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  • Web service actionscript error

    - by H P
    Hello, I am new to Flex and needed some help setting up Web service client. I have a web service of method: public String printEchoStr(String str); I am facing problem while creating action script to call this service. I am getting error: 1067: Implicit coercion of a value of type String to an unrelated type generated.webservices:PrintEcho. I am not sure if this is the correct way. Thanks, -H <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" xmlns:srv="generated.webservices.*" creationComplete="initFunc()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import generated.webservices.EchoService; import generated.webservices.PrintEchoStrResultEvent; import generated.webservices.PrintEchoResultEvent; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; import mx.rpc.events.FaultEvent; import mx.controls.Alert; import generated.webservices.PrintEchoStr; import generated.webservices.PrintEcho; public var myService:EchoService = new EchoService(); private function initFunc():void{ myService.addprintEchoStrEventListener(argPrintEchoStr); /*-------------- 1067: Implicit coercion of a value of type String to an unrelated type generated.webservices:PrintEcho. at line below ----------------*/ myService.printEchoStr(textAreaPrintEchoStr.text); myService.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT,myServices_faultHandler); } public function argPrintEchoStr(event:PrintEchoStrResultEvent):void{ trace(event.result); } private function myServices_faultHandler(event:FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.fault.faultString,"error with WebServices"); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:TextArea id ="textAreaPrintEchoStr" x="81" y="125"/> </mx:Application>

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  • Why would ASP.NET MVC use session state?

    - by ray247
    Recommended by the ASP.NET team to use cache instead of session, we stopped using session from working with the WebForm model the last few years. So we normally have the session turned off in the web.config <sessionState mode="Off" /> But, now when I'm testing out a ASP.NET MVC application with this setting it throw an error in class SessionStateTempDataProvider inside the mvc framework, it asked me to turn on session state, I did and it worked. Looking at the source it uses session Dictionary<string, object> tempDataDictionary = httpContext.Session[TempDataSessionStateKey] as Dictionary<string, object>; // line 20 in SessionStateTempDataProvider.cs So, why would they use session here? What am I missing? Thanks, Ray. ======================================================== Edit Sorry didn't mean for this post to debate on session vs. cache, but rather in the context of the ASP.NET MVC, I was just wondering why session is used here. In this Scott Watermasysk blog post he mentioned on turning off session too as a good practice, so I'm just wondering do I have to turn it on to use MVC from here on?

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  • Is there any way to filter certain things in pages served by IIS?

    - by Ruslan
    Hello, This is my first time posting here so please keep that in mind... I'll try to be short and get right to defining the problem. We have an ASP.NET 2 application (eCommerce package) running on IIS (Windows Server 2003). The main site's page(s) are using plain HTTP (no SSL), but the whole checkout process and the shopping cart page is using SSL (HTTPS). Now, the problem is that the site's header is located in a template file, and inside it it has a plain HTML 'img' tag calling an image with the "http://" portion hard-coded into it... This header appears on absolutely every page (including the https pages), and due to its insecure image tag, a warning box pops up in IE on every stage of the checkout process... Now, the problem: The live application cannot be touched in any way (no changes can be made to the template (so simply changing "http://" to "//" is not an option), IIS cannot be restarted, and the website/app pool cannot be restarted). Is there any way in the world (maybe plugin for IIS or a setting somewhere) that I can filter the pages right before they are served to replace the '<img src="http://example.com/image.jpg">' with '<img src="//example.com/image.jpg">' in the final HTML? Possibly via a regular expression or something? Thanks to everybody in advance.

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  • PHP + CURL How to get file name

    - by Gunjan
    I'm trying to download users profile picture from facebook in PHP using this function public static function downloadFile($url, $options = array()) { if (!is_array($options)) $options = array(); $options = array_merge(array( 'connectionTimeout' => 5, // seconds 'timeout' => 10, // seconds 'sslVerifyPeer' => false, 'followLocation' => true, // if true, limit recursive redirection by 'maxRedirs' => 2, // setting value for "maxRedirs" ), $options); // create a temporary file (we are assuming that we can write to the system's temporary directory) $tempFileName = tempnam(sys_get_temp_dir(), ''); $fh = fopen($tempFileName, 'w'); $curl = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_FILE, $fh); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, $options['connectionTimeout']); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, $options['timeout']); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, $options['sslVerifyPeer']); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, $options['followLocation']); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_MAXREDIRS, $options['maxRedirs']); curl_exec($curl); curl_close($curl); fclose($fh); return $tempFileName; } The problem is it saves the file in the /tmp directory with a random name and without the extension. How can I get the original name of the file (I'm more interested in the original extension) The important things here are: The url actually redirects to image so i cant get it from original url the final url does not have the file name in headers

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  • Multiple SessionFactories in Windows Service with NHibernate

    - by Rob Taylor
    Hi all, I have a Webapp which connects to 2 DBs (one core, the other is a logging DB). I must now create a Windows service which will use the same business logic/Data access DLLs. However when I try to reference 2 session factories in the Service App and call the factory.GetCurrentSession() method, I get the error message "No session bound to current context". Does anyone have a suggestion about how this can be done? public class StaticSessionManager { public static readonly ISessionFactory SessionFactory; public static readonly ISessionFactory LoggingSessionFactory; static StaticSessionManager() { string fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["DefaultNHihbernateConfigFile"]; string executingPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().CodeBase); fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; SessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); cfg = new Configuration(); fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["LoggingNHihbernateConfigFile"]; fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; LoggingSessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); } } The configuration file has the setting: <property name="current_session_context_class">call</property> The service sets up the factories: private ISession _session = null; private ISession _loggingSession = null; private ISessionFactory _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; private ISessionFactory _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; ... _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; _session = _sessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_session); _loggingSession = _loggingSessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_loggingSession); So finally, I try to call the correct factory by: ISession session = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); Can anyone suggest a better way to handle this? Thanks in advance! Rob

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  • What kind of storage with two-way replication for multi site C# application?

    - by twk
    Hi I have a web-based system written using asp.net backed by mssql. A synchronized replica of this system is to be run on mobile locations and must be available regardless of the state of the connection to the main system (few hours long interruptions happens). For now I am using a copy of the main web application and a copy of the mssql server with merge replication to the main system. This works unreliably, and setting the replication is a pain. The amount of data the system contains is not huge, so I can migrate to different storage type. For the new version of this system I would like to implement a new replication system. I am considering migration to db4o for storage with it's replication support. I am thinking about other possible solutions like couchdb which had native replication support. I would like to stay with C#. Could you recommend a way to go for such a distributed environment? PS. Master-Slave replication is not an option: any side must be allowed to add/update data.

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  • Resharper 5: How do I set the default formatting style for inline code blocks?

    - by nukefusion
    I've got a problem with the formatting of inline code blocks within the VS2010 text editor and wonder if anyone else has had similar problems and found the 'magic' setting I'm looking for. I'm working my way through tutorials in an MVC book. Whenever I add some inline code blocks to a view I want them formatted like so: <% foreach (var link in Model) { %> <a href="<%=Url.RouteUrl(link.RouteValues)%>"> <%=link.Text%> </a> <% } %> What I'm actually getting is this (auto-formatted by the IDE when I finish writing the code): <% foreach (var link in Model) { %> <a href="<%=Url.RouteUrl(link.RouteValues)%>"> <%=link.Text%> </a> <% } %> It's pretty irritating. Any ideas on how I can instruct the IDE to leave my <% % tags alone? I've been fiddling with options under "Tools - Options - Text Editor" for ages but alas am getting nowhere... Edit: I've just noticed that this is down to Resharper 5 (when I disable it the problem disappears), however I still don't know how to stop it. Any ideas?

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  • Who to access a UIButton using tag and button change image?

    - by ste
    I need to change the images on a matrix of UIButtons, and the only thing I know of to address the buttons, is the tag. But I can not find a way to actually us this identifier. The buttons are created programmatically during viewDidLoad. Here is the code for creating the buttons: #define N_ROWS 4 #define N_COLS 3 int N_IMG = 0; for (int a = 0; a < N_COLS; a++) { for (int j = 0; j < N_ROWS; j++) { UIButton *aButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; aButton.frame = CGRectMake(a * 65.0 + 25, j * 65.0 + 15, 10.0, 10.0); aButton.tag = j + a * N_ROWS + 1; [aButton setBackgroundColor:[UIColor redColor]]; N_IMG = N_IMG++; [self.view addSubview:aButton]; number_sorted = 1; } } Here is the code for setting the image: - (IBAction)set_image:(id)sender { #define N_ROWS 4 #define N_COLS 3 int N_IMG = 0; for (int a = 0; a < N_COLS; a++) { for (int j = 0; j < N_ROWS; j++) { uibutton aButton.tag == (j + a * N_ROWS + 1) setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:[puzzles objectAtIndex:N_IMG]] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; N_IMG = N_IMG++; } } } This is the code where the truble starts: uibutton aButton.tag == (j + a * N_ROWS + 1) Who can I set this up to work?

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  • How to get OCI lib to work on red hat machine to work with R Oracle?

    - by Matt Bannert
    I need to get OCI lib working on my rhel 6.3 machine and I am experiencing some trouble with OCI headers files that can't be found. I have installed (using yum install) oracle-instantclient11.2-basic-11.2.0.3.0-1.x86_64.rpm because this official page it's all I need to run OCI. To test the whole thing in general I've installed sqplus64, which worked after I set export LD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/lib/oracle/11.2/client64/lib. Unfortunately the headers files couldn't be found after setting LD_LIBRARY_PATH. Actually I am not surprised because there is no include directory in any of these oracle paths. So the question is: Where do I get these missing header files from? Are they actually already there and I just can find them? Btw: I am doing this whole exercise because I want to use ROracle on my R Studio server and this R package depends on the OCI library. Once I am back in R territory the road gets much less bumpier for me. EDIT: this documentation helped me a little further. However, I guess I found some header files now in: "/usr/include/oracle/11.2/client64". But which variable do I have to set to this location?

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  • Pointers, am I doing them correctly? Objective-c/cocoa

    - by Chris
    I have this in my @interface struct track currentTrack; struct track previousTrack; int anInt; Since these are not objects, I do not have to have them like int* anInt right? And if setting non-object values like ints, boolean, etc, I do not have to release the old value right (assuming non-GC environment)? The struct contains objects: typedef struct track { NSString* theId; NSString* title; } *track; Am I doing that correctly? Lastly, I access the struct like this: [currentTrack.title ...]; currentTrack.theId = @"asdf"; //LINE 1 I'm also manually managing the memory (from a setter) for the struct like this: [currentTrack.title autorelease]; currentTrack.title = [newTitle retain]; If I'm understanding the garbage collection correctly, I should be able to ditch that and just set it like LINE 1 (above)? Also with garbage collection, I don't need a dealloc method right? If I use garbage collection does this mean it only runs on OS 10.5+? And any other thing I should know before I switch to garbage collected code? Sorry there are so many questions. Very new to objective-c and desktop programming. Thanks

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  • Web Hosting: Any web host that supports files more than 50,000 in number?

    - by Devner
    Hi all, For my PHP & mySQL based application, I am trying to buy website hosting from a host who does not have a limit on the number of files I carry in my hosting account. Almost all the websites have a common limit of 50,000 files (some websites call it 50,000 nodes). The rest(to the extent of my search) are not even close. I have gone through the various websites, Googled lot of information, have spoken with the customer service of the hosting companies and they said that they have a limit of 50,000 files and that's why they call it the LIMIT. Now I have my application, which is a kind of social networking website, where people can upload various files of varying file size. So say if 50,000 users were to join the website and upload 1 file each, the limit of 50,000 will be reached very easily and my 50,001 customer will start facing file upload problems (& so will my account). So I would like to know if there's any website hosting services that do NOT levy such restrictions. In summary, I need the following options: No maximum file limit (more than 50,000 files in account). No maximum file upload limit in server setting (10MB, 12MB, 15MB, 20MB, etc.). Ability to upload files of various types (zip, flv, jg, png, etc.). Ability to stream Audio and Video (live audio & video not necessary). Access to .htaccess Access to php.ini, my.cnf or my.ini (this would be a plus) Supports SSL. Provides dedicated hosting(& IP) as well. Monthly payments without contracts are a plus. If you know of any such website hosting services, please post a reply ( a link to the same will be appreciated ). Thank you.

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  • HTTP Handler error when downloading files - SSL

    - by Chiefy
    Ok big problem as this is affecting two projects on our new server. We have a file that is downloaded by users, the files are downloaded using a HTTPHandler. Since moving the site to the server and setting SSL the downloads have stopped working and we get an error message "Unable to download DownloadDocument.ashx" from site". DownloadDocument.ashx is the handler page that is set in the web.config and the button that goes there is a hyperlink with the id of the document as a querystring. Ive read the article on http://support.microsoft.com/kb/316431 and read a few other requests on this site but nothing seems to be working. This problem only happens in IE and works fine when I run it on the server in http instead of https. public override void HandleRequest(HttpContext context) { Guid guid = new Guid(context.Request.QueryString["ID"]); DataTable dt = Documents.GetDocument(guid); if (dt != null) { context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}", dt.Rows[0]["DocumentName"].ToString())); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Transfer-Encoding", "binary"); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", ((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]).Length.ToString()); context.Response.ContentType = string.Format("application/{0}", dt.Rows[0]["Extension"].ToString().Remove(0, 1)); context.Response.Buffer = true; context.Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]); context.Response.Flush(); context.Response.End(); } } The above is my current code for the request. Ive used the base handler on http://haacked.com/archive/2005/03/17/AnAbstractBoilerplateHttpHandler.aspx. Any ideas on what this might be and how we can fix it. Thanks in advance for all responses.

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  • Group / User based security. Table / SQL question

    - by Brett
    Hi, I'm setting up a group / user based security system. I have 4 tables as follows: user groups group_user_mappings acl where acl is the mapping between an item_id and either a group or a user. The way I've done the acl table, I have 3 columns of note (actually 4th one as an auto-id, but that is irrelevant) col 1 item_id (item to access) col 3 user_id (user that is allowed to access) col 3 group_id (group that is allowed to access) So for example item1, peter, , item2, , group1 item3, jane, , so either the acl will give access to a user or a group. Any one line in the ACL table with either have an item - user mapping, or an item group. If I want to have a query that returns all objects a user has access to, I think I need to have a SQL query with a UNION, because I need 2 separate queries that join like.. item - acl - group - user AND item - acl - user This I guess will work OK. Is this how its normally done? Am I doing this the right way? Seems a little messy. I was thinking I could get around it by creating a single user group for each person, so I only ever deal with groups in my SQL, but this seems a little messy as well..

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  • Visual Studio crashes when I add a .settings file in a C++ Windows form application

    - by Ant
    I'm trying to add a .settings file in a windows form application by adding a (whatever) file in the project and have it named smthng.settings. Right after it is created, it crashes (if I look into the project's directory the file is there, but it's not "in" the project). Am I doing it wrong or could it be that the problem lies elsewhere? Edit: It seems that it's the settings designer that crashes. Partially Solved:If I add a (whatever).config file, then rename it to .settings and change it's file type to C/C++ Code (don't ask how I figured this out..) then I can add to it settings, but if I do add something that has any connection to the form then automatically a (whatever).config with thew same name spawns (which is identical to the (whatever).setting even if change one of them) and at the stdafx.cpp a #include '(whatever).h' appears, which is a problem, because there is not such a header. (if I erase it or just create a blank (whatever).h it doesn't work. Apparently I have to somehow connect all the data in the (w/e).settings to (w/e).h as well or maybe something else) Anyone had this problem before? Anyone has any ideas?

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  • How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

    - by Mano
    Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

    - by Hitesh Riziya
    I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

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  • Mail function wont send eMail. ERROR

    - by Peter
    I think i tried to fix this issue fr 3 days now and cant seem to find the problem. I use XAMPP and use this code: <?php $to = "[email protected]"; $subject = "Test mail"; $message = "Hello! This is a simple email message."; $from = "[email protected]"; $headers = "From: $from"; $res= mail($to,$subject,$message,$headers); echo " $res Mail Sent."; ?> when i enter that page i get an error that says: Warning: mail() [function.mail]: Failed to connect to mailserver at "localhost" port 25, verify your "SMTP" and "smtp_port" setting in php.ini or use ini_set( My php.init file in xampp are as follow: [mail function] ; For Win32 only. ; http://php.net/smtp SMTP = smpt.gmail.com ; http://php.net/smtp-port smtp_port = 25 That is all my codes.

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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  • How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

    - by skolima
    I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

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  • Install h5py in Mac OS X 10.6.3

    - by zyq524
    I'm trying to install h5py in Mac OS X 10.6.3. First I installed HDF5 1.8, which used the following commands: ./configure \ --prefix=/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current \ --enable-shared \ --enable-production \ --enable-threadsafe \ CPPFLAGS=-I/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/include \ LDFLAGS=-L/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/lib make make check sudo make install Then install h5py: /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/bin/python \ setup.py \ build \ --api=18 \ --hdf5=/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current Then I got the errors: Configure: Autodetecting HDF5 settings... Custom HDF5 dir: /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current Custom API level: (1, 8) ld: warning: in detect/vers.o, file was built for unsupported file format which is not the architecture being linked (i386) ld: warning: in /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/lib/libhdf5.dylib, file was built for unsupported file format which is not the architecture being linked (i386) Undefined symbols: "_main", referenced from: start in crt1.10.5.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Failed to compile HDF5 test program. Please check to make sure: * You have a C compiler installed * A development version of Python is installed (including header files) * A development version of HDF5 is installed (including header files) * If HDF5 is not in a default location, supply the argument --hdf5=<path> error: command 'cc' failed with exit status 1 I just updated my Xcode, I don't know whether this is because my gcc's default setting. If so, how can I get rid of this error? Thanks.

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  • JTable Insert row and refresh

    - by user269723
    Hi All, I am trying to create simple application where JTable gets updated and refreshed after data is changed.Structure is as follows. 1)Class Main which contains JFrame,JTable details. 2)SampleTableModel class which extends AbstractTableModel.I am overriding most of the methods.`import javax.swing.table.; import javax.swing.event.; import java.util.*; public class SampleTableModel extends AbstractTableModel { public SampleTableModel(){ // this.addTableModelListener( } String[] columnNames = {"A","B","C","D","E"}; int[][] data = {{1,2,3,4,5},{5,6,7,8,9},{12,13,14,15,16}}; Vector dataVector = new Vector(); public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex,int columnIndex) { return data[rowIndex][columnIndex]; } public int getColumnCount(){ return 5; } public int getRowCount(){ return 3; } public String getColumnName(int columnIndex){ return columnNames[columnIndex]; } public void setValueAt(Object value,int row,int column){ data[row][column] =99; } public void notifyTable(AEMessage message){ /* * This method will be called from another class to update JTable. * */ data[0][1]=999; data[0][2]=8838; data[1][1]=8883; fireTableRowsUpdated(0,3); } } ` As you can see, notifyTable will be called from another class(which is actually a thread-which calls this method frequently) Problem is I don't see data being changed in JTable.I see only the initialized data. In the Main class- I am setting like this- RVJDataTable.setModel(new SampleTableModel());

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  • How to change the date/time in Python for all modules?

    - by Felix Schwarz
    When I write with business logic, my code often depends on the current time. For example the algorithm which looks at each unfinished order and checks if an invoice should be sent (which depends on the no of days since the job was ended). In these cases creating an invoice is not triggered by an explicit user action but by a background job. Now this creates a problem for me when it comes to testing: I can test invoice creation itself easily However it is hard to create an order in a test and check that the background job identifies the correct orders at the correct time. So far I found two solutions: In the test setup, calculate the job dates relative to the current date. Downside: The code becomes quite complicated as there are no explicit dates written anymore. Sometimes the business logic is pretty complex for edge cases so it becomes hard to debug due to all these relative dates. I have my own date/time accessor functions which I use throughout my code. In the test I just set a current date and all modules get this date. So I can simulate an order creation in February and check that the invoice is created in April easily. Downside: 3rd party modules do not use this mechanism so it's really hard to integrate+test these. The second approach was way more successful to me after all. Therefore I'm looking for a way to set the time Python's datetime+time modules return. Setting the date is usually enough, I don't need to set the current hour or second (even though this would be nice). Is there such a utility? Is there an (internal) Python API that I can use?

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  • RelativeLayout does not shrink in height

    - by rudas
    Hi, I cannot get my relative layuot view to shrink when using it in the follwing layout, used as a dialog. In below example the scrollview always expands to fill the entire dialog which looks very ugly if there is not much actual content. I have tried most combinations of fill_parent, wrap_content etc without success. The problem seems to be that setting the button to "align_bottom" will cause the dialog to fill its height. But if I change the order and have to button placed below the scrollview the button will not be visible if a lot of content is shown... Please help /Rudas <RelativeLayout android:id="@+id/RelativeLayout01" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content"> <ScrollView android:id="@+id/ScrollView01" android:layout_above="@+id/dialogCloseButton" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <LinearLayout android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/dialogContent" android:orientation="vertical" android:paddingBottom="10dp"> <TextView android:id="@+id/TextView01" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> </TextView> </LinearLayout> </ScrollView> <Button android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Close" android:id="@+id/dialogCloseButton" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_centerHorizontal="true"></Button> </RelativeLayout>

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  • Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

    - by fireeyedboy
    For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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