Search Results

Search found 93023 results on 3721 pages for 'code names'.

Page 494/3721 | < Previous Page | 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501  | Next Page >

  • C# / XNA - Load objects to the memory - how it works?

    - by carl
    Hello I'm starting with C# and XNA. In the "Update" method of the "Game" class I have this code: t = Texture2D.FromFile( [...] ); //t is a 'Texture2D t;' which loads small image. "Update" method is working like a loop, so this code is called many times in a second. Now, when I run my game, it takes 95MB of RAM and it goes slowly to about 130MB (due to the code I've posted, without this code it remains at 95MB), then goes immediately to about 100MB (garbare colletion?) and again goes slowly to 130MB, then immediately to 100MB and so on. So my first question: Can You explain why (how) it works like that? I've found, that if I change the code to: t.Dispose() t = Texture2D.FromFile( [...] ); it works like that: first it takes 95MB and then goes slowly to about 101MB (due to the code) and remains at this level. I don't understand why it takes this 6MB (101-95)... ? I want to make it works like that: load image, release from memory, load image, release from memory and so on, so the program should always takes 95MB (it takes 95MB when image is loaded only once in previous method). Whats instructions should I use? If it is important, the size of the image is about 10KB. Thank You!

    Read the article

  • Question about compilers and how they work

    - by Marin Doric
    This is the C code that frees memory of a singly linked list. It is compiled with Visual C++ 2008 and code works as it should be. /* Program done, so free allocated memory */ current = head; struct film * temp; temp = current; while (current != NULL) { temp = current->next; free(current); current = temp; } But I also encountered ( even in a books ) same code written like this: /* Program done, so free allocated memory */ current = head; while (current != NULL) { free(current); current = current->next; } If I compile that code with my VC++ 2008, program crashes because I am first freeing current and then assigning current-next to current. But obviously if I compile this code with some other complier ( for example, compiler that book author used ) program will work. So question is, why does this code compiled with specific compiler work? Is it because that compiler put instructions in binary file that remember address of current-next although I freed current and my VC++ doesn't. I just want to understand how compilers work.

    Read the article

  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

    Read the article

  • LaTex: how does the include-command work?

    - by HH
    I supposed the include-command copy-pastes code in the compilation, it is wrong because the code stopped working. Please, see the middle part in the code. I only copy-pasted the code to the file and added the include-command. $ cat results/frames.tex 10.31 & 8.50 & 7.40 \\ 10.34 & 8.53 & 7.81 \\ 8.22 & 8.62 & 7.78 \\ 10.16 & 8.53 & 7.44 \\ 10.41 & 8.38 & 7.63 \\ 10.38 & 8.57 & 8.03 \\ 10.13 & 8.66 & 7.41 \\ 8.50 & 8.60 & 7.15 \\ 10.41 & 8.63 & 7.21 \\ 8.53 & 8.53 & 7.12 \\ Latex code \begin{table} \begin{tabular}{ | l | m | r |} \hline $t$ / s & $d_{1}$ / s & $d_{2}$ / s \\ $\Delta h = 0,01 s$ & $\Delta d = 0,01 s$ & $\Delta d = 0,01 s$ \\ \hline % I JUST COPIED THE CODE from here to the file, included. % It stopped working, why? \include{results/frames.tex} \hline $\pi (\frac{d_{1}}{2} - \frac{d_{2}}{2})$ & $2 \pi R h$ & $2 \pi r h$ \\ \hline \end{tabular} \end{table}

    Read the article

  • Cannot launch 16-bit application anymore

    - by Nick Bedford
    I'm trying to debug and resolve some issues with a Win32 macro application written C++ however I'm having the strangest issue. I have to launch a 16-bit program and then simulate entering data into and have been using ShellExecute for over two years now. I haven't touched this actual code at all, but now it doesn't work. I'm doing ShellExecute(NULL, "open", exe_path.c_str(), NULL, "", SW_SHOWDEFAULT);. This has worked flawlessly for years but all of sudden, it stopped working. It gives me an ACCESS_DENIED error code. I've Googled and apparently this is a pretty common issue with launching 16-bit apps. The workstation XP SP2 environment hasn't changed at all, and it was actually working until I rebuilt a little while ago (I've rebuilt it before many times). The code is inside a window procedure function and when I take it out and launch the program in the WinMain function it works, but the code has to be in the window procedure... I've tried numerous alternatives but they all give the same issue. The biggest issue with this is it was working then all of a sudden decided it wasn't going to with no change to both code and environment! In fact, it was about half way through testing changes that it thought it'd stop working. Please help as I cannot do anything without the program launching. It's the first step in the code that I'm debugging!

    Read the article

  • Uploading a file fails under WordPress

    - by Ash
    I'm using WordPress and I'm following W3's guide for uploading a file: HTML code: <html> <body> <form action="upload_file.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <label for="file">Filename:</label> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> PHP code (upload_file.php): <?php if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] > 0) { echo "Error: " . $_FILES["file"]["error"] . "<br />"; } else { echo "Upload: " . $_FILES["file"]["name"] . "<br />"; echo "Type: " . $_FILES["file"]["type"] . "<br />"; echo "Size: " . ($_FILES["file"]["size"] / 1024) . " Kb<br />"; echo "Stored in: " . $_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"]; } ?> The HTML code is pasted in a PHP page template and the PHP file under the WP installation directory under www. The problem is when I submit the file I get Error: 1. If I remark the "if" part of the PHP code and leave the "else" part I get: Upload: IMG_4258.JPG Type: Size: 0 Kb Stored in: So at least I know the PHP code is running. But what's causing it to fail? Is there a problem with the code or is WordPress meddling with the process?

    Read the article

  • Save result of for loop in a vector

    - by hendrik
    i think I'm just too tired to see the mistake. i wrote a function to get the maximal value for two data sets from a for loop plot_zu <- function(x) {for (i in 1:x){ z=data_raw[grep(a[i], data_raw$Gene.names),] b=data_raw_ace[grep(a[i], data_raw_ace$Gene.names),] p<-vector("numeric", length(1:length(a))) p[i]<-max(z$t_test_diff) return(p)} } so picture: a is a vector of names and the data set (data_raw(_ace)) are filtered by it. In the end i would like to have all maxima values of column t_test_diff in a vector. After that i want to add the t_test_diff column values from data_raw_ace also. So the problem is, that i get this: [1] 1.210213 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 [8] 0.000000 0.000000 So there is a problem with brackets or something but i cannot see it ( first value fits). Sorry for no good example but i think it is understandable and an easy to solve question. If im to dumb to explain my problem right, i will add an example. !! Thx a lot !! grateful Hendrik

    Read the article

  • DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

    - by Jammer
    I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

    Read the article

  • Javascript errors on internet explorer with jQuery but working fine on Firefox

    - by user994319
    A quick question I'm hoping someone can help me out with. On firefox our jQuery slider is working perfectly, however on viewing with internet explorer there are some javascript errors occurring. The website is http://foscam-uk.com/index.php Hoping there is a possible solution to this. Kind Regards and Thank You! Errors: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E; InfoPath.3) Timestamp: Wed, 6 Jun 2012 22:36:43 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5653 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5988 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 2 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/skin/frontend/default/theme316/js/scripts.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5736 Char: 7 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 5988 Char: 5 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/js/prototype/prototype.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 73 Char: 11 Code: 0 URI: http://foscam-uk.com/index.php

    Read the article

  • Who likes #regions in Visual Studio?

    - by Nicholas
    Personally I can't stand region tags, but clearly they have wide spread appeal for organizing code, so I want to test the temperature of the water for other MS developer's take on this idea. My personal feeling is that any sort of silly trick to simplify code only acts to encourage terrible coding behavior, like lack of cohesion, unclear intention and poor or incomplete coding standards. One programmer told me that code regions helped encourage coding standards by making it clear where another programmer should put his or her contributions. But, to be blunt, this sounds like a load of horse manure to me. If you have a standard, it is the programmer's job to understand what that standard is... you should't need to define it in every single class file. And, nothing is more annoying than having all of your code collapsed when you open a file. I know that cntrl + M, L will open everything up, but then you have the hideous "hash region definition" open and closing lines to read. They're just irritating. My most stead fast coding philosophy is that all programmer should strive to create clear, concise and cohesive code. Region tags just serve to create noise and redundant intentions. Region tags would be moot in a well thought out and intentioned class. The only place they seem to make sense to me, is in automatically generated code, because you should never have to read that outside of personal curiosity.

    Read the article

  • "Order By" in LINQ-to-SQL Causes performance issues

    - by panamack
    I've set out to write a method in my C# application which can return an ordered subset of names from a table containing about 2000 names starting at the 100th name and returning the next 20 names. I'm doing this so I can populate a WPF DataGrid in my UI and do some custom paging. I've been using LINQ to SQL but hit a snag with this long executing query so I'm examining the SQL the LINQ query is using (Query B below). Query A runs well: SELECT TOP (20) [t0].[subject_id] AS [Subject_id], [t0].[session_id] AS [Session_id], [t0].[name] AS [Name] FROM [Subjects] AS [t0] WHERE (NOT (EXISTS( SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY] FROM ( SELECT TOP (100) [t1].[subject_id] FROM [Subjects] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[session_id] = 1 ORDER BY [t1].[name] ) AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[subject_id] = [t2].[subject_id] ))) AND ([t0].[session_id] = 1) Query B takes 40 seconds: SELECT TOP (20) [t0].[subject_id] AS [Subject_id], [t0].[session_id] AS [Session_id], [t0].[name] AS [Name] FROM [Subjects] AS [t0] WHERE (NOT (EXISTS( SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY] FROM ( SELECT TOP (100) [t1].[subject_id] FROM [Subjects] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[session_id] = 1 ORDER BY [t1].[name] ) AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[subject_id] = [t2].[subject_id] ))) AND ([t0].[session_id] = 1) ORDER BY [t0].[name] When I add the ORDER BY [t0].[name] to the outer query it slows down the query. How can I improve the second query? This was my LINQ stuff Nick int sessionId = 1; int start = 100; int count = 20; // Query subjects with the shoot's session id var subjects = cldb.Subjects.Where<Subject>(s => s.Session_id == sessionId); // Filter as per params var orderedSubjects = subjects .OrderBy<Subject, string>( s => s.Col_zero ); var filteredSubjects = orderedSubjects .Skip<Subject>(start) .Take<Subject>(count);

    Read the article

  • Optimize a MySQL count each duplicate Query

    - by Onema
    I have the following query That gets the city name, city id, the region name, and a count of duplicate names for that record: SELECT Country_CA.City AS currentCity, Country_CA.CityID, globe_region.region_name, ( SELECT count(Country_CA.City) FROM Country_CA WHERE City LIKE currentCity ) as counter FROM Country_CA LEFT JOIN globe_region ON globe_region.region_id = Country_CA.RegionID AND globe_region.country_code = Country_CA.CountryCode ORDER BY City This example is for Canada, and the cities will be displayed on a dropdown list. There are a few towns in Canada, and in other countries, that have the same names. Therefore I want to know if there is more than one town with the same name region name will be appended to the town name. Region names are found in the globe_region table. Country_CA and globe_region look similar to this (I have changed a few things for visualization purposes) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Country_CA` ( `City` varchar(75) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `RegionID` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CountryCode` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CityID` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`City`,`RegionID`), KEY `CityID` (`CityID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; AND CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `globe_region` ( `country_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_name` varchar(50) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`country_code`,`region_code`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; The query on the top does exactly what I want it to do, but It takes way too long to generate a list for 5000 records. I would like to know if there is a way to optimize the sub-query in order to obtain the same results faster. the results should look like this City CityID region_name counter sheraton 2349269 British Columbia 1 sherbrooke 2349270 Quebec 2 sherbrooke 2349271 Nova Scotia 2 shere 2349273 British Columbia 1 sherridon 2349274 Manitoba 1

    Read the article

  • Can Bonjour browse a service with a particular name?

    - by Roman
    Bonjour provides "DNSSD.browse(serviceType,callBackObject)" method which browses for services of a particular type. If a service of the given type is found, Bonjour call "callBackObject.serviceFound". If the service is lost, Bonjour calls "callBackObject.serviceLost". I alway considered "DNSSD.browse" as a method for monitoring a particular service. Bonjour monitors a particular service and calls necessary method if the service is found (available) or lost (not available). But than I realized that "DNSSD.browse" receives (as argument) a type of service (for example "http.tcp") and there can be several services of this type. So, its probably calls "serviceFound" and "serviceLost" if any service of the specified type is found or lost, respectively. But in my application I would like to browse just for one particular service. What is the best way to do it? I have two potential solutions: When I register a service, I give it a unique type. For example: "server1.http.tcp". I register services with unique names (not types) and ask Bonjour to browse for services with particular names. But I am not sure that Bonjour provide such possibility. Can it browse for services with specific names?

    Read the article

  • WCF - Contract Name could not be found in the list of contracts

    - by user208662
    Hello, I am relatively new to WCF. However, I need to create a service that exposes data to both Silverlight and AJAX client applications. In an attempt to accomplish this, I have created the following service to serve as a proof of concept: [ServiceContract(Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public interface IJsonService { [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat=WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] List<String> JsonFindNames(); } [ServiceContract(Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public interface IWsService { [OperationContract(Name="FindNames")] List<String> WsFindNames(); } [ServiceBehavior(Name="myService", Namespace="urn:MyCompany.MyProject.Services")] public class myService : IJsonService, IWsService { public List<String> JsonFindNames() { return FindNames(); } public List<String> WsFindNames() { return FindNames(name); } public List<string> FindNames() { List<string> names = List<string>(); names.Add("Alan"); names.Add("Bill"); return results; } } When I try to access this service, I receive the following error: The contract name 'myService' could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service 'myService'. What is the cause of this? How do I fix this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

    Read the article

  • Set ContentTemplate in CodeBehind: XamlParseException 2260 Error

    - by user362215
    Hi, I'd like to change the ContentTemplate of a ContentPresenter in the CodeBehind file. But if I run the Silverlight 4 application a XamlParseException with the error code 2260 occures. foreach (ContentPresenter item in Headers) { item.ContentTemplate = Parent.UnselectedHeaderTemplate; } if ((index >= 0) && (index < Headers.Count)) { ContentPresenter item0 = (ContentPresenter)Headers[index]; item0.ContentTemplate = Parent.SelectedHeaderTemplate; } If I do only the foreach code without the code in the "if", it works. And if I only do the code in the "if" without the foreach it works too. But togheter (the "if"-code and the foreach-code) it doesn't work. I have no idea why it doesn't work. The two templates look like this: <Setter Property="UnselectedHeaderTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <DataTemplate> <ContentControl Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=Content}" Margin="10,-10" FontSize="72" Foreground="#FF999999" CacheMode="BitmapCache"/> </DataTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <!-- SelectedHeader template --> <Setter Property="SelectedHeaderTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <DataTemplate> <ContentControl Content="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Path=Content}" Margin="10,-10" FontSize="72" Foreground="{TemplateBinding Foreground}" CacheMode="BitmapCache"/> </DataTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> If you have an idea what problem is please tell me.

    Read the article

  • php and mysql listing databases and looping through results

    - by Jacksta
    Beginner help needed :) I am doign an example form a php book which lists tables in databases. I am getting an error on line 36: $db_list .= "$table_list"; <?php //connect to database $connection = mysql_connect("localhost", "admin_cantsayno", "cantsayno") or die(mysql_error()); //list databases $dbs = @mysql_list_dbs($connection) or die(mysql_error()); //start first bullet list $db_list = "<ul>"; $db_num = 0; //loop through results of functions while ($db_num < mysql_num_rows($dbs)) { //get database names and make each a list point $db_names[$db_num] = mysql_tablename($dbs, $db_num); $db_list .= "<li>$db_names[$db_num]"; //get table names and make another list $tables = @mysql_list_tables($db_names[$db_num]) or die(mysql_error()); $table_list = "<ul>"; $table_num = 0; //loop through results of function while ($table_num < mysql_num_rows($tables)){ //get table names and make each bullet point $table_names[$table_num] = mysql_tablename($tables, $table_num); $table_list .= "<li>$table_names[$table_num]"; $table_num++; } //close inner bullet list and increment number to continue $table_list .= "</ul>" $db_list .= "$table_list"; $db_num++; } //close outer bullet list $db_list .= "</ul>"; ?> <html> <head> <title>MySQL Tables</title> </head> <body> <p><strong>Data bases and tables on local host</strong></p> <? echo "$db_list"; ?> </body>

    Read the article

  • .change(function) can control two command

    - by klox
    dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

    Read the article

  • Multiple use of a form before it is submitted

    - by OregonTrail
    I'm new to JavaScript, and trying to figure out the canonical way to do the following. I have a form with some checkboxes and a selector. Let's say the checkboxes are styles of music and the selector is for people's names. I'd like the user to be able to select the styles of music for each of the people's names and then submit the form with all of the data. For example, the user might first check off Classical, Jazz, Rock, and Pop and choose "Joe", then select Jazz, Pop, Country, and Electronica and choose "Jane". So there would have to be two different buttons for "submit person" and "submit form". I would like to: Have a list of the names and their chosen styles populate below the form, for feedback Allow the user to use the form as much as they want, and then submit all the data at the end I get the feeling that using jquery and JSON is perfect for this, but I'm not sure what search terminology to use to figure out how to do this. If it matters, the form will be processed by a Django view in Python.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to create a python iterator over pre-defined mutable data?

    - by Wilduck
    I might be doing this wrong, if I am, let me know, but I'm curious if the following is possible: I have a class that holds a number of dictionaries, each of which pairs names to a different set of objects of a given class. For example: items = {"ball" : ItemInstance1, "sword" : ItemInstance2} people = {"Jerry" : PersonInstance1, "Bob" : PersonInstance2, "Jill" : PersonInstance3} My class would then hold the current items and people that are availible, and these would be subject to change as the state changes: Class State: def __init__(self, items, people): self.items = items self.people = people I would like to define a iter() and next() method such that it iterates through all of the values in its attributes. My first question is whether or not this is possible. If it is, will it be able to support a situation as follows: I define items and people as above then: state = State(items, people) for names, thing in state: print name + " is " + thing.color items[cheese] = ItemInstance3 for names, thing in state: print name + " weighs " + thing.weight While I feel like this would be usefull in the code I have, I don't know if it's either possible or the right approach. Everything I've read about user defined iterators has suggested that each instance of them is one use only.

    Read the article

  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

    Read the article

  • how to return response from post in a variable? jQuery

    - by robertdd
    i use this function to return the response of post: $.sendpost = function(){ return jQuery.post('inc/operations.php', {'operation':'test'}, "json"); }, i want to make something like this: in: $.another = function(){ var sendpost = $.sendpost(); alert(sendpost); } but i get: [object XMLHttpRequest] if i print the object with: jQuery.each(sendpost, function(i, val) { $(".displaydetails").append(i + " => " + val + "<br/>"); }); i get: details abort => function () { x && h.call(x); g("abort"); } dispatchEvent => function dispatchEvent() { [native code] } removeEventListener => function removeEventListener() { [native code] } open => function open() { [native code] } setRequestHeader => function setRequestHeader() { [native code] } onreadystatechange => [xpconnect wrapped nsIDOMEventListener] send => function send() { [native code] } readyState => 4 status => 200 getResponseHeader => function getResponseHeader() { [native code] } responseText => mdaaa from php how to return only the response in the variable?

    Read the article

  • GridView will not update underlying data source

    - by John Christensen
    So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

    Read the article

  • Coding Practices which enable the compiler/optimizer to make a faster program.

    - by EvilTeach
    Many years ago, C compilers were not particularly smart. As a workaround K&R invented the register keyword, to hint to the compiler, that maybe it would be a good idea to keep this variable in an internal register. They also made the tertiary operator to help generate better code. As time passed, the compilers matured. They became very smart in that their flow analysis allowing them to make better decisions about what values to hold in registers than you could possibly do. The register keyword became unimportant. FORTRAN can be faster than C for some sorts of operations, due to alias issues. In theory with careful coding, one can get around this restriction to enable the optimizer to generate faster code. What coding practices are available that may enable the compiler/optimizer to generate faster code? Identifying the platform and compiler you use, would be appreciated. Why does the technique seem to work? Sample code is encouraged. Here is a related question [Edit] This question is not about the overall process to profile, and optimize. Assume that the program has been written correctly, compiled with full optimization, tested and put into production. There may be constructs in your code that prohibit the optimizer from doing the best job that it can. What can you do to refactor that will remove these prohibitions, and allow the optimizer to generate even faster code? [Edit] Offset related link

    Read the article

  • most efficient method of turning multiple 1D arrays into columns of a 2D array

    - by Ty W
    As I was writing a for loop earlier today, I thought that there must be a neater way of doing this... so I figured I'd ask. I looked briefly for a duplicate question but didn't see anything obvious. The Problem: Given N arrays of length M, turn them into a M-row by N-column 2D array Example: $id = [1,5,2,8,6] $name = [a,b,c,d,e] $result = [[1,a], [5,b], [2,c], [8,d], [6,e]] My Solution: Pretty straight forward and probably not optimal, but it does work: <?php // $row is returned from a DB query // $row['<var>'] is a comma separated string of values $categories = array(); $ids = explode(",", $row['ids']); $names = explode(",", $row['names']); $titles = explode(",", $row['titles']); for($i = 0; $i < count($ids); $i++) { $categories[] = array("id" => $ids[$i], "name" => $names[$i], "title" => $titles[$i]); } ?> note: I didn't put the name = value bit in the spec, but it'd be awesome if there was some way to keep that as well.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501  | Next Page >