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  • How can I implement a site with ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio) Suppose I want a basic MVC app with a controller, one view, and a simple model. What files would I need to create, and what would go into them?

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  • Hibernate3: Self-Referencing Objects

    - by monojohnny
    Need some help on understanding how to do this; I'm going to be running recursive 'find' on a file system and I want to keep the information in a single DB table - with a self-referencing hierarchial structure: This is my DB Table structure I want to populate. DirObject Table: id int NOT NULL, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, parentid int NOT NULL); Here is the proposed Java Class I want to map (Fields only shown): public DirObject { int id; String name; DirObject parent; ... For the 'root' directory was going to use parentid=0; real ids will start at 1, and ideally I want hibernate to autogenerate the ids. Can somebody provide a suggested mapping file for this please; as a secondary question I thought about doing the Java Class like this instead: public DirObject { int id; String name; List<DirObject> subdirs; Could I use the same data model for either of these two methods ? (With a different mapping file of course). --- UPDATE: so I tried the mapping file suggested below (thanks!), repeated here for reference: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="my.proj.DirObject" table="category"> ... <set name="subDirs" lazy="true" inverse="true"> <key column="parentId"/> <one-to-many class="my.proj.DirObject"/> </set> <many-to-one name="parent" class="my.proj.DirObject" column="parentId" cascade="all" /> </class> ...and altered my Java class to have BOTH 'parentid' and 'getSubDirs' [returning a 'HashSet']. This appears to work - thanks, but this is the test code I used to drive this - I think I'm not doing something right here, because I thought Hibernate would take care of saving the subordinate objects in the Set without me having to do this explicitly ? DirObject dirobject=new DirObject(); dirobject.setName("/files"); dirobject.setParent(dirobject); DirObject d1, d2; d1=new DirObject(); d1.setName("subdir1"); d1.setParent(dirobject); d2=new DirObject(); d2.setName("subdir2"); d2.setParent(dirobject); HashSet<DirObject> subdirs=new HashSet<DirObject>(); subdirs.add(d1); subdirs.add(d2); dirobject.setSubdirs(subdirs); session.save(dirobject); session.save(d1); session.save(d2);

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  • Is there a scheduling algorithm that optimizes for "maker's schedules"?

    - by John Feminella
    You may be familiar with Paul Graham's essay, "Maker's Schedule, Manager's Schedule". The crux of the essay is that for creative and technical professionals, meetings are anathema to productivity, because they tend to lead to "schedule fragmentation", breaking up free time into chunks that are too small to acquire the focus needed to solve difficult problems. In my firm we've seen significant benefits by minimizing the amount of disruption caused, but the brute-force algorithm we use to decide schedules is not sophisticated enough to handle scheduling large groups of people well. (*) What I'm looking for is if there's are any well-known algorithms which minimize this productivity disruption, among a group of N makers and managers. In our model, There are N people. Each person pi is either a maker (Mk) or a manager (Mg). Each person has a schedule si. Everyone's schedule is H hours long. A schedule consists of a series of non-overlapping intervals si = [h1, ..., hj]. An interval is either free or busy. Two adjacent free intervals are equivalent to a single free interval that spans both. A maker's productivity is maximized when the number of free intervals is minimized. A manager's productivity is maximized when the total length of free intervals is maximized. Notice that if there are no meetings, both the makers and the managers experience optimum productivity. If meetings must be scheduled, then makers prefer that meetings happen back-to-back, while managers don't care where the meeting goes. Note that because all disruptions are treated as equally harmful to makers, there's no difference between a meeting that lasts 1 second and a meeting that lasts 3 hours if it segments the available free time. The problem is to decide how to schedule M different meetings involving arbitrary numbers of the N people, where each person in a given meeting must place a busy interval into their schedule such that it doesn't overlap with any other busy interval. For each meeting Mt the start time for the busy interval must be the same for all parties. Does an algorithm exist to solve this problem or one similar to it? My first thought was that this looks really similar to defragmentation (minimize number of distinct chunks), and there are a lot of algorithms about that. But defragmentation doesn't have much to do with scheduling. Thoughts? (*) Practically speaking this is not really a problem, because it's rare that we have meetings with more than ~5 people at once, so the space of possibilities is small.

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  • Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

    - by swilliams
    Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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  • The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

    - by AndrewO
    I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

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  • Clojure vars and Java static methods

    - by j-g-faustus
    I'm a few days into learning Clojure and are having some teething problems, so I'm asking for advice. I'm trying to store a Java class in a Clojure var and call its static methods, but it doesn't work. Example: user=> (. java.lang.reflect.Modifier isPrivate 1) false user=> (def jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) #'user/jmod user=> (. jmod isPrivate 1) java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: No matching method found: isPrivate for class java.lang.Class (NO_SOURCE_FILE:0) at clojure.lang.Compiler.eval(Compiler.java:4543) From the exception it looks like the runtime expects a var to hold an object, so it calls .getClass() to get the class and looks up the method using reflection. In this case the var already holds a class, so .getClass() returns java.lang.Class and the method lookup obviously fails. Is there some way around this, other than writing my own macro? In the general case I'd like to have either an object or a class in a varible and call the appropriate methods on it - duck typing for static methods as well as for instance methods. In this specific case I'd just like a shorter name for java.lang.reflect.Modifier, an alias if you wish. I know about import, but looking for something more general, like the Clojure namespace alias but for Java classes. Are there other mechanisms for doing this? Edit: Maybe I'm just confused about the calling conventions here. I thought the Lisp (and by extension Clojure) model was to evaluate all arguments and call the first element in the list as a function. In this case (= jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) returns true, and (.getName jmod) and (.getName java.lang.reflect.Modifier) both return the same string. So the variable and the class name clearly evaluate to the same thing, but they still cannot be called in the same fashion. What's going on here? Edit 2 Answering my second question (what is happening here), the Clojure doc says that If the first operand is a symbol that resolves to a class name, the access is considered to be to a static member of the named class... Otherwise it is presumed to be an instance member http://clojure.org/java_interop under "The Dot special form" "Resolving to a class name" is apparently not the same as "evaluating to something that resolves to a class name", so what I am trying to do here is something the dot special form does not support.

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • POST parameters strangely parsed inside phantomjs

    - by user61629
    I am working with PHP/CURL and would like to send POST data to my phantomjs script, by setting the postfields array below: In my php controller I have: $data=array('first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith'); $url='http://localhost:7788/'; $output = $this->my_model->get_data($url,$data); In my php model I have: public function get_data($url,$postFieldArray) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookieFile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 6.0)"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postFieldArray); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); $output = curl_exec($ch); In my phantomJS script that I am running locally I have: // import the webserver module, and create a server var server = require('webserver').create(); var port = require('system').env.PORT || 7788; console.log("Start Application"); console.log("Listen port " + port); // Create serever and listen port server.listen(port, function(request, response) { // Print some information Just for debbug console.log("We got some requset !!!"); console.log("request method: ", request.method); // request.method POST or GET if(request.method == 'POST' ){ console.log("POST params should be next: "); console.log("POST params: ",request.post); exit; } I first start and run the phantomjs script (myscript.js) from the command line, then I run my php script. The output is: $ phantomjs.exe myscript.js Start Application Listen port 7788 null We got some requset !!! request method: POST POST params should be next: POST params: ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="first" John ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="last" Smith ------------------------------e70d439800f9-- I'm confused about the the output. I was expecting something more like: first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith Can someone explain why it looks this way? How can I parse the request.post object to assign to variables inside myscript.js

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  • CI pagination, POST problem

    - by Gwood
    Okay, I am pretty new in CI and I am stuck on pagination. I am performing this pagination on a record set that is result of a query. Now everything seems to be working fine. But there’s some problem probably with the link. I am displaying 10 results per page. Now if the results are less than 10 then it’s fine. Or If I pull up the entire records in the table it works fine. But in case the result is more than 10 rows, then the first 10 is perfectly displayed, and when I click on the pagination link to get to the next page the next page displays the rest of the results from the query as well as, other records in the table. ??? I am confused.. Any help?? Here’s the model code I am using .... function getTeesLike($field,$param) { $this-db-like($field,$param); $this-db-limit(10, $this-uri-segment(3)); $query=$this-db-get(‘shirt’); if($query-num_rows()0){ return $query-result_array(); } } function getNumTeesfromQ($field,$param) { $this-db-like($field,$param); $query=$this-db-get(‘shirt’); return $query-num_rows(); } And here’s the controller code .... $KW=$this-input-post(‘searchstr’); $this-load-library(‘pagination’); $config[‘base_url’]=‘http://localhost/cit/index.php/tees/show/’; $config[‘total_rows’]=$this-T-getNumTeesfromQ(‘Title’,$KW); $config[‘per_page’]=‘10’; $this-pagination-initialize($config); $data[‘tees’]=$this-T-getTeesLike(‘Title’,$KW); $data[‘title’]=‘Displaying Tees data’; $data[‘header’]=‘Tees List’; $data[‘links’]=$this-pagination-create_links(); $this-load-view(‘tee_res’, $data); //What am I doing wrong here ???? Pls help ... I guess the problem is with the $KW=$this-input-post(‘searchstr’); .. Because if I hard code a value for $KW it works fine. May be I should use POST differently ..but how do I pass the value from the form without POSTING it , its CI so not GET ... ??????

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

    - by Simon
    Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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  • Rails populate edit form for non-column attributes

    - by Rabbott
    I have the following form: <% form_for(@account, :url => admin_accounts_path) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => {:f => f} %> <h2>Account Details</h2> <% f.fields_for :customer do |customer_fields| %> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :company %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :company %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :last_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :phone %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :phone %> </p> <% end %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> As well as attr_accessor :customer And I have a before_create method for the account model which does not store the customer_fields, but instead uses them to submit data to an API.. The only thing I store are in the form partial.. The problem I'm running into is that when a validation error gets thrown, the page renders the new action (expected) but none of the non-column attributes within the Account Detail form will show? Any ideas as to how I can change this code around a bit to make this work me?? This same solution may be the help I need for the edit form, I have a getter for the data which it asks the API for, but without place a :value = "asdf" within each text box, it doesn't populate the fields either..

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  • Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

    - by Ed Kirk
    On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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  • HLSL tex2d sampler seemingly using inconsistent rounding; why?

    - by RJFalconer
    Hello all, I have code that needs to render regions of my object differently depending on their location. I am trying to use a colour map to define these regions. The problem is when I sample from my colour map, I get collisions. Ie, two regions with different colours in the colourmap get the same value returned from the sampler. I've tried various formats of my colour map. I set the colours for each region to be "5" apart in each case; Indexed colour RGB, RGBA: region 1 will have RGB 5%,5%,5%. region 2 will have RGB 10%,10%,10% and so on. HSV Greyscale: region 1 will have HSV 0,0,5%. region 2 will have HSV 0,0,10% and so on. (Values selected in The Gimp) The tex2D sampler returns a value [0..1]. [ I then intend to derive an int array index from region. Code to do with that is unrelated, so has been removed from the question ] float region = tex2D(gColourmapSampler,In.UV).x; Sampling the "5%" colour gave a "region" of 0.05098 in hlsl. From this I assume the 5% represents 5/100*255, or 12.75, which is rounded to 13 when stored in the texture OR when sampled by the sampler; can't tell which. (Reasoning: 0.05098 * 255 ~= 13) By this logic, the 50% should be stored as 127.5. Sampled, I get 0.50196 which implies it was stored as 128. the 70% should be stored as 178.5. Sampled, I get 0.698039, which implies it was stored as 178. What rounding is going on here? (127.5 becomes 128, 178.5 becomes 178 ?!) Edit: OK, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bankers_rounding#Round_half_to_even Apparently this is "banker's rounding". Is this really what HLSL samplers use? I am using Shader Model 2 and FX Composer. This is my sampler declaration; //Colour map texture gColourmapTexture < string ResourceName = "Globe_Colourmap_Regions_Greyscale.png"; string ResourceType = "2D"; >; sampler2D gColourmapSampler : register(s1) = sampler_state { Texture = <gColourmapTexture>; #if DIRECT3D_VERSION >= 0xa00 Filter = MIN_MAG_MIP_LINEAR; #else /* DIRECT3D_VERSION < 0xa00 */ MinFilter = Linear; MipFilter = Linear; MagFilter = Linear; #endif /* DIRECT3D_VERSION */ AddressU = Clamp; AddressV = Clamp; };

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • How can I modify my classes to use it's collections in WPF TreeView

    - by Victor
    Hello, i'am trying to modify my objects to make hierarchical collection model. I need help. My objects are Good and GoodCategory: public class Good { int _ID; int _GoodCategory; string _GoodtName; public int ID { get { return _ID; } } public int GoodCategory { get { return _GoodCategory; } set { _GoodCategory = value; } } public string GoodName { get { return _GoodName; } set { _GoodName = value; } } public Good(IDataRecord record) { _ID = (int)record["ID"]; _GoodtCategory = (int)record["GoodCategory"]; } } public class GoodCategory { int _ID; string _CategoryName; public int ID { get { return _ID; } } public string CategoryName { get { return _CategoryName; } set { _CategoryName = value; } } public GoodCategory(IDataRecord record) { _ID = (int)record["ID"]; _CategoryName = (string)record["CategoryName"]; } } And I have two Collections of these objects: public class GoodsList : ObservableCollection<Good> { public GoodsList() { string goodQuery = @"SELECT `ID`, `ProductCategory`, `ProductName`, `ProductFullName` FROM `products`;"; using (MySqlConnection conn = ConnectToDatabase.OpenDatabase()) { if (conn != null) { MySqlCommand cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = productQuery; MySqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (rdr.Read()) { Add(new Good(rdr)); } } } } } public class GoodCategoryList : ObservableCollection<GoodCategory> { public GoodCategoryList () { string goodQuery = @"SELECT `ID`, `CategoryName` FROM `product_categoryes`;"; using (MySqlConnection conn = ConnectToDatabase.OpenDatabase()) { if (conn != null) { MySqlCommand cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = productQuery; MySqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (rdr.Read()) { Add(new GoodCategory(rdr)); } } } } } So I have two collections which takes data from the database. But I want to use thats collections in the WPF TreeView with HierarchicalDataTemplate. I saw many post's with examples of Hierarlichal Objects, but I steel don't know how to make my objects hierarchicaly. Please help.

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  • Setting up a "to-many" relationship value dependency for a transient Core Data attribute

    - by Greg Combs
    I've got a relatively complicated Core Data relationship structure and I'm trying to figure out how to set up value dependencies (or observations) across various to-many relationships. Let me start out with some basic info. I've got a classroom with students, assignments, and grades (students X assignments). For simplicity's sake, we don't really have to focus much on the assignments yet. StudentObj <--->> ScoreObj <<---> AssignmentObj Each ScoreObj has a to-one relation with the StudentObj and the AssignmentObj. ScoreObj has real attributes for the numerical grade, the turnInDate, and notes. AssignmentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that assignment (N = all students). AssignmentObj has real attributes for name, dueDate, curveFunction, gradeWeight, and maxPoints. StudentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that student (N = all assignments). StudentObj also has real attributes like name, studentID, email, etc. StudentObj has a transient (calculated, not stored) attribute called gradeTotal. This last item, gradeTotal, is the real pickle. it calculates the student's overall semester grade using the scores (ScoreObj) from all their assignments, their associated assignment gradeWeights, curves, and maxPoints, and various other things. This gradeTotal value is displayed in a table column, along with all the students and their individual assignment grades. Determining the value of gradeTotal is a relatively expensive operation, particularly with a large class, therefore I want to run it only when necessary. For simplicity's sake, I'm not storing that gradeTotal value in the core data model. I don't mind caching it somewhere, but I'm having a bitch of a time determining where and how to best update that cache. I need to run that calculation for each student whenever any value changes that affects their gradeTotal. If this were a simple to-one relationship, I know I could use something like keyPathsForValuesAffectingGradeTotal ... but it's more like a many-to-one-to-many relationship. Does anyone know of an elegant (and KVC correct) solution? I guess I could tear through all those score and assignment objects and tell them to register their students as observers. But this seems like a blunt force approach.

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  • Using pointers, references, handles to generic datatypes, as generic and flexible as possible

    - by Patrick
    In my application I have lots of different data types, e.g. Car, Bicycle, Person, ... (they're actually other data types, but this is just for the example). Since I also have quite some 'generic' code in my application, and the application was originally written in C, pointers to Car, Bicycle, Person, ... are often passed as void-pointers to these generic modules, together with an identification of the type, like this: Car myCar; ShowNiceDialog ((void *)&myCar, DATATYPE_CAR); The 'ShowNiceDialog' method now uses meta-information (functions that map DATATYPE_CAR to interfaces to get the actual data out of Car) to get information of the car, based on the given data type. That way, the generic logic only has to be written once, and not every time again for every new data type. Of course, in C++ you could make this much easier by using a common root class, like this class RootClass { public: string getName() const = 0; }; class Car : public RootClass { ... }; void ShowNiceDialog (RootClass *root); The problem is that in some cases, we don't want to store the data type in a class, but in a totally different format to save memory. In some cases we have hundreds of millions of instances that we need to manage in the application, and we don't want to make a full class for every instance. Suppose we have a data type with 2 characteristics: A quantity (double, 8 bytes) A boolean (1 byte) Although we only need 9 bytes to store this information, putting it in a class means that we need at least 16 bytes (because of the padding), and with the v-pointer we possibly even need 24 bytes. For hundreds of millions of instances, every byte counts (I have a 64-bit variant of the application and in some cases it needs 6 GB of memory). The void-pointer approach has the advantage that we can almost encode anything in a void-pointer and decide how to use it if we want information from it (use it as a real pointer, as an index, ...), but at the cost of type-safety. Templated solutions don't help since the generic logic forms quite a big part of the application, and we don't want to templatize all this. Additionally, the data model can be extended at run time, which also means that templates won't help. Are there better (and type-safer) ways to handle this than a void-pointer? Any references to frameworks, whitepapers, research material regarding this?

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  • Parallel programming in C#

    - by Alxandr
    I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

    - by MikeH
    I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

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  • Release management with a distributed version control system

    - by See Sharp Cheddar
    We're considering a switch from SVN to a distributed VCS at my workplace. I'm familiar with all the reasons for wanting to using a DVCS for day-to-day development: local version control, easier branching and merging, etc., but I haven't seen that much that's compelling in terms of managing software releases. Here's our release process: Discover what changes are available for merging. Run a query to find the defects/tickets associated with these changes. Filter out changes associated with "open" tickets. In our environment, tickets must be in a closed state in order to merged with a release branch. Filter out changes we don't want in the release branch. We are very conservative when it comes to merging changes. If a change isn't absolutely necessary, it doesn't get merged. Merge available changes, preferably in chronological order. We group changes together if they're associated with the same ticket. Block unwanted changes from the release branch (svnmerge block) so we don't have to deal with them again. Sometimes we can be juggling 3-5 different milestones at a time. Some milestones have very different constraints, and the block list can get quite long. I've been messing around with git, mercurial and plastic, and as far as I can tell none of them address this model very well. It seems like they would work very well when you have only one product you're releasing, but I can't imagine using them for juggling multiple, very different products from the same codebase. For example, cherry-picking seems to be an afterthought in mercurial. (You have to use the 'transplant' command). After you cherry-pick a change into a branch it still shows up as an available integration. Cherry-picking breaks the mercurial way of working. DVCS seems to be better suited for feature branches. There's no need for cherry-picking if you merge directly from a feature branch to trunk and the release branch. But who wants to do all that merging all the time? And how do you query for what's available to merge? And how do you make sure all the changes in a feature branch belong together? It sounds like total chaos. I'm torn because the coder in me wants DVCS for day-to-day work. I really want it. But I fear the day when I have to put the release manager hat and sort out what needs to be merged and what doesn't. I want to write code, I don't want to be a merge monkey.

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • Looking for an Open Source Project in need of help

    - by hvidgaard
    Hi StackOverflow! I'm a CS student on well on my way to graduate. I have had a difficult time of finding relevant student jobs (they seems to be taken merely hours after the notice gets on the board) , so instead I'm looking for an open source project in need of help. I'm aware that I should choose one that I use, but I'm not aware of any OS-project that I use that needs help. That's why I'm asking you. I don't have any deep experience, but I here are some of my biggest projects so far: BitTorrent-ish client in Python (a subset of BitTorrent) HTTP 1.1 webserver in Java Compiler from a subset of Java to run on JRE Flash-framework project to model an iPad look and feel (not to run actual iPad programs) complete with an API for programs. Complete MySQL database for a booking system, with departure and arrival times, so you could only book valid tickets (with a Java frontend). I know, Java and languages like AS3 and C# feels natural per se, Python, and have done a fair bit of hacking around in C, but I don't feel very comfortable with it. Mostly I'm afraid to make a fuckup because I have such a high degree of control. I would like to think I'm well aware of good software design practices, but in reality what I do is ask myself "would I like to use/maintain this?", and I love to refactor my code because I see optimizations. I love algorithms and to make them run in the best possible time. I don't have any preferred domain to work in, but I wouldn't mind it to be graphics or math heavy. Ideally I'm looking for a project in C++ to learn the in's and out's of it, but I'm well aware that I don't know that language very well. I would like to have a mentor-like figure until I'm confident enough to stand on my own, not one to review all my code (I'm sure someone will to start with anyway), but to ask questions about the project and language in question. I do have a wife and two children, so don't expect me to put in 10+ hours every week. In return I can work on my own, I strive to program modular and maintainable code. Know how to read an API, use Google, StackOverflow and online resources in general. If you have any questions, shoot. I'm looking forward to your suggestions.

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  • Just a small problem regarding javscript BOM question

    - by caramel1991
    The question is this: Create a page with a number of links. Then write code that fires on the window onload event, displaying the href of each of the links on the page. And this is my solution <html> <body language="Javascript" onload="displayLink()"> <a href="http://www.google.com/">First link</a> <a href="http://www.yahoo.com/">Second link</a> <a href="http://www.msn.com/">Third link</a> <script type="text/javascript" language="Javascript"> function displayLink() { for(var i = 0;document.links[i];i++) { alert(document.links[i].href); } } </script> </body> </html> This is the answer provided by the book <html> <head> <script language=”JavaScript” type=”text/javascript”> function displayLinks() { var linksCounter; for (linksCounter = 0; linksCounter < document.links.length; linksCounter++) { alert(document.links[linksCounter].href); } } </script> </head> <body onload=”displayLinks()”> <A href=”link0.htm” >Link 0</A> <A href=”link1.htm”>Link 2</A> <A href=”link2.htm”>Link 2</A> </body> </html> Before I get into the javascript tutorial on how to check user browser version or model,I was using the same method as the example,by acessing the length property of the links array for the loop,but after I read through the tutorial,I find out that I can also use this alternative ways,by using the method that the test condition will evalute to true only if the document.links[i] return a valid value,so does my code is written using the valid method??If it's not,any comment regarding how to write a better code??Correct me if I'm wrong,I heard some of the people say "a good code is not evaluate solely on whether it works or not,but in terms of speed,the ability to comprehend the code,and could posssibly let others to understand the code easily".Is is true??

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  • Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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