thanks to cletus for his answer. I don't actually need the type parameters on the map itself since I can ensure consistency in the methods which get/set values, even if it means using some slightly ugly casts.

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  • Slow Python HTTP server on localhost

    - by Abiel
    I am experiencing some performance problems when creating a very simple Python HTTP server. The key issue is that performance is varying depending on which client I use to access it, where the server and all clients are being run on the local machine. For instance, a GET request issued from a Python script (urllib2.urlopen('http://localhost/').read()) takes just over a second to complete, which seems slow considering that the server is under no load. Running the GET request from Excel using MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP also feels slow. However, requesting the data Google Chrome or from RCurl, the curl add-in for R, yields an essentially instantaneous response, which is what I would expect. Adding further to my confusion is that I do not experience any performance problems for any client when I am on my computer at work (the performance problems are on my home computer). Both systems run Python 2.6, although the work computer runs Windows XP instead of 7. Below is my very simple server example, which simply returns 'Hello world' for any get request. from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): print("Just received a GET request") self.send_response(200) self.send_header("Content-type", "text/html") self.end_headers() self.wfile.write('Hello world') return def log_request(self, code=None, size=None): print('Request') def log_message(self, format, *args): print('Message') if __name__ == "__main__": try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 80), MyHandler) print('Started http server') server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print('^C received, shutting down server') server.socket.close() Note that in MyHandler I override the log_request() and log_message() functions. The reason is that I read that a fully-qualified domain name lookup performed by one of these functions might be a reason for a slow server. Unfortunately setting them to just print a static message did not solve my problem. Also, notice that I have put in a print() statement as the first line of the do_GET() routine in MyHandler. The slowness occurs prior to this message being printed, meaning that none of the stuff that comes after it is causing a delay.

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  • Heroku: bash: bundle: command not found

    - by Space Monkey
    My heroku deployment is crashing with following errors. 2012-12-12T17:16:18+00:00 app[web.1]: bash: bundle: command not found 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: Process exited with status 127 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: State changed from starting to crashed The Heroku documentation for this error is to set PATH and GEM variables as described in https://devcenter.heroku.com/articles/changing-ruby-version-breaks-path I tried that, however that too is not helping. ? heroku config:add PATH=bin:vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/bin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/bin:/bin ? heroku config:add GEM_PATH=vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1 ? heroku run rake db:migrate Running rake db:migrate attached to terminal... up, run.7130 bash: bundle: command not found Next, I tried setting Ruby version in my Heroku app. This increased the slugsize. But app was still not up. Gemfile ruby "1.9.2" Pushed to Heroku -----> Using Ruby version: ruby-1.9.2 -----> Installing dependencies using Bundler version 1.2.2 heroku run "ruby -v" Running `ruby -v` attached to terminal... up, run.4483 ruby 1.9.2p320 (2012-04-20 revision 35421) [x86_64-linux] Can someone please advice

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • Baffled by differences between WPF BitmapEncoders

    - by DanM
    I wrote a little utility class that saves BitmapSource objects to image files. The image files can be either bmp, jpeg, or png. Here is the code: public class BitmapProcessor { public void SaveAsBmp(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new BmpBitmapEncoder()); } public void SaveAsJpg(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new JpegBitmapEncoder()); } public void SaveAsPng(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new PngBitmapEncoder()); } private void Save(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path, BitmapEncoder encoder) { using (var stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create)) { encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(bitmapSource)); encoder.Save(stream); } } } Each of the three Save methods work, but I get unexpected results with bmp and jpeg. Png is the only format that produces an exact reproduction of what I see if I show the BitmapSource on screen using a WPF Image control. Here are the results: BMP - too dark JPEG - too saturated PNG - correct Why am I getting completely different results for different file types? I should note that the BitmapSource in my example uses an alpha value of 0.1 (which is why it appears very desaturated), but it should be possible to show the resulting colors in any image format. I know if I take a screen capture using something like HyperSnap, it will look correct regardless of what file type I save to. Here's a HyperSnap screen capture saved as a bmp: As you can see, this isn't a problem, so there's definitely something strange about WPF's image encoders. Do I have a setting wrong? Am I missing something?

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  • UTF8 charset, diacritical elements, conversion problems - and Zend Framework form escaping

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am writing a webapp in ZF and am having serious issues with UTF8. It's using multi lingual content through Zend Form and it seems that ZF heavily escapes all of these characters and basically just won't show a field if there's diacritical elements 'é' and if I use the HTML entity equivalent e.g. é it gets escaped so that the user will see 'é'. Zend Form allows for having non escaped data, but trying to use this is confusing, and it seems it'd need to be used all over the place. So, I have been told that if the page and the text is in UTF8, no conversion to htmlentities is required. Is this true? And if the last question is true, then how do I convert the source text to UTF8? I am comfortable setting up apache so that it sends a default UTF8 charset heading, and also adding the charset meta tag to the html, but doing this I am still getting messed up encoding. I have also tried opening the translation csv file in TextWrangler on OSX as UTF8, but it has done nothing. Thanks! L

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  • Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

    - by Nick H247
    I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • ASP.NET web setup class is not defined

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I've got an ASP.NET application that I installed by creating a web setup. I ran into a problem where ASP.NET wasn't registered with IIS so it gave me a "installation was interrupted" message that told me exactly nothing. Anyhow, I finally got it installed, and I can access the main page, but it's telling me that my class isn't defined. The dll is in the same directory as the Default.aspx page Here's the main error information Compiler Error Message: BC30002: Type 'SIValidator.SIValidator' is not defined. Source Error: Line 4: Line 5: <script runat="server"> Line 6: Dim validator As New SIValidator.SIValidator() Line 7: Protected table As New arrayList() Line 8: Protected countyByDistrict As New Hashtable() Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.1873; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.1433 Am I doing it wrong? Is there some obscure setting that may not be set? I'm completely new to this VS deployment deal, so I'm trying to learn the right terms to ask the right questions... Thanks for any help edit: As an aside, when I searched google 5 minutes later, this entry came up as the first result. Would have been awesome if there was an answer for me then :P

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  • How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ?

    - by Ernst de Haan
    How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ? I have an open-source project that I am converting from Ant to Maven, including its unit tests. Here's the project source repository with the Maven project: http://github.com/znerd/logdoc My question pertains to the primary module, called "base". This module has a unit test that tests the behaviour of the static method getVersion() in the class org.znerd.logdoc.Library. This method returns: Library.class.getPackage().getImplementationVersion() The getImplementationVersion() method returns a value of a setting in the manifest file. So far, so good. I have tested this in the past and it works well, as long as the manifest is indeed available on the classpath at the path META-INF/MANIFEST.MF (either on the file system or inside a JAR file). Now my challenge is that the manifest file is not available when I run the unit tests: mvn test Surefire runs the unit tests, but my unit test fails with a mesage indicating that Library.getVersion() returned null. When I want to check the JAR, I find that it has not even been generated. Maven/Surefire runs the unit tests against the classes, before the resources are added to the classpath. So can I either run the unit tests against the JAR (implicitly requiring the JAR to be generated first) or can I make sure the resources (including the manifest file) are generated/copied under target/classes before the unit tests are run? Note that I use Maven 2.2.0, Java 1.6.0_17 on Mac OS X 10.6.2, with JUnit 4.8.1.

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  • How do you make a static sprite be a child of another sprite in cocos2D while using SpaceManager

    - by JJBigThoughts
    I have two static (STATIC_MASS) SpaceManager sprites. One is a child of the other - by which I mean that one sort of builds up the other one, but although the child's images shows up in the right place, the child doesn't seem to exists in the chipmunk physics engine, like I would expect. In my case, I have a backboard (rectangular sprite) and a hoop (a circular sprite). Since I might want to move the backboard, I'd like to attach the hoop to backboard so that the hoop automatically moves right along with the backboard. Here, we see a rotating backboard with attached hoop. It looks OK on the screen, but other objects only bounce off the backboard but pass right through the hoop (in a bad sense of the term). What doesn't my child sprite seem to exist in the physics engine? // Add Backboard cpShape *shapeRect = [smgr addRectAt:cpvWinCenter mass:STATIC_MASS width:200 height:10 rotation:0.0f ];// We're upgrading this cpCCSprite * cccrsRect = [cpCCSprite spriteWithShape:shapeRect file:@"rect_200x10.png"]; [self addChild:cccrsRect]; // Spin the static backboard: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2691589/how-do-you-make-a-sprite-rotate-in-cocos2d-while-using-spacemanager // Make static object update moves in chipmunk // Since Backboard is static, and since we're going to move it, it needs to know about spacemanager so its position gets updated inside chipmunk. // Setting this would make the smgr recalculate all static shapes positions every step // cccrsRect.integrationDt = smgr.constantDt; // cccrsRect.spaceManager = smgr; // Alternative method: smgr.rehashStaticEveryStep = YES; smgr.rehashStaticEveryStep = YES; // Spin the backboard [cccrsRect runAction:[CCRepeatForever actionWithAction: [CCSequence actions: [CCRotateTo actionWithDuration:2 angle:180], [CCRotateTo actionWithDuration:2 angle:360], nil] ]]; // Add the hoop cpShape *shapeHoop = [smgr addCircleAt:ccp(100,-45) mass:STATIC_MASS radius: 50 ]; cpCCSprite * cccrsHoop = [cpCCSprite spriteWithShape:shapeHoop file:@"hoop_100x100.png"]; [cccrsRect addChild:cccrsHoop]; This is only half working for me. Note: SpaceManager is a toolkit for working with cocos2D-iphone

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  • One config file for multiple environments

    - by ho
    I'm currently working with systems that has quite a lot of configuration settings that are environment specific (Dev, UAT, Production). Does anyone have any suggestions for minimizing the changes needed to the config file when moving between environments as well as minimizing the duplication of data in the config file? It's mostly Application settings rather than User settings. The way I'm doing it at the moment is something similar to this: <DevConnectionString>xyz</DevConnectionString> <DevInboundPath>xyz</DevInboundPath> <DevProcessedPath>xyz</DevProcessedPath> <UatConnectionString>xyz</UatConnectionString> <UatInboundPath>xyz</UatInboundPath> <UatProcessedPath>xyz</UatProcessedPath> ... <Environment>Dev</Environment> And then I have a class that reads in the Environment setting via the My.Settings class (it's VB project) and then uses that to decide what other settings to retrieve. This leads to too much duplication though so I'm not sure if it's worth it.

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  • IE 8 issue where window.close() is not occuring after winword.exe is fired to print a document

    - by Dave
    In my web application, a popup page is called using window.open javascript. There is a Print button on the page that has an onclick event that calls a printchecks() function. The code in the printchecks() function is function printchecks(){ window.print(); window.close(); } Issue is that the window.print brings up the printer dialog fine and then you select a printer. The page is actually then printed and is a reference to an rtf document that opens in winword.exe behind the scenes. For some reason in IE 8, the window.close() does not occur. This worked in IE 7. In both cases, WINWORD.EXE process appears to run in the background after the page is printed but in the case of IE 8, control is not give back to that popup page until the WINWORD.EXE process dies which takes a minute or so. I am thinking that becasue control is not being sent back to the page in IE 8, the page is not closed automatically. You can close the page after control is given back after the minute or so. This does happen in IE on both Windows XP and Windows 7. Any ideas if there is a setting in IE 8 or some other reason this may be occuring?

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