Search Results

Search found 13829 results on 554 pages for 'temporary objects'.

Page 497/554 | < Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >

• Separation of business logic

  - by bruno

  When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and separate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other solution, is just to separate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So I'm asking for your opinions.

  Read the article

• Thread-Safe lazy instantiating using MEF

  - by Xaqron

  // Member Variable private static readonly object _syncLock = new object(); // Now inside a static method foreach (var lazyObject in plugins) { if ((string)lazyObject.Metadata["key"] = "something") { lock (_syncLock) { // It seems the `IsValueCreated` is not up-to-date if (!lazyObject.IsValueCreated) lazyObject.value.DoSomething(); } return lazyObject.value; } } Here I need synchronized access per loop. There are many threads iterating this loop and based on the key they are looking for, a lazy instance is created and returned. lazyObject should not be created more that one time. Although Lazy class is for doing so and despite of the used lock, under high threading I have more than one instance created (I track this with a Interlocked.Increment on a volatile static int and log it somewhere). The problem is I don't have access to definition of Lazy and MEF defines how the Lazy class create objects. I should notice the CompositionContainer has a thread-safe option in constructor which is already used. My questions: 1) Why the lock doesn't work ? 2) Should I use an array of locks instead of one lock for performance improvement ?

  Read the article

• C++ Design Question on template types

  - by user231536

  I have a templated class template <typename T> class MyContainerClass For types to be substituted for T, it has to satisfy many requirements: for example, get_id(), int data(), etc. Obviously none of the fundamental types (PODs) are substitutable. One way I can provide this is via wrappers for the PODs that provide these functions. Is this an acceptable way? Another way would be to change the template to: template < typename T, typename C=traits<T> > class MyContainerClass and inside MyContainerClass, call traits::data() instead of data() on T objects. I will specialize traits<int>, traits<const char *> etc. Is this good design ? How do I design such a traits class (completely static methods or allow for inheritance) ? Or are the wrapper classes a good solution? What other alternatives are there?

  Read the article

• Python, lambda, find minimum

  - by qba

  I have foreach function which calls specified function on every element which it contains. I want to get minimum from thise elements but I have no idea how to write lambda or function or even a class that would manage that. Thanks for every help. I use my foreach function like this: o.foreach( lambda i: i.call() ) or o.foreach( I.call ) I don't like to make a lists or other objects. I want to iterate trough it and find min. I manage to write a class that do the think but there should be some better solution than that: class Min: def __init__(self,i): self.i = i def get_min(self): return self.i def set_val(self,o): if o.val < self.i: self.i = o.val m = Min( xmin ) self.foreach( m.set_val ) xmin = m.get_min() Ok, so I suppose that my .foreach method is non-python idea. I should do my Class iterable because all your solutions are based on lists and then everything will become easier. In C# there would be no problem with lambda function like that, so I though that python is also that powerful.

  Read the article

• JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

  - by John

  I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

  Read the article

• Does Entity Framework saves related classes automatically?

  - by herbatnic

  Let's assume that we have such classes public class A{ string someField { get; set; } public virtual B B {get; set; } } public class B { int someIntField {get; set; } [ForeignKey("Id")] [Required] public virtual A A { get; set; } } In code I create new instances for both of them and making relation like: A a = new A () { someField = "abcd"}; B b = new B () { someIntField = 42 }; A.B = b; B.A = a; Should I using DBContext to save both classes like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.Bs.Add(B); myDBContext.SaveChanges(); } Or saving it like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.SaveChanges(); } is enough to store related objects into database?

  Read the article

• Why do touches only get detected ABOVE my CCBitmapFontAtlas and not ON it? (cocos2d)

  - by RexOnRoids

  I am detecting touches for CCBitmapFontAtlas (just text labels) as shown in the code below. But it seems that touches are only detected slightly ABOVE the CCBitmapFontAtlases? Did something get screwed when converting between coordinate systems? (*Note objects label1, label2, etc are CCBitmapFontAtlas) - (void)ccTouchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for( UITouch *touch in touches ) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:[touch view]]; location = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL:location]; self.myGraphManager.isSliding = NO; CGRect rectLabel1 = CGRectMake(label1.position.x, label1.position.y, label1.contentSize.width, label1.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel2 = CGRectMake(label2.position.x, label2.position.y, label2.contentSize.width, label2.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel3 = CGRectMake(label3.position.x, label3.position.y, label3.contentSize.width, label3.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel4 = CGRectMake(label4.position.x, label4.position.y, label4.contentSize.width, label4.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel5 = CGRectMake(label5.position.x, label5.position.y, label5.contentSize.width, label5.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel6 = CGRectMake(label6.position.x, label6.position.y, label6.contentSize.width, label6.contentSize.height); if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel1, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 1 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel2, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 2 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel3, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 3 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel4, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 4 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel5, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 5 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel6, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 6 Touched"); } } }

  Read the article

• What is the best way of doing this? (WCF 4)

  - by Jason Porter

  I have a multith-threaded, continusly running application that connects with multiple devices via TCP/IP sockets and exposes a set of WCF API's for controlling, monitoring and reporting on these devices. I would like to host this on IIS for the ususal reasons of not having to worry about re-starting the app in case of errors. So the issue I have is the main application running in parallel with the WCF Servies. To accomplish this I use the static AppInitialize class to start a thread which has the main applicaiton loop. The WCF services mostly report or control the shared objects with this thread. There are two problems that I see with this approach. One is that if the thread dies, IIS has no clue to re-start it so I have to play some tricks with some WCF calls. The other is that the backrgound thread deals with potentially thousands of devices that are connected permanently (typically a thread per socket connection). So I am not sure if IIS is buying me anything in this case. Another approach that I am thinking is to use WF for the main application that deals with the sockets and host both the WF and my WCF services in IIS using AppFabric. Since I have not use WF or AppFabric I am reaching out to see if this would be good approach or there are better alternative.

  Read the article

• Is it advisable to have an interface as the return type?

  - by wb

  I have a set of classes with the same functions but with different logic. However, each class function can return a number of objects. It is safe to set the return type as the interface? Each class (all using the same interface) is doing this with different business logic. protected IMessage validateReturnType; <-- This is in an abstract class public bool IsValid() <-- This is in an abstract class { return (validateReturnType.GetType() == typeof(Success)); } public IMessage Validate() { if (name.Length < 5) { validateReturnType = new Error("Name must be 5 characters or greater."); } else { validateReturnType = new Success("Name is valid."); } return validateReturnType; } Are there any pitfalls with unit testing the return type of an function? Also, is it considered bad design to have functions needing to be run in order for them to succeed? In this example, Validate() would have to be run before IsValid() or else IsValid() would always return false. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Can't call an object method. PHP reports variable undefined

  - by user1285697

  This is the weirdest bug! It is probably something silly, but I have no idea how to fix it. If anyone could help, I would be most grateful! I have three files, one is called items.php, another is called tableFunctions.php, and the third is called mysql.php. I use two global objects called 'mysql' and 'tableFunctions'. They are stored in the files 'mysql.php', and 'tableFunctions.php', respectively. In each file, I create an instance of its object, assigning it to the global variable $_mysql, or $_table. like this: In the file mysql.php: global $_mysql; $_mysql = new mysql(); In the file tableFunctions.php: global $_table; $_table = new tableFunctions(); Here's how it is supposed to work: The items.php file includes the tableFunctions.php file... Which in turn, needs the mysql.php file, so it includes it too. In the items.php file, I call the method getTable(), which is contained in the object tableFunctions.(and in the variable $_table.) Like this: $t = $_table->getTable('items'); The getTable function calls the method, arrayFromResult(), which is contained within in the object mysql.(and in the variable $_mysql.) Like this: $result = $_mysql->arrayFromResult($r); That's where I get the error. PHP says that the variable '$_mysql' is undefined, but I defined it in the 'mysql.php' file.(see above) I also included mysql.php with the following code: include_once 'mysql.php'; I have no idea what is wrong! If anyone can help that would be much appreciated. The source files can be downloaded with the following link: https://www.dropbox.com/sh/bjj2gyjsybym89r/YLxqyNvQdn

  Read the article

• iPhone application purchase verification -- possible?

  - by Sedate Alien

  The iPhone 3.0 SDK's StoreKit.framework provides support for in-app purchases to give the user additional content, functionality and so on. It is possible for an app to send the transactionReceipt property of SKPaymentTransaction objects to the developer's server for verification of successful purchasing before granting service. Is there any analogous SDK to verify the initial application purchase itself? A developer that wishes for their server to only provide services to genuine applications (i.e. not pirated) without using IAP could do so by verifying the application in this manner, e.g. ensure that only users with the correct transactionReceipt are catered for. I understand that this approach would still be vulnerable to replay attacks; a dedicated group of pirates could share a valid transactionReceipt. However, my server provides a consumable service to users, i.e. once they've connected and done the work, it needn't work a second time so replay attacks are nullified. The service that my app provides is relatively niche. I could distribute it on the App Store as a free application that requires at least one IAP to do anything useful, but I am lead to believe that this would be a very unpopular move among users as it would be considered misleading. If I distribute it as a paid app, I do not know how to ensure that only genuine apps can access the webservice. This is important as every invocation of the webservice costs me money! What are my options?

  Read the article

• How to speed-up a simple method (preferably without changing interfaces or data structures)?

  - by baol

  I have some data structures: all_unordered_m is a big vector containing all the strings I need (all different) ordered_m is a small vector containing the indexes of a subset of the strings (all different) in the former vector position_m maps the indexes of objects from the first vector to their position in the second one. The string_after(index, reverse) method returns the string referenced by ordered_m after all_unordered_m[index]. ordered_m is considered circular, and is explored in natural or reverse order depending on the second parameter. The code is something like the following: struct ordered_subset { // [...] std::vector<std::string>& all_unordered_m; // size = n >> 1 std::vector<size_t> ordered_m; // size << n std::tr1::unordered_map<size_t, size_t> position_m; const std::string& string_after(size_t index, bool reverse) const { size_t pos = position_m.find(index)->second; if(reverse) pos = (pos == 0 ? orderd_m.size() - 1 : pos - 1); else pos = (pos == ordered.size() - 1 ? 0 : pos + 1); return all_unordered_m[ordered_m[pos]]; } }; Given that: I do need all of the data-structures for other purposes; I cannot change them because I need to access the strings: by their id in the all_unordered_m; by their index inside the various ordered_m; I need to know the position of a string (identified by it's position in the first vector) inside ordered_m vector; I cannot change the string_after interface without changing most of the program. How can I speed up the string_after method that is called billions of times and is eating up about 10% of the execution time?

  Read the article

• Serialization for memcached

  - by Ram

  I have this huge domain object(say parent) which contains other domain objects. It takes a lot of time to "create" this parent object by querying a DB (OK we are optimizing the DB). So we decided to cache it using memcached (with northscale to be specific) So I have gone through my code and marked all the classes (I think) as [Serializable], but when I add it to the cache, I see a Serialization Exception getting thrown in my VS.net output window. var cache = new NorthScaleClient("MyBucket"); cache.Store(StoreMode.Set, key, value); This is the exception: A first chance exception of type 'System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException' occurred in mscorlib.dll SO my guess is, I have not marked all classes as [Serializable]. I am not using any third party libraries and can mark any class as [Serializable], but how do I find out which class is failing when the cache is trying to serialize the object ? Edit1: casperOne comments make me think. I was able to cache these domain object with Microsoft Cache Application Block without marking them [Serializable], but not with NorthScale memcached. It makes me think that there might be something to do with their implementation, but just out of curiosity, am still interested in finding where it fails when trying to add the object to memcached

  Read the article

• Applying a function that may fail to all values in a list

  - by Egwor

  I want to apply a function f to a list of values, however function f might randomly fail (it is in effect making a call out to a service in the cloud). I thought I'd want to use something like map, but I want to apply the function to all elements in the list and afterwards, I want to know which ones failed and which were successful. Currently I am wrapping the response objects of the function f with an error pair which I could then effectively unzip afterwards i.e. something like g : (a->b) -> a -> [ b, errorBoolean] f : a-> b and then to run the code ... map g (xs) Is there a better way to do this? The other alternative approach was to iterate over the values in the array and then return a pair of arrays, one which listed the successful values and one which listed the failures. To me, this seems to be something that ought to be fairly common. Alternatively I could return some special value. What's the best practice in dealing with this??

  Read the article

• WCF - Return object without serializing?

  - by Mayo

  One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

  Read the article

• Entityframework duplicate record on second insert

  - by Delysid

  I am building an application for recipe/meal planning, and i have come across a problem i cant seem to figure out. i have a table for units of measure, where i keep the used units in, i only want unique units in here (for grocery list calculation and so forth) but if i use a unit from the table on a recipe, the first time it is okay, nothing is inserted in units of measure, but the second time i get a "duplicate". i suspect it has something to do with entitykey, because the primary key is identity column on the sql server (2008 r2) for some reason it works to change the objectstate on some objects (courses, see code) and that does not generate a duplicate, but that does not work on the unit of measure my insert methods looks like this : public recipe Create(recipe recipe) { using (RecipeDataContext ctx = new RecipeDataContext()) { foreach (recipe_ingredient rec_ing in recipe.recipe_ingredient) { if (rec_ing.ingredient.ingredient_id == 0) { ingredient ing = (from _ing in ctx.ingredients where _ing.name == rec_ing.ingredient.name select _ing).FirstOrDefault(); if (ing != null) { rec_ing.ingredient_id = ing.ingredient_id; rec_ing.ingredient = null; } } if (rec_ing.unit_of_measure.unit_of_measure_id == 0) { unit_of_measure _uom = (from dbUom in ctx.unit_of_measure where dbUom.unit == rec_ing.unit_of_measure.unit select dbUom).FirstOrDefault(); if (_uom != null) { rec_ing.unit_of_measure_id = _uom.unit_of_measure_id; rec_ing.unit_of_measure = null; } } ctx.Recipes.AddObject(recipe); //for some reason it works to change object state of this, and not generate a duplicate ctx.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(recipe.courses[0], EntityState.Unchanged); } ctx.SaveChanges(); } return recipe; } My datamodel looks like this : http://i.imgur.com/NMwZv.png

  Read the article

• What happens when you create an instance of an object containing no state in C#?

  - by liquorice

  I am I think ok at algorithmic programming, if that is the right term? I used to play with turbo pascal and 8086 assembly language back in the 1980s as a hobby. But only very small projects and I haven't really done any programming in the 20ish years since then. So I am struggling for understanding like a drowning swimmer. So maybe this is a very niave question or I'm just making no sense at all, but say I have an object kind of like this: class Something : IDoer { void Do(ISomethingElse x) { x.DoWhatEverYouWant(42); } } And then I do var Thing1 = new Something(); var Thing2 = new Something(); Thing1.Do(blah); Thing2.Do(blah); does Thing1 = Thing2? does "new Something()" create anything? Or is it not much different different from having a static class, except I can pass it around and swap it out etc. Is the "Do" procedure in the same location in memory for both the Thing1(blah) and Thing2(blah) objects? I mean when executing it, does it mean there are two Something.Do procedures or just one?

  Read the article

• Determining an object's variable name dynamically?

  - by ZenBlender

  Let's say I have some objects: ArrayList<SomeObject> list = new ArrayList<SomeObject>(); SomeObject A = new SomeObject(); SomeObject B = new SomeObject(); SomeObject C = new SomeObject(); SomeObject D = new SomeObject(); These constructors automatically add each object to the ArrayList so I can iterate over them but still maintain the variable names for direct access: public SomeObject(){ // init stuff here list.add(this); } But then, let's say I want to output some debug info, and iterate through list and print out the NAME of each object? How can I do that? Essentially, when "SomeObject A = new SomeObject();" is executed, I want to use reflection (if possible) to determine that this variable's name is "A" (a String) and either store that in the object when the constructor executes, or determine it dynamically through reflection when referencing this object with the variable named "A". Does that make sense? How can I do this? Thanks!

  Read the article

• How To Delete objet whit mouse click ?

  - by Meko

  Hi all. I made a simple FlowChat Editor that creates rectangles and triangles and connect them each other and shows the way from up to down. I can move this elements on screen to .But I am tying to create button to delete element which I clicked. There is problem that I can delete mytriangle object but but I cant delete myRectangle objects.It deletes but not object which i clicked.I delete from first object to last ..Here my code ... if (deleteObj) { if (rectsList.size() != 0) { for (int i = 0; i < rectsList.size(); i++) { MyRect rect = (MyRect) rectsList.get(i); if (e.getX() <= rect.c.x + 50 && e.getX() >= rect.c.x - 50 && e.getY() <= rect.c.y + 15 && e.getY() >= rect.c.y - 15) { rectsList.remove(rect); System.out.println("This is REctangle DELETED\n"); } } } if (triangleList.size() != 0) { for (int j = 0; j < triangleList.size(); j++) { MyTriangle trian = (MyTriangle) triangleList.get(j); if (e.getX() <= trian.c.x + 20 && e.getX() >= trian.c.x - 20 && e.getY() <= trian.c.y + 20 && e.getY() >= trian.c.y - 20) { triangleList.remove(trian); System.out.println("This is Triangle Deleted\n"); } } }

  Read the article

• Creation of model in core data on the fly

  - by user1740045

  How can we create a model in core data on the fly? I.e getting the schema of database from somewhere and then creating a Core Data Object graph? *QuesTion:* Yes thats fine, agreed with all the advantages. But, can anybody can tell practically, what is the benefit of integrating Core Data into project instead of using SQL directly. 1.No need to write SQL boiler plate code [but need to learn Core Data Model (steep curve)] 2.WE can undo and redo changes [but practically who needs it] 3.we can migrate to another schema [that can be done by SQLite as well jus need to add another field into table] 4.For say aggregation on some field in table,in Core Data we need to loop through Core Data Objects whereas in SQLite we need to first write SQLite Boiler Plate Code and then the basic aggregation SQL query,which is easy to write,only length of code will increase...But in case of Core Data (need to learn a lot). So apart from reducing the length of Code,does it actually adds value to project? or in terms of Memory Efficiency,Performance,etc.. PS: If anybody has actualy worked on Core Data(Model Creation On the Fly) , if possible share and gve pointers..thanks!

  Read the article

• AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

  - by user359519

  (Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

  Read the article

• iPad search bar bad memory access?

  - by Geoff Baum

  Hello all, So I am trying to implement a search bar in my app and am very close but can't seem to figure out where this memory error is occurring. This is what part of my search method looks like: filters = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *searchText = detailSearch.text; NSMutableArray *searchArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Normally holds the object (ex: 70 locations) searchArray = self.copyOfFilters ; //This is the line that is breaking after ~2-3 letters are entered in the search for (NSString *sTemp in searchArray) { NSRange titleResultsRange = [sTemp rangeOfString:searchText options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch]; if (titleResultsRange.length > 0) [filters addObject:sTemp]; } displayedFilters = filters; copyOfFilters is a deep copy of the displayed filters that appear when the view first loads via: self.copyOfFilters = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:displayedFilters copyItems:YES]; I have traced through the entry of letters and it is accurate after 2 letters, but once you try and enter a letter after a space in the search bar, it crashes. The value of copyOfFilters = {(int)[$VAR count]} objects. Does anyone know what may be causing this? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Best practice when removing entity regarding mappedBy collections?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I'm still kind of undecided which is the best practice to handle em.remove(entity) with this entity being in several collections mapped using mappedBy in JPA. Consider an entity like a Property that references three other entities: a Descriptor, a BusinessObject and a Level entity. The mapping is defined using @ManyToOne in the Property entity and using @OneToMany(mappedBy...) in the other three objects. That inverse mapping is defined because there are some situations where I need to access those collections. Whenever I remove a Property using em.remove(prop) this element is not automatically removed from managed entities of the other three types. If I don't care about that and the following page load (webapp) doesn't reload those entities the Property is still found and some decisions might be taken that are no longer true. The inverse mappings may become quite large and though I don't want to use something like descriptor.getProperties().remove(prop) because it will load all those properties that might have been lazy loaded until then. So my currently preferred way is to refresh the entity if it is managed: if (em.contains(descriptor)) em.refresh(descriptor) - which unloads a possibly loaded collection and triggers a reload upon the next access. Is there another feasible way to handle all those mappedBy collections of already loaded entites?

  Read the article

• Processing data from an AJAX request

  - by Josh K

  I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

  Read the article

• Framework/service for hosting and managing files

  - by Peteris Caune

  Hi, in a webapp I'm building there is a planned side feature of supporting product illustrations and manuals (so pictures and PDFs), possibly arranged in galleries. As I'd rather not implement from scratch all of the uploading, managing and serving of this content, I'm looking for existing solutions which I could integrate. For example, I'm considering Flickr--users of webapp specify their Flickr username and then use some naming convention to link objects in my webapp with pictures uploaded in their Flickr account. Very little code to write from my side, maybe just some API calls that proxy Flickr APIs, since Flickr would handle picture uploading, organizing them in sets, storing them in cloud and serving them in various sizes etc. One drawback here is that either all of the the pictures are public or I have to deal with interactive Flickr authorization. Also not sure if Flickr would be happy being used in such manner. What other online services or libraries/frameworks I should look at? My webapp is written in Python/Pylons, so Python libraries would be preferred. I'm already using some of Amazon infrastructure, so frontends to Amazon S3 would be cool. For online services, RESTful API would be nice.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >