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• GWT RPC and GoDaddy Shared Hosting

  - by Mike Apolis

  Hi, I've deployed the sample Stock Watcher app to my GoDaddy Hosting site, and I get the error below. I've tried compiling the Project in Eclipse with JRE 1.5 because my Host is using jre 1.5. I think the issue is the "gwt-servlet.jar" is not compatible with jre 1.5. Can anyone confirm this. The project runs fine on my local machine using JRE 1.6. Unfortunately GoDaddy will not upgrade my shared hosting account jre to 1.6. GoDaddy Server Setup: Tomcat Version 5.0.27 JRE 1.5_22 Error: HTTP Status 500 - type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error allocating a servlet instance org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java: 124) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java: 1634) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 860) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1307) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1189) java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.0.27 logs. Apache Tomcat/5.0.27

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• What makes people think that NNs have more computational power than existing models?

  - by Bubba88

  I've read in Wikipedia that neural-network functions defined on a field of arbitrary real/rational numbers (along with algorithmic schemas, and the speculative `transrecursive' models) have more computational power than the computers we use today. Of course it was a page of russian wikipedia (ru.wikipedia.org) and that may be not properly proven, but that's not the only source of such.. rumors Now, the thing that I really do not understand is: How can a string-rewriting machine (NNs are exactly string-rewriting machines just as Turing machines are; only programming language is different) be more powerful than a universally capable U-machine? Yes, the descriptive instrument is really different, but the fact is that any function of such class can be (easily or not) turned to be a legal Turing-machine. Am I wrong? Do I miss something important? What is the cause of people saying that? I do know that the fenomenum of undecidability is widely accepted today (though not consistently proven according to what I've read), but I do not really see a smallest chance of NNs being able to solve that particular problem. Add-in: Not consistently proven according to what I've read - I meant that you might want to take a look at A. Zenkin's (russian mathematician) papers after mid-90-s where he persuasively postulates the wrongness of G. Cantor's concepts, including transfinite sets, uncountable sets, diagonalization method (method used in the proof of undecidability by Turing) and maybe others. Even Goedel's incompletness theorems were proven in right way in only 21-st century.. That's all just to plug Zenkin's work to the post cause I don't know how widespread that knowledge is in CS community so forgive me if that did look stupid. Thank you!

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• OmniCppComplete: Completing on Class Members which are STL containers

  - by Robert S. Barnes

  Completion on class members which are STL containers is failing. Completion on local objects which are STL containers works fine. For example, given the following files: // foo.h #include <string> class foo { public: void set_str(const std::string &); std::string get_str_reverse( void ); private: std::string str; }; // foo.cpp #include "foo.h" using std::string; string foo::get_str_reverse ( void ) { string temp; temp.assign(str); reverse(temp.begin(), temp.end()); return temp; } /* ----- end of method foo::get_str ----- */ void foo::set_str ( const string &s ) { str.assign(s); } /* ----- end of method foo::set_str ----- */ I've generated the tags for these two files using: ctags -R --c++-kinds=+pl --fields=+iaS --extra=+q . When I type temp. in the cpp I get a list of string member functions as expected. But if I type str. omnicppcomplete spits out "Pattern Not Found". I've noticed that the temp. completion only works if I have the using std::string; declaration. How do I get completion to work on my class members which are STL containers?

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• Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

  - by Mike

  I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

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• Converting to a column oriented array in Java

  - by halfwarp

  Although I have Java in the title, this could be for any OO language. I'd like to know a few new ideas to improve the performance of something I'm trying to do. I have a method that is constantly receiving an Object[] array. I need to split the Objects in this array through multiple arrays (List or something), so that I have an independent list for each column of all arrays the method receives. Example: List<List<Object>> column-oriented = new ArrayList<ArrayList<Object>>(); public void newObject(Object[] obj) { for(int i = 0; i < obj.length; i++) { column-oriented.get(i).add(obj[i]); } } Note: For simplicity I've omitted the initialization of objects and stuff. The code I've shown above is slow of course. I've already tried a few other things, but would like to hear some new ideas. How would you do this knowing it's very performance sensitive?

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• Servlet receiving data both in ISO-8859-1 and UTF-8. How to URL-decode?

  - by AJPerez

  I've a web application (well, in fact is just a servlet) which receives data from 3 different sources: Source A is a HTML document written in UTF-8, and sends the data via <form method="get">. Source B is written in ISO-8859-1, and sends the data via <form method="get">, too. Source C is written in ISO-8859-1, and sends the data via <a href="http://my-servlet-url?param=value&param2=value2&etc">. The servlet receives the request params and URL-decodes them using UTF-8. As you can expect, A works without problems, while B and C fail (you can't URL-decode in UTF-8 something that's encoded in ISO-8859-1...). I can make slight modifications to B and C, but I am not allowed to change them from ISO-8859-1 to UTF-8, which would solve all the problems. In B, I've been able to solve the problem by adding accept-charset="UTF-8" to the <form>. So the <form> sends the data in UTF-8 even with the page being ISO. What can I do to fix C? Alternatively, is there any way to determine the charset on the servlet, so I can call URL-decode with the right encoding in each case?

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• Need help implementing this algorithm with map Hadoop MapReduce

  - by Julia

  Hi all! i have algorithm that will go through a large data set read some text files and search for specific terms in those lines. I have it implemented in Java, but I didnt want to post code so that it doesnt look i am searching for someone to implement it for me, but it is true i really need a lot of help!!! This was not planned for my project, but data set turned out to be huge, so teacher told me I have to do it like this. EDIT(i did not clarified i previos version)The data set I have is on a Hadoop cluster, and I should make its MapReduce implementation I was reading about MapReduce and thaught that i first do the standard implementation and then it will be more/less easier to do it with mapreduce. But didnt happen, since algorithm is quite stupid and nothing special, and map reduce...i cant wrap my mind around it. So here is shortly pseudo code of my algorithm LIST termList (there is method that creates this list from lucene index) FOLDER topFolder INPUT topFolder IF it is folder and not empty list files (there are 30 sub folders inside) FOR EACH sub folder GET file "CheckedFile.txt" analyze(CheckedFile) ENDFOR END IF Method ANALYZE(CheckedFile) read CheckedFile WHILE CheckedFile has next line GET line FOR(loops through termList) GET third word from line IF third word = term from list append whole line to string buffer ENDIF ENDFOR END WHILE OUTPUT string buffer to file Also, as you can see, each time when "analyze" is called, new file has to be created, i understood that map reduce is difficult to write to many outputs??? I understand mapreduce intuition, and my example seems perfectly suited for mapreduce, but when it comes to do this, obviously I do not know enough and i am STUCK! Please please help.

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• Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

  - by Mark

  Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

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• Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

  - by rafek

  Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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• ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

  - by NobleK

  Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

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• is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

  - by haansi

  Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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• Why won't this loop normalize my Vector2 list?

  - by ssb

  See the following code: List<Vector2> axes = new List<Vector2>(); axes.Add(TopRight() - TopLeft()); axes.Add(BottomLeft() - TopLeft()); axes.Add(otherRectangle.TopRight() - otherRectangle.TopLeft()); axes.Add(otherRectangle.BottomLeft() - otherRectangle.TopLeft()); // Try normalizing vectors? foreach (Vector2 axis in axes) { axis.Normalize(); } the Vector2.Normalize() method is a void method that normalizes the vector it's called on. Yet for some reason when I do this loop it doesn't normalize the vectors. Am I just unable to modify a list this way? Some oddities: Iterating with a for loop, i.e. axis[i].Normalize() doesn't work. Iterating with the built-in List<T>.ForEach iterator does not work. Creating a normalizing the vector before adding it to the list rather than iterating over the list does work. Why does iteration not work?

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• Managed bean property value not set to null

  - by Vladimir

  Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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• methods of metaclasses on class instances.

  - by Stefano Borini

  I was wondering what happens to methods declared on a metaclass. I expected that if you declare a method on a metaclass, it will end up being a classmethod, however, the behavior is different. Example >>> class A(object): ... @classmethod ... def foo(cls): ... print "foo" ... >>> a=A() >>> a.foo() foo >>> A.foo() foo However, if I try to define a metaclass and give it a method foo, it seems to work the same for the class, not for the instance. >>> class Meta(type): ... def foo(self): ... print "foo" ... >>> class A(object): ... __metaclass__=Meta ... def __init__(self): ... print "hello" ... >>> >>> a=A() hello >>> A.foo() foo >>> a.foo() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> AttributeError: 'A' object has no attribute 'foo' What's going on here exactly ? edit: bumping the question

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• php syntax confusion accessing database result

  - by Babak

  I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

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• how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

  - by Sadegh

  Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

  - by Manuel Navarro

  I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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• IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

  - by Tokimon

  Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

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• ObjC get property name

  - by Joe Even

  Yes. I've searched a lot without success. I've looking for a way to get a property name as StringValue from inside a method. Lets say: My class has X Subviews from the Type UILabel. @property (strong, nonatomic) UILabel *firstLabel; @property (strong, nonatomic) UILabel *secondLabel; [...] and so on. Inside the method foo, the views are iterated as followed: -(void) foo { for (UIView *view in self.subviews) { if( [view isKindOfClass:[UILabel class]] ) { /* codeblock that gets the property name. */ } } } The Result should be something like that: THE propertyName(NSString) OF view(UILabel) IS "firstLabel" I've tried class_getInstanceVariable, object_getIvar and property_getName without Success. For Example, the Code for: [...] property_getName((void*)&view) [...] RETURNS: <UILabel: 0x6b768c0; frame = (65 375; 219 21); text = 'Something'; clipsToBounds = YES; opaque = NO; autoresize = RM+BM; userInteractionEnabled = NO; layer = <CALayer: 0x6b76930>> But i'm looking for this kind of result: "firstLabel" , "secondLabel" and so on. Thanks for your help! Reagrds Joé

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• Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

  - by Travelsized

  I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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• .NET ValidationRule problem

  - by PaN1C_Showt1Me

  Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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• Security header is not valid - using curl php

  - by toni

  Hi all, Im implementing the Express Checkout, Paypal API using PHP. I have no problem with the first step:SetExpressCheckout. I a have awk=success. But in method GetExpressCheckout I get "Security header is not valid". I try to figure out the problem and i think found out maybe it was the curl not working well.. What i did i copy the whole URL: https://api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp?USER=sanbox_1276609583_biz_api1.gmail.com&PWD=1276609589&SIGNATURE=AYVosblmD7khKkvvb.bNxvFT0OQ2A8GopwByEuC.CfMHt65VaUmvAEy-&VERSION=62.0&token=EC-3YG18670X88588437&METHOD=GetExpressCheckoutDetails and paste it to the browser. This will result to: TOKEN=EC%2d3YG18670X88588437&CHECKOUTSTATUS=PaymentActionNotInitiated&TIMESTAMP=2010%2d06%2d16T07%3a40%3a12Z&CORRELATIONID=e1a1e469bf066&ACK=Success&VERSION=62%2e0&BUILD=1356926... But when that url executed in the function I made it will not work. Below is my function: function mycurl($url,$querystr){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $querystr); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $response; } I hope somebody can help on this. thanks so much. Note: - I Used the sandbox for this. I created a sandbox account, I have a Business account to represent a merchant, and a Personal account to represent a buyer. And I used this: endpoint url: api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp sandbox url: www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr This should not be the issue.

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• How to Update with LINQ?

  - by DaveDev

  currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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