Search Results

Search found 13164 results on 527 pages for 'model validations'.

Page 497/527 | < Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >

  • How to combine designable components with dependency injection

    - by Wim Coenen
    When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

    Read the article

  • Rails: How do I unserialize from database?

    - by Macint
    Hello, I am currently trying to save information for an invoice/bill. On the invoice I want to show what the total price is made up of. The procedures & items, their price and the qty. So in the end I hope to get it to look like this: Consult [date] [total_price] Procedure_name [price] [qty] Procedure_name [price] [qty] Consult [date] [total_price] Procedure_name [price] [qty] etc... All this information is available through the database but i want to save the information as a separate copy. That way if the user changes the price of some procedures the invoice information is still correct. I thought i'd do this by serializing and save the data to a column (consult_data) in the Invoice table. My Model: class Invoice < ActiveRecord::Base ...stuff... serialize :consult_data ... end This is what I get from the form (1 consult and 3 procedures): {"commit"=>"Save draft", "authenticity_token"=>"MZ1OiOCtj/BOu73eVVkolZBWoN8Fy1skHqKgih7Sbzw=", "id"=>"113", "consults"=>[{"consult_date"=>"2010-02-20", "consult_problem"=>"ABC", "procedures"=>[{"name"=>"asdasdasd", "price"=>"2.0", "qty"=>"1"}, {"name"=>"AAAnd another one", "price"=>"45.0", "qty"=>"4"}, {"name"=>"asdasdasd", "price"=>"2.0", "qty"=>"1"}], "consult_id"=>"1"}]} My save action: def add_to_invoice @invoice = @current_practice.invoices.find_by_id(params[:id]) @invoice.consult_data=params[:consults] if @invoice.save render :text => "I think it worked" else render :text => "I don't think it worked'" end end It does save to the database and if I look at the entry in the console I can see that it is all there: consult_data: "--- \n- !map:HashWithIndifferentAccess \n consult_da..." (---The question---) But I can't seam to get back my data. I tried defining a variable to the consult_data attribute and then doing "variable.consult_problem" or "variable[:consult_problem]" (also tried looping) but it only throws no-method-errors back at me. How do I unserialize the data from the database and turn it back into hash that i can use? Thank you very much for any help!

    Read the article

  • Array values disappear in PHP SoapClient call to Cisco phone system.

    - by Jamin
    I am attempting to consume a SOAP service provided by our Cisco phone system (documentation), to get the current status of a given set of phones. I have an array of phone names, which I'm trying to pass to the service, however, the values of the array are being eaten somewhere Array of items like so: $items = array( 0 => "SEP0004F2E57F8C", 1 => "SEP001111BF8758", 2 => "SEP001320BD485C" ); Attempting to call the method: $client = new SoapClient( "https://x.x.x.x/realtimeservice/services/RisPort?wsdl", array( "login" => "admin", "password"=> "xxxxx", "trace" => true ) ); $devices = $client->SelectCmDevice( "", array( "SelectBy" => "Name", "Status" => "Any", "SelectedItems" => $items ) ); When I debug the complete request I get the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope mlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="http://schemas.cisco.com/ast/soap/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns1:SelectCmDevice> <StateInfo xsi:type="xsd:string"></StateInfo> <CmSelectionCriteria xsi:type="ns1:CmSelectionCriteria"> <MaxReturnedDevices xsi:nil="true"/> <Class xsi:nil="true"/> <Model xsi:nil="true"/> <Status xsi:type="xsd:string">Any</Status> <NodeName xsi:nil="true"/> <SelectBy xsi:type="xsd:string">Name</SelectBy> <SelectItems SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns1:SelectItem[3]" xsi:type="ns1:SelectItems"> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> </SelectItems> </CmSelectionCriteria> </ns1:SelectCmDevice> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> The correct number of <Item elements were counted and inserted into the <SelectItems object, however, the actual item names themselves are gone. I would guess it needs to be <ItemSEP0004F2E57F8C</Item, etc., but I can't seem to figure out how to make it do that. Thank you in advance for any help!!!

    Read the article

  • How do I add a trailing slash for Django MPTT-based categorization app?

    - by Patrick Beeson
    I'm using Django-MPTT to develop a categorization app for my Django project. But I can't seem to get the regex pattern for adding a trailing slash that doesn't also break on child categories. Here's an example URL: http://mydjangoapp.com/categories/parentcat/childcat/ I'd like to be able to use http://mydjangoapp.com/categories/parentcat and have it redirect to the trailing slash version. The same should apply to http://mydjangoapp.com/categories/parentcat/childcat (it should redirect to http://mydjangoapp.com/categories/parentcat/childcat/). Here's my urls.py: from django.conf.urls.defaults import patterns, include, url from django.views.decorators.cache import cache_page from storefront.categories.models import Category from storefront.categories.views import SimpleCategoryView urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^(?P<full_slug>[-\w/]+)', cache_page(SimpleCategoryView.as_view(), 60 * 15), name='category_view'), ) And here is my view: from django.core.exceptions import ImproperlyConfigured from django.core.urlresolvers import reverse from django.views.generic import TemplateView, DetailView from django.views.generic.detail import SingleObjectTemplateResponseMixin, SingleObjectMixin from django.utils.translation import ugettext as _ from django.contrib.syndication.views import Feed from storefront.categories.models import Category class SimpleCategoryView(TemplateView): def get_category(self): return Category.objects.get(full_slug=self.kwargs['full_slug']) def get_context_data(self, **kwargs): context = super(SimpleCategoryView, self).get_context_data(**kwargs) context["category"] = self.get_category() return context def get_template_names(self): if self.get_category().template_name: return [self.get_category().template_name] else: return ['categories/category_detail.html'] And finally, my model: from django.db import models from mptt.models import MPTTModel from mptt.fields import TreeForeignKey class CategoryManager(models.Manager): def get(self, **kwargs): defaults = {} defaults.update(kwargs) if 'full_slug' in defaults: if defaults['full_slug'] and defaults['full_slug'][-1] != "/": defaults['full_slug'] += "/" return super(CategoryManager, self).get(**defaults) class Category(MPTTModel): title = models.CharField(max_length=255) description = models.TextField(blank=True, help_text='Please use <a href="http://daringfireball.net/projects/markdown/syntax">Markdown syntax</a> for all text-formatting and links. No HTML is allowed.') slug = models.SlugField(help_text='Prepopulates from title field.') full_slug = models.CharField(max_length=255, blank=True) template_name = models.CharField(max_length=70, blank=True, help_text="Example: 'categories/category_parent.html'. If this isn't provided, the system will use 'categories/category_detail.html'. Use 'categories/category_parent.html' for all parent categories and 'categories/category_child.html' for all child categories.") parent = TreeForeignKey('self', null=True, blank=True, related_name='children') objects = CategoryManager() class Meta: verbose_name = 'category' verbose_name_plural = 'categories' def save(self, *args, **kwargs): orig_full_slug = self.full_slug if self.parent: self.full_slug = "%s%s/" % (self.parent.full_slug, self.slug) else: self.full_slug = "%s/" % self.slug obj = super(Category, self).save(*args, **kwargs) if orig_full_slug != self.full_slug: for child in self.get_children(): child.save() return obj def available_product_set(self): """ Returns available, prioritized products for a category """ from storefront.apparel.models import Product return self.product_set.filter(is_available=True).order_by('-priority') def __unicode__(self): return "%s (%s)" % (self.title, self.full_slug) def get_absolute_url(self): return '/categories/%s' % (self.full_slug)

    Read the article

  • Rails & Twilio: Receiving nil when storing texts received from Twilio

    - by Jon Smooth
    I have set up the request URL in my Twilio account to have it POST to: myurl.com/receivetext. It appears to be successfully posting because when I check the database using the Heroku console I see the following: Post id: 5, body: nil, from: nil, created_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01", updated_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01" Why is it receiving nil for the body and from attributes? I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong! The created and updated at are storing successfully but the two attributes that I care about continue to be stored as nil. Here's the Receive Text controller which is receiving the Post request from Twilio: class ReceiveTextController < ApplicationController def index @post=Post.create!(body: params[:Body], from: params[:From]) end end EDIT: When I dump the params I receive the following: "{\"controller\"=\"receive_text\", \"action\"=\"index\"}" I attained this by inserting the following into my ReceiveText controller. @params = Post.create!(body: params.inspect, from: "Dumping Params") and then opening up the Heroku console to find the database entry with from = "Dumping Params". I simulated a Twilio request with a curl with the following command curl -X POST myurl.com/receivetext route -d 'AccountSid=AC123&From=%2B19252411234' I checked the production database again and noticed that the curl request did work when obtaining the FROM atribute. It stored the following: params.inspect returned "{\"AccountSid\"=\"AC123\", \"From\"=\"+19252411234\", \"co..." I received a comment stating: "As long as twilio is hitting the same URL with the same method (GET/POST) it should be filling the params array as well" I have no idea how to make this comment actionable. Any help would be greatly appreciated! I'm very new to rails. Here's my database migration (I have both attributes set to string. I have tried setting it to text and that didn't work either) : class CreatePosts < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :posts do |t| t.string :body t.string :from t.timestamps end end end Here is my Post model: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :body, :from end Routes (everything appears to be routing just fine) : MovieApp::Application.routes.draw do get "receive_text/index" get "pages/home" get "send_text/send_text_message" root to: 'pages#home' match '/receivetext', to: 'receive_text#index' match '/pages/home', to: 'pages#home' match '/sendtext', to: 'send_text#send_text_message' end Here's my gemfile (incase it helps) source 'https://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.2.3' gem 'badfruit' gem 'twilio-ruby' gem 'logger' gem 'jquery-rails' group :production do gem 'pg' end group :development, :test do gem 'sqlite3' end group :assets do gem 'sass-rails', '~> 3.2.3' gem 'coffee-rails', '~> 3.2.1' gem 'uglifier', '>= 1.0.3' end

    Read the article

  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

    Read the article

  • Foreign Key Relationships and "belongs to many"

    - by jan
    I have the following model: S belongs to T T has many S A,B,C,D,E (etc) have 1 T each, so the T should belong to each of A,B,C,D,E (etc) At first I set up my foreign keys so that in A, fk_a_t would be the foreign key on A.t to T(id), in B it'd be fk_b_t, etc. Everything looks fine in my UML (using MySQLWorkBench), but generating the yii models results in it thinking that T has many A,B,C,D (etc) which to me is the reverse. It sounds to me like either I need to have A_T, B_T, C_T (etc) tables, but this would be a pain as there are a lot of tables that have this relationship. I've also googled that the better way to do this would be some sort of behavior, such that A,B,C,D (etc) can behave as a T, but I'm not clear on exactly how to do this (I will continue to google more on this) What do you think is the better solution? UML: Here's the DDL (auto generated). Just pretend that there is more than 3 tables referencing T. -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`T` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`T` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`S` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`S` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `thing` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `t` INT NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_S_T` (`id` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_S_T` FOREIGN KEY (`id` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`A` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`A` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `bar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foo` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`B` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`B` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `mydb`.`C` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `mydb`.`C` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `T` INT NOT NULL , `stuff3` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `foobar2` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `other4` VARCHAR(45) NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , INDEX `fk_A_T` (`T` ASC) , CONSTRAINT `fk_A_T` FOREIGN KEY (`T` ) REFERENCES `mydb`.`T` (`id` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION) ENGINE = InnoDB;

    Read the article

  • Unlocking a mutex from a different thread (C++)

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect.

    Read the article

  • Should an event-sourced aggregate root have access to the event sourcing repository?

    - by JD Courtoy
    I'm working on an event-sourced CQRS implementation, using DDD in the application / domain layer. I have an object model that looks like this: public class Person : AggregateRootBase { private Guid? _bookingId; public Person(Identification identification) { Apply(new PersonCreatedEvent(identification)); } public Booking CreateBooking() { // Enforce Person invariants var booking = new Booking(); Apply(new PersonBookedEvent(booking.Id)); return booking; } public void Release() { // Enforce Person invariants // Should we load the booking here from the aggregate repository? // We need to ensure that booking is released as well. var booking = BookingRepository.Load(_bookingId); booking.Release(); Apply(new PersonReleasedEvent(_bookingId)); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonBookedEvent @event) { _bookingId = @event.BookingId; } [EventHandler] public void Handle(PersonReleasedEvent @event) { _bookingId = null; } } public class Booking : AggregateRootBase { private DateTime _bookingDate; private DateTime? _releaseDate; public Booking() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingCreatedEvent()); } public void Release() { //Enforce invariants Apply(new BookingReleasedEvent()); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingCreatedEvent @event) { _bookingDate = SystemTime.Now(); } [EventHandler] public void Handle(BookingReleasedEvent @event) { _releaseDate = SystemTime.Now(); } // Some other business activities unrelated to a person } With my understanding of DDD so far, both Person and Booking are seperate aggregate roots for two reasons: There are times when business components will pull Booking objects separately from the database. (ie, a person that has been released has a previous booking modified due to incorrect information). There should not be locking contention between Person and Booking whenever a Booking needs to be updated. One other business requirement is that a Booking can never occur for a Person more than once at a time. Due to this, I'm concerned about querying the query database on the read side as there could potentially be some inconsistency there (due to using CQRS and having an eventually consistent read database). Should the aggregate roots be allowed to query the event-sourced backing store by id for objects (lazy-loading them as needed)? Are there any other avenues of implementation that would make more sense?

    Read the article

  • How can I pass managed objects from one AppDomain to another?

    - by Dennis P
    I have two assemblies that I'm trying to link together. One is a sort of background process that's built with WinForms and will be designed to run as a Windows Service. I have a second project that will act as a UI for the background process whenever a user launches it. I've never tried attempting something like this with managed code before, so I've started trying to use windows messages to communicate between the two processes. I'm struggling when it comes to passing more than just IntPtrs back and forth, however. Here's the code from a control in my UI project that registers itself with the background process: public void Init() { IntPtr hwnd = IntPtr.Zero; Process[] ps = Process.GetProcessesByName("BGServiceApp"); Process mainProcess = null; if(ps == null || ps.GetLength(0) == 0) { mainProcess = LaunchApp(); } else { mainProcess = ps[0]; } SendMessage(mainProcess.MainWindowHandle, INIT_CONNECTION, this.Handle, IntPtr.Zero); } protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONFIRMED && InitComplete != null) { string message = Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(m.WParam); Marshal.FreeHGlobal(m.WParam); InitComplete(message, EventArgs.Empty); } base.WndProc(ref m); } This is the code from the background process that's supposed to receive a request from the UI process to register for status updates and send a confirmation message. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONNECTION) { RegisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); Respond(m.WParam); } if(m.Msg == UNINIT_CONNECTION) { UnregisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); if(m_RegisteredDispatchers.Count == 0) { this.Close(); } } base.WndProc(ref m); } private void Respond(IntPtr caller) { string test = "Registration confirmed!"; IntPtr ptr = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(test); SendMessage(caller, INIT_CONFIRMED, ptr, IntPtr.Zero); } } The UI process receives the INIT_CONFIRMED message from my background process, but when I try to marshal the IntPtr back into a string, I get an empty string. Is the area of heap I'm using out of scope to the other process or am I missing some security attribute maybe? Is there a better and cleaner way to go about something like this using an event driven model?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Criteria query returns hydrated object in SQLite but not SqlServer

    - by Berryl
    I have a method that returns a resource fully hydrated when the db is SQLite but when the identical code is used by SqlServer the object is not fully hydrated. I'll explain that with the code after some brief background. I my domain various otherwise unrelated things like an Employee or a Machine can be used as a Resource that can be allocated to. In the object model an example of this would be: /// <summary>Wraps a <see cref="StaffMember"/> in a <see cref="ResourceBase"/>. </summary> public class StaffMemberResource : ResourceBase { public virtual StaffMember StaffMember { get; private set; } public StaffMemberResource(StaffMember staffMember) { Check.RequireNotNull<StaffMember>(staffMember); base.BusinessId = staffMember.Number.ToString(); base.Name = staffMember.Name.ToString(); base.OrganizationName = staffMember.Department.Name; StaffMember = staffMember; } [UsedImplicitly] protected StaffMemberResource() { } } And in the db tables, there is a table per class inheritance where the ResourceBase has a discriminator and the id of the actual resource (ie, StaffMember) StaffMember - 1 ---- M- ResourceBase - 1 ----- M - Allocation The Code public override StaffMemberResource BuildResource(IActivityService activityService) { var sessionFactory = _GetSessionFactory(); var session = sessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); StaffMemberResource result; using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { var propertyName = ExprHelper.GetPropertyName<StaffMember>(x => x.Number); var staff = session.CreateCriteria<StaffMember>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq(propertyName, new EmployeeNumber(_testData.Resource_1.BusinessId))) .UniqueResult<StaffMember>(); if (staff == null) { ... build up a staff member result = new StaffMemberResource(staff); } else { ////////// var property = ExprHelper.GetPropertyName<StaffMemberResource>(x => x.StaffMember); result = session.CreateCriteria<StaffMemberResource>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq(property, staff)) .UniqueResult<StaffMemberResource>(); } /////////// tx.Commit(); } return result; } It's that second criteria query that works "properly" with SQLite but not with SqlServer. By properly I mean that the employee numer is translated into a ResourceBase.BusinessId, Name is flattened out into a ResourceBase.Name, etc. Does anyone know why this might be? Cheers, Berryl

    Read the article

  • JSON or YAML encoding in GWT/Java on both client and server

    - by KennethJ
    I'm looking for a super simple JSON or YAML library (not particularly bothered which one) written in Java, and can be used in both GWT on the client, and in its original Java form on the server. What I'm trying to do is this: I have my models, which are shared between the client and the server, and these are the primary source of data interchange. I want to design the web service in between to be as simple as possible, and decided to take the RESTful approach. My problem is that I know our application will grow substantially in the future, and writing all the getters, setters, serialization, factories, etc. by hand fills me with absolute dread. So in order to avoid it, I decided to implement annotations to keep track of attributes on the models. The reason I can't just serialize everything directly, using GWT's own one, or one which works through reflection, is because we need a certain amount of logic going on in the serialization process. I.e. whether references to other models get serialized during the serialization of the original model, or whether an ID is just passed, and general simple things like that. I've then written an annotation processor to preprocess my shared models and generate an implementing class with all the getters, setters, serialization, lazy-loading, etc. To make a long story short, I need some type of simple YAML or JSON library, which allows me to encode and decode manually, so I can generate this code through my annotation processor. I have had a look around the interwebs, but every single one I ran into supported some reflection which, while all fine and dandy, make it pretty much useless for GWT. And in the case of GWT's own JSON library, it uses JSNI for speed purposes, making it useless server side. One solution I did think about involved writing writing two sets of serialization methods on the models, one for the client and one for the server, but I'd rather not do that. Also, I'm pretty new to GWT, and even though I have done a lot of Java, it was back in the 1.2 days, so it's a bit rusty. So if you think I'm going about this problem completely the wrong way, I'm open to suggestions.

    Read the article

  • How to set header font style as bold for the header of the table in a pdf file, in jsf

    - by Radhika
    Hi I have used PdfPTable to convert table data into a pdf file using com.itextpdf.text.pdf.PdfPTable. Table is displaying, but table data and the header are in same style. To make difference i have to set the header font style to bold. can anybody help me out in this, I have attached my code here.. Thanks in advance import java.awt.Color; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import javax.faces.model.ListDataModel; import com.mypackage.core.filter.domainobject.FilterResultDO; import com.itextpdf.text.Font; import com.itextpdf.text.FontFactory; import com.itextpdf.text.Phrase; import com.itextpdf.text.pdf.PdfPTable; public class PDFGenerator { //This method will generate PDF for Filter Result Screen (only DataTable level) @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static PdfPTable generatePDF(PdfPTable table,List filterResultDOList ,List filterResultHeaderList ) { //Initialize the table with number of columns required for the Datatable header int numberOfFilterLabelCols = filterResultHeaderList.size(); //PDF Table Frame table = new PdfPTable(numberOfFilterLabelCols); //Getting Filter Detail Table Heading for(int i = 0 ; i < numberOfFilterLabelCols; i++) { ColumnHeader commandHeaderObj = filterResultHeaderList.get(i); table.addCell(commandHeaderObj.getLabel()); } //Getting Filter Detail Data (Rows X Cols) FilterResultDO filterResultDOObj = filterResultDOList.get(0); List filterResultDataList = filterResultDOObj.getFilterResultLst(); int numberOfFilterDataRows = filterResultDataList.size(); //each row iteration for(int row = 0; row < numberOfFilterDataRows; row++) { List filterResultCols = filterResultDataList.get(row); int numberOfFilterDataCols = filterResultCols.size(); //columns iteration of each row for(int col = 0; col < numberOfFilterDataCols ; col++) { String filterColumnsValues = (String) filterResultCols.get(col); table.addCell(filterColumnsValues); } } return table; }//generatePDF }

    Read the article

  • Unable to add item to dataset in Linq to SQL

    - by Mike B
    I am having an issue adding an item to my dataset in Linq to SQL. I am using the exact same method in other tables with no problem. I suspect I know the problem but cannot find an answer (I also suspect all i really need is the right search term for Google). Please keep in mind this is a learning project (Although it is in use in a business) I have posted my code and datacontext below. What I am doing is: Create a view model (Relevant bits are shown) and a simple wpf window that allows editing of 3 properties that are bound to the category object. Category is from the datacontext. Edit works fine but add does not. If I check GetChangeSet() just before the db.submitChanges() call there are no adds, edits or deletes. I suspect an issue with the fact that a Category added without a Subcategory would be an orphan but I cannot seem to find the solution. Command code to open window: CategoryViewModel vm = new CategoryViewModel(); AddEditCategoryWindow window = new AddEditCategoryWindow(vm); window.ShowDialog(); ViewModel relevant stuff: public class CategoryViewModel : ViewModelBase { public Category category { get; set; } // Constructor used to Edit a Category public CategoryViewModel(Int16 categoryID) { db = new OITaskManagerDataContext(); category = QueryCategory(categoryID); } // Constructor used to Add a Category public CategoryViewModel() { db = new OITaskManagerDataContext(); category = new Category(); } } The code for saving changes: // Don't close window unless all controls are validated if (!vm.IsValid(this)) return; var changes = vm.db.GetChangeSet(); // DEBUG try { vm.db.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode.ContinueOnConflict); } catch (ChangeConflictException) { vm.db.ChangeConflicts.ResolveAll(RefreshMode.KeepChanges); vm.db.SubmitChanges(); } The Xaml (Edited fror brevity): <TextBox Text="{Binding category.CatName, Mode=TwoWay, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding category.CatDescription, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding category.CatIsInactive, Mode=TwoWay}" /> IssCategory in the Issues table is the old, text based category. This field is no longer used and will be removed from the database as soon as this is working and pushed live.

    Read the article

  • Polymorphic :has_many, :through as module in Rails 3.1 plugin

    - by JohnMetta
    I've search everywhere for a pointer to this, but can't find one. Basically, I want to do what everyone else wants to do when they create a polymorphic relationship in a :has_many, :through way… but I want to do it in a module. I keep getting stuck and think I must be overlooking something simple. To wit: module ActsPermissive module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :ownables has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables end end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end end With a migration that looks like this: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.integer :ownable_id t.timestamps end The idea, of course, is that whatever loads acts_permissive will be able to have a list of circles that it owns. For simple tests, I have it "should have a list of circles" do user = Factory :user user.owned_circles.should be_an_instance_of Array end which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::Ownable I've tried: using :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' on the has_many :ownables line, which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughSourceAssociationNotFoundError: Could not find the source association(s) :owned_circle or :owned_circles in model ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle. Try 'has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables, :source => <name>'. Is it one of :ownable? while following the suggestion and setting :source => :ownable fails with Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughAssociationPolymorphicSourceError: Cannot have a has_many :through association 'User#owned_circles' on the polymorphic object 'Ownable#ownable' Which seems to suggest that doing things with a non-polymorphic-through is necessary. So I added a circle_owner class similar to the setup here: module ActsPermissive class CircleOwner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :permissive_circle belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :circle_owners, :as => :ownable has_many :circles, :through => :circle_owners, :source => :ownable, :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :circle_owners end end With a migration: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :name t.string :guid t.timestamps end create_table :circle_owner do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.string :ownable_id t.integer :permissive_circle_id end which still fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::CircleOwner Which brings us back to the beginning. How can I do what seems to be a rather common polymorphic :has_many, :through on a module? Alternatively, is there a good way to allow an object to be collected by arbitrary objects in a similar way that will work with a module?

    Read the article

  • f# types' properties in inconsistent order and of slightly differing types

    - by philbrowndotcom
    I'm trying to iterate through an array of objects and recursively print out each objects properties. Here is my object model: type firmIdentifier = { firmId: int ; firmName: string ; } type authorIdentifier = { authorId: int ; authorName: string ; firm: firmIdentifier ; } type denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendations = { id: int ; ticker: string ; direction: string ; author: authorIdentifier ; } Here is how I am instantiating my objects: let getMyIdeasIdeas = [| {id=1; ticker="msfqt"; direction="buy"; author={authorId=0; authorName="john Smith"; firm={firmId=12; firmName="Firm1"}};}; {id=2; ticker="goog"; direction="sell"; author={authorId=1; authorName="Bill Jones"; firm={firmId=13; firmName="ABC Financial"}};}; {id=3; ticker="DFHF"; direction="buy"; author={authorId=2; authorName="Ron James"; firm={firmId=2; firmName="DEFFirm"}};}|] And here is my algorithm to iterate, recurse and print: let rec recurseObj (sb : StringBuilder) o= let props : PropertyInfo [] = o.GetType().GetProperties() sb.Append( o.GetType().ToString()) |> ignore for x in props do let getMethod = x.GetGetMethod() let value = getMethod.Invoke(o, Array.empty) ignore <| match value with | :? float | :? int | :? string | :? bool as f -> sb.Append(x.Name + ": " + f.ToString() + "," ) |> ignore | _ -> recurseObj sb value for x in getMyIdeas do recurseObj sb x sb.Append("\r\n") |> ignore If you couldnt tell, I'm trying to create a csv file and am printing out the types for debugging purposes. The problem is, the first element comes through in the order you'd expect, but all subsequent elements come through with a slightly different (and confusing) ordering of the "child" properties like so: RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 1,ticker: msfqt,direction: buy,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorId: 0,authorName: john Smith,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmId: 12,firmName: Firm1, RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 2,ticker: goog,direction: sell,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorName: Bill Jones,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmName: ABC Financial,firmId: 13,authorId: 1, RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 3,ticker: DFHF,direction: buy,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorName: Ron James,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmName: DEFFirm,firmId: 2,authorId: 2, Any idea what is going on here?

    Read the article

  • Is there simple way how to join two RouteValueDictionary values to pass parameters to Html.ActionLin

    - by atagaew
    Hi. Look on my code that i created in a partial View: <% foreach (Customer customerInfo in Model.DataRows) {%> <tr> <td> <%=Html.ActionLink( customerInfo.FullName , ((string)ViewData["ActionNameForSelectedCustomer"]) , JoinParameters(customerInfo.id, (RouteValueDictionary) ViewData["AdditionalSelectionParameters"]) , null)%> </td> <td> <%=customerInfo.LegalGuardianName %> </td> <td> <%=customerInfo.HomePhone %> </td> <td> <%=customerInfo.CellPhone %> </td> </tr> <%}%> Here I'm building simple table that showing customer's details. As you may see, in each row, I'm trying to build a link that will redirect to another action. That action requires customerId and some additional parameters. Additional parameters are different for each page where this partial View is using. So, i decided to make Action methods to pass that additional parameters in the ViewData as RouteValueDictionary instance. Now, on the view i have a problem, i need to pass customerId and that RouteValueDictionary together into Html.ActionLink method. That makes me to figure out some way of how to combine all that params into one object (either object or new RouteValueDictionary instance) Because of the way the MVC does, i can't create create a method in the codebehind class (there is no codebihind in MVC) that will join that parameters. So, i used ugly way - inserted inline code: ...script runat="server"... private RouteValueDictionary JoinParameters(int customerId, RouteValueDictionary defaultValues) { RouteValueDictionary routeValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(defaultValues); routeValueDictionary.Add("customerId", customerId); return routeValueDictionary; } ...script... This way is very ugly for me, because i hate to use inline code in the View part. My question is - is there any better way of how i can mix parameters passed from the action (in ViewData, TempData, other...) and the parameter from the view when building action links. May be i can build this link in other way ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to prevent google chrome from caching my inputs, esp hidden ones when user click back?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i have an asp.net mvc app which have quite a few hidden inputs to keep values around and formatting their names so that i can use the Model binding later when i submit the form. i stumble into a weird bug with chrome which i don't have with IE or Firefox when the user submits the form and click on the back button, i find that chrome will keep my hidden input values as well. this whole chunk is generated via javascript hence i believe chrome is caching this. function addProductRow(productId, productName) { if (productName != "") { //use guid to ensure that the row never repeats var guid = $.Guid.New(); var temp = parseFloat($(".tboProductCount").val()); //need the span to workaround for chrome var szHTML = "<tr valign=\"top\" id=\"productRow\"><td class=\"productIdCol\"><input type=\"hidden\" id=productRegsID" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productId\" value=\"" + productId + "\"/>" + "<span id=\"spanProdID" + temp + "\" name=\"spanProdID" + temp + "\" >" + productId + "</span>" + "</td>" //+ "<td><input type=\"text\" id=\"productRegName\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productName\" value=\"" + productName + "\" class=\"productRegName\" size=\"50\" readonly=\"readonly\"/></td>" + "<td><span id=\"productRegName\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productName\" class=\"productRegName\">"+ productName + "<\span></td>" + "<td id=\"" + guid + "\" class=\"productrowguid\" \>" + "<input type=\"text\" size=\"20\" id=\"productSerialNo" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].serialNo\" value=\"" + "\" class=\"productSerialNo\" maxlength=\"18\" />" + "<a class=\"fancybox\" id=\"btnImgSerialNo" + temp + "\" href=\"#divSerialNo" + temp + "\"><img class=\"btnImgSerialNo\" src=\"Images/landing_14.gif\" /></a>" + "<span id=\"snFlag" + temp + "\" class=\"redWarning\"></span></td>" + "<td><input type=\"text\" id=\"productRegDate" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].PurchaseDate\" readonly=\"readonly\" />" + "<span id=\"snRegDate" + temp + "\" class=\"redWarning\"></span></td>" + "<td align=\"center\"><img style=\"cursor:pointer\" id=\"btnImgDelete\" src=\"Images/btn_remove.gif\" onclick=\"javascript:removeProductRow('" + guid + "')\" /><div style=\"display:none;\"><div id=\"divSerialNo" + temp + "\" style=\"font-family:verdana;font-size:11px;width:600px\">" + serialnumbergeneral + "<br /><br />" + getSNImageByCategory(productId) + "</div></div></td>" + "</tr>"; $(".ProductRegistrationTable").append(szHTML); $("a.fancybox").fancybox(); //initialization $("#productRegDate" + temp).datepicker({ minDate: new Date(1996, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: 0 }); //sanity check //s7test alert('1 '+$("#spanProdID" + temp)); alert('2 '+$("#productRegsID" + temp)); } //end function addNewProductRow i need the id to be refreshed when the user select a new product, but putting another span tag beside it shows that the span will have the new id will the hidden input will still have the previous id. is there an elegant way to workaround this issue? thanks

    Read the article

  • Keeping track of business rules within IT department?

    - by evaldas-alexander
    I am looking for the best way to keep track of the business rules for both developers and everybody else (support staff / management) in a startup enviroment. The challenge is that our business model requires quite a lot of different business rules, which are created pretty much on the fly and evolving organically after that. After running this project for 3+ years, we have so many of such rules that often the only way to be sure about what the application is supposed to do in a certain situation is to go find the module responsible for that process and analyze its code and comments. That is all fine as long as you have one single developer who created the entire application from the scratch, but every new developer needs to go over pretty much entire codebase in order to understand how the application works. Even bigger problem is that non technical employees don't even have that option and therefore are forced to ask me pretty much every day how some certain case would be handled by the application. Quick example - we only start charging for our customer campaigns once they have been active for at least 72 hours, but at the same time we stop creating invoices for campaigns that belong to insolvent accounts and close such accounts within a month of the first failed charge. That does not apply to accounts that are set to "non-chargeable" which most commonly belongs to us since we are using the service ourselves. The invoices are created on the 1st of each month and include charges from the previous month + any current balance that the account might have. However, some customers are charged only 4 days after their invoice has been generated due to issues with their billing department. In addition to that, invoices are also created when customer deactivates his campaign, but that can only be done once the campaign is not longer under mandatory 6 month contract, unless account manager approves early deactivation. I know, that's quite a lot of rules that need to be taken into account when answering a question "when do we bill our customers", but actually I could still append an asterisk at the end of each sentence in order to disclose some rare exceptions. Of course, it would be easiest just to keep the business rules to the minimum, but we need to adapt to changing marketplace - i.e. less than a year ago we had no contracts whatsoever. One idea that I had so far was a simplistic wiki with categories corresponding to areas such as "Account activation", "Invoicing", "Collection procedures" and so on. Another idea would be to have giant interactive flowchart showing the entire customer "life cycle" from prospecting to account deactivation. What are your experiences / suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

    Read the article

  • What Amazon S3 .NET Library is most useful and efficient?

    - by Geo
    There are two main open source .net Amazon S3 libraries. Three Sharp LitS3 I am currently using LitS3 in our MVC demo project, but there is some criticism about it. Has anyone here used both libraries so they can give an objective point of view. Below some sample calls using LitS3: On demo controller: private S3Service s3 = new S3Service() { AccessKeyID = "Thekey", SecretAccessKey = "testing" }; public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View("Index",s3.GetAllBuckets()); } On demo view: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </p> <% } %> EDIT 1: Since I have to keep moving and there is no clear indication of what library is more effective and kept more up to date, I have implemented a repository pattern with an interface that will allow me to change library if I need to in the future. Below is a section of the S3Repository that I have created and will let me change libraries in case I need to: using LitS3; namespace S3Helper.Models { public class S3Repository : IS3Repository { private S3Service _repository; #region IS3Repository Members public IQueryable<Bucket> FindAllBuckets() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets().AsQueryable(); } public IQueryable<ListEntry> FindAllObjects(string BucketName) { return _repository.ListAllObjects(BucketName).AsQueryable(); } #endregion If you have any information about this question please let me know in a comment, and I will get back and edit the question. EDIT 2: Since this question is not getting attention, I integrated both libraries in my web app to see the differences in design, I know this is probably a waist of time, but I really want a good long run solution. Below you will see two samples of the same action with the two libraries, maybe this will motivate some of you to let me know your thoughts. WITH THREE SHARP LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { List<string> list = new List<string>(); using (BucketListRequest request = new BucketListRequest(null)) using (BucketListResponse response = service.BucketList(request)) { XmlDocument bucketXml = response.StreamResponseToXmlDocument(); XmlNodeList buckets = bucketXml.SelectNodes("//*[local-name()='Name']"); foreach (XmlNode bucket in buckets) { list.Add(bucket.InnerXml); } } return list.Cast<T>().AsQueryable(); } WITH LITS3 LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets() .Cast<T>() .AsQueryable(); }

    Read the article

  • Zend Table Relationship Modeling with Composite Key

    - by emeraldjava
    I have a table with a composite primary key using four columns. mysql> describe leaguesummary; +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | leagueid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | leaguetype | enum('I','T') | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueparticipantid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leaguestandard | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | leaguedivision | varchar(5) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueposition | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | I have the league object modelled as so (all plain enough mappings) <?php class Model_DbTable_League extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'league'; protected $_primary = 'id'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary'); And I've started like this on the new model class. I've mapped a simple reference map which returns all rows linked to the league id. // http://files.zend.com/help/Zend-Framework/zend.db.table.relationships.html // http://naneau.nl/2007/04/21/a-zend-framework-tutorial-part-one/ class Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = "leaguesummary"; protected $_primary = array('leagueid', 'leaguetype','leagueparticipantid','leaguedivision'); protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Summary' => array( 'columns' => array('leagueid'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), ..... ); } ?> The simple case works when called from my controller public function listAction() { // action body $leagueTable = new Model_DbTable_League(); $this->view->leagues = $leagueTable->getLeagues(); $league = $leagueTable->getLeague(6); // work $summary = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','Summary'); Zend_Debug::dump($summary,"",true); I'm not sure how i can define extra _referenceMap keys which will take extra contraint ket values. I would like to be able to define a set called 'MenA' in which the type and division values are hardcoded, and the league id is taken from the initial rowset. 'MenA' =>array( 'columns' => array('leagueid','leaguetype','leaguedivision'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array("id","I","A") ) Is this style of mapping possible ie hardcoding the values into the 'refColumns'. The second crazy idea i had was to pass the variable values in as part of the third param of the findDependentRowset() method. $menA = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','MenA',array("I","A")); Any suggestions on how I might use the Zend DB Table Relationship mapping correctly to do this would be appreciated. I'm not interested in the plain, old and ugly $db-select(a,b,c)-where(..) style solution.

    Read the article

  • Handling exceptions raised in observers

    - by sparky
    I have a Rails (2.3.5) application where there are many groups, and each Group has_many People. I have a Group edit form where users can create new people. When a new person is created, they are sent an email (the email address is user entered on the form). This is accomplished with an observer on the Person model. The problem comes when ActionMailer throws an exception - for example if the domain does not exist. Clearly that cannot be weeded out with a validation. There would seem to be 2 ways to deal with this: A begin...rescue...end block in the observer around the mailer. The problem with this is that the only way to pass any feedback to the user would be to set a global variable - as the observer is out of the MVC flow, I can't even set a flash[:error] there. A rescue_from in the Groups controller. This works fine, but has 2 problems. Firstly, there is no way to know which person threw the exception (all I can get is the 503 exception, no way to know which person caused the problem). This would be useful information to be able to pass back to the user - at the moment, there is no way for me to let them know which email address is the problem - at the moment, I just have to chuck the lot back at them, and issue an unhelpful message saying that one of them is not correct. Secondly (and to a certain extent this make the first point moot) it seems that it is necessary to call a render in the rescue_from, or it dies with a rather bizarre "can't convert Array into String" error from webbrick, with no stack trace & nothing in the log. Thus, I have to throw it back to the user when I come across the first error and have to stop processing the rest of the emails. Neither of the solutions are optimal. It would seem that the only way to get Rails to do what I want is option 1, and loathsome global variables. This would also rely on Rails being single threaded. Can anyone suggest a better solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • how to handle a array of objects in a session

    - by Robert
    Hello, In the project I'm working on I have got a list List<Item> with objects that Is saved in a session. Session.Add("SessionName", List); In the Controller I build a viewModel with the data from this session var arrayList = (List<Item>)Session["SessionName"]; var arrayListItems= new List<CartItem>(); foreach (var item in arrayList) { var listItem = new Item { Amount = item.Amount, Variant= item.variant, Id = item.Id }; arrayListItems.Add(listItem); } var viewModel = new DetailViewModel { itemList = arrayListItems } and in my View I loop trough the list of Items and make a form for all of them to be able to remove the item. <table> <%foreach (var Item in Model.itemList) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <tr> <td><%=Html.Hidden(Settings.Prefix + ".VariantId", Item .Variant.Id)%> <td> <%=Html.TextBox(Settings.Prefix + ".Amount", Item.Amount)%></td> <td> <%=Html.Encode(Item.Amount)%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Remove" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> <% } %> </table> When the post from the submit button is handeld the item is removed from the array and post back exactly the same viewModel (with 1 item less in the itemList). return View("view.ascx", viewModel); When the post is handled and the view has reloaded the value's of the html.Hidden and Html.Textbox are the value's of the removed item. The value of the html.Encode is the correct value. When i reload the page the correct values are in the fields. Both times i build the viewModel the exact same way. I cant find the cause or solution of this error. I would be very happy with any help to solve this problem Thanx in advance for any tips or help

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >