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  • Python and Unicode: How everything should be Unicode

    - by A A
    Forgive if this a long a question: I have been programming in Python for around six months. Self taught, starting with the Python tutorial and then SO and then just using Google for stuff. Here is the sad part: No one told me all strings should be Unicode. No, I am not lying or making this up, but where does the tutorial mention it? And most examples also I see just make use of byte strings, instead of Unicode strings. I was just browsing and came across this question on SO, which says how every string in Python should be a Unicode string. This pretty much made me cry! I read that every string in Python 3.0 is Unicode by default, so my questions are for 2.x: Should I do a: print u'Some text' or just print 'Text' ? Everything should be Unicode, does this mean, like say I have a tuple: t = ('First', 'Second'), it should be t = (u'First', u'Second')? I read that I can do a from __future__ import unicode_literals and then every string will be a Unicode string, but should I do this inside a container also? When reading/ writing to a file, I should use the codecs module. Right? Or should I just use the standard way or reading/ writing and encode or decode where required? If I get the string from say raw_input(), should I convert that to Unicode also? What is the common approach to handling all of the above issues in 2.x? The from __future__ import unicode_literals statement? Sorry for being a such a noob, but this changes what I have been doing for a long time and so clearly I am confused.

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  • jQuery.post() issues with passing data to jQuery UI

    - by solefald
    Hello, I am trying to get jQuery.post() to run my php script and then open a jQuery UI dialog with the data that php script returns. Its supposed to come back as a form with a table and a textarea in it. It works great with alert(data); and i get a pop-up with all my data. The problem starts if i turn off alert(). Now it opens 2 dialogs. One containing only the table, without textarea, and the second one absolutely empty. What am i doing wrong here? How come all my data shows up in the alert(), but not in dialog? What do i need to do to fix it? Oh, and do i need to also include $.ajax() before the $.post()? Thank you. $.post("/path/to/script.php", { id: this.id, value: value }, function(data){ // THIS WORKS //alert(data); // THIS DOES NOT WORK $(data).dialog({ autoOpen: true, width: 400, modal: true, position: 'center', resizable: false, draggable: true, title: 'Pending Changes' }); } );

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  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

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  • .NET 4.0 Forms Authentication change?

    - by James Koch
    I'm seeing some new behavior in Forms Authentication after upgrading to .NET 4.0. This occurs only on IIS 6, not on 7. Background - In web.config, we configure Forms Authentication, and then use <authorization tags to globally deny anonymous/unauthenticated users access. Then we explicitly allow access to a login.aspx page using a <location tag. Generally, this works fine, as it did when we were on .NET 2.0 (3.5). The issue only occurs when we visit the root path of the site, ie "http://myserver/". Our default document is configured in IIS to be login.aspx. Under .NET 4.0, upon visiting that URL, we're redirected to "http://myserver/login.aspx?ReturnUrl=/". If you log in from here, you're logged in and returned back at the log in page (yuck). Just wanted to post this here to see if anyone else is experiencing this. It's not listed on any "breaking changes" documentation I've been able to find. Either I'm missing something, or the UrlAuthorization module has changed and is no longer "smart" about IIS default documents.

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  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

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  • ASP.NET output caching - dynamically update dependencies

    - by ColinE
    Hi All, I have an ASP.NET application which requires output caching. I need to invalidate the cached items when the data returned from a web service changes, so a simple duration is not good enough. I have been doing a bit of reading about cache dependencies and think I have the right idea. It looks like I will need to create a cache dependency to my web service. To associate the page output with this dependency I think I should use the following method: Response.AddCacheItemDependency(cacheKey); The thing I am struggling with is what I should add to the cache? The dependency my page has is to a single value returned by the web service. My current thinking is that I should create a Custom Cache Dependency via subclassing CacheDependency, and store the current value in the cache. I can then use Response.AddCacheItemDependency to form the dependency. I can then periodically check the value and for a NotifyDependencyChange in order to invalidate my cached HTTP response. The problem is, I need to ensure that the cache is flushed immediately, so a periodic check is not good enough. How can I ensure that my dependant object in the cache which represents the value returned by the web service is re-evaluated before the HTTP response is fetched from the cache? Regards, Colin E.

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  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

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  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

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  • Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

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  • Datatemplate binding

    - by Lasse O
    How can i achieve something like this: <ListView Name="OverviewTitlesListView" ItemsSource="{Binding OverviewTitlesCollection}"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Index" Width="60" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding TitleIndex}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Start Time" Width="100" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding StartTime}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="End Time" Width="100" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding EndTime}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Title Text" Width="550" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Text}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Approved" Width="80"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Name="Test"/> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="{Binding IsApproved}" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="Test" Property="Text" Value="Approved"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="{Binding IsApproved}" Value="false"> <Setter TargetName="Test" Property="Text" Value="Not Approved"/> </Trigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> When IsApproved property changes on my object in OverviewTitlesCollection i want to control the text of the TextBlock. How can i control this by triggers in my datatemplate?

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  • How do I reliably get the size of my iPhone view taking rotations into consideration?

    - by Sebastian Celis
    My application uses a UITabBarController, multiple UINavigationControllers, and supports autorotation. In order to properly layout the subviews within each UIViewController's main view, I really need to know the size available to the UIViewContoller. I need this size to take the UINavigationBar, the UITabBar, and the status bar all into account, and thus only return the size available to the content view. I thought for sure I could use the following from within the UIViewController's code: CGRect viewControllerBounds = [[self view] bounds]; However, there are a couple of issues with this approach: The first time the view is loaded, viewControllerBounds reports the view as being 320 pixels wide by 460 pixels tall. This is wrong. With a status bar and a navigation bar showing, the height should only be 416 pixels. However, if I rotate the simulator to landscape and then rotate back, the height of viewControllerBounds changes to 416. If I rotate the first view in the navigation controller to landscape mode and then push another view controller onto the stack, viewControllerBounds for the new view reports a width of 300 pixels and a height of 480 pixels. So the view's bounds didn't even take the rotation into account. Is there a better way to do this? I really don't want to have to start hardcoding the widths and heights of all the various UI elements the iPhone OS provides. I have tried setting the autoresizing mask of the UIViewController's view, but that doesn't seem to change anything. The views definitely seem to be displaying properly. When I set a background color that view looks like it takes up all of the space available to it. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Removing an array dimension where the elements sum to zero

    - by James
    Hi, I am assigning a 3D array, which contains some information for a number of different loadcases. Each row in the array defines a particular loadcase (of which there are 3) and I would like to remove the loadcase (i.e. the row) if ALL the elements of the row (in 3D) are equal to zero. The code I have at the moment is: Array = zeros(3,5) % Initialise array Numloadcases = 3; Array(:,:,1) = [10 10 10 10 10; 0 0 0 0 0; 0 0 0 0 0;]; % Expand to a 3D array Array(:,:,2) = [10 10 10 10 10; 0 0 0 0 0; 0 0 0 0 0;]; Array(:,:,3) = [10 10 10 10 10; 0 0 0 0 0; 0 0 20 0 0;]; Array(:,:,4) = [10 10 10 10 10; 0 0 0 0 0; 0 0 20 0 0;]; % I.e. the second row should be removed. for i = 1:Numloadcases if sum(Array(i,:,:)) == 0; Array(i,:,:) = [] end end At the moment, the for loop I have to remove the rows causes an indexing error, as the size of the array changes in the loop. Can anyone see a work around for this? Thanks

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  • Why does font-size only work when I set background-color on a button?

    - by Andrew Latham
    I am in Rails 3.2.6, on Chrome. I have the following code in my html.erb file: <div id="beta"> <%= form_tag({}, {:id => "id_search"}) do %> ID: <%= text_field_tag "beta_id" %> <%= submit_tag "Go" %> <% end %> </div> When I set the font-size to 24pt in my CSS file, the text field changes properly, but the button doesn't change at all. I pulled it up in my Developer Tools, and it was getting the CSS property, but just not changing its font size. Even when I put !important, nothing happened. I couldn't change the font-family either. JSFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/R5CXg/ Changing other properties worked. When I changed the background-color property, the button suddenly turned square instead of round, and popped into the correct font-size and font-family. Why was this the case and how can I work around it?

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  • Cassandra hot keyspace structure change

    - by Pierre
    Hello. I'm currently running a 12-node Cassandra cluster storing 4TB of data, with a replication factor set to 3. For the needs of an application update, we need to change the configuration of our keyspace, and we'd like to avoid any downtime if possible. I read on a mailing list that the best way to do it is to: Kill cassandra process on one server of the cluster Start it again, wait for the commit log to be written on the disk, and kill it again Make the modifications in the storage.xml file Rename or delete the files in the data directories according to the changes we made Start cassandra Goto 1 with next server on the list My questions would be: Did I understand the process well? Is there any risk of data corruption? During the process, there will be servers with different versions of the storage.xml file in the same cluser, same keyspace. Is it a problem? Same question as above if we not only add, rename and remove ColumnFamilies, but if we change the CompareWith parameter / transform an existing column family into a super one. Or do we need to change the name? Thank you for your answers. It's the first time I'll do this, and I'm a little bit scared.

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  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • How to best configure a central repository/multiple central repositories for Mercurial?

    - by Mario
    I am new to Mercurial and trying to figure out if it could replace SVN. Everyone I work with has used SVN, CVS and VSS (shiver), so this could be quite a large change. I have been very interested after reading about its merge and branch capability, but have a few reservations. We are currently on SVN, and have one central repository. From my reading, it seems as though there is no ONE central repository for all projects when using Mercurial. NOTE: We consider each project a separate logical set of code, or a Visual Studio Solution. It runs on its own. We have around 60 separate projects in our one central SVN repository. After reading about Mercurial it seems to me that I have to create 60 separate central repositories for each one of these projects on the server. QUESTION #1: Should I create a single repository for each project? If yes, then I am worried about configuring and hosting 60 separate central Mercurial servers. I started thinking I could configure one file, but it seems as if each repository must be individually configured using the “C:...\MyRepository.hg\hgrc” file (Windows install). It also seems as I have to run 60 servers (hg serve), I would assume on different ports. QUESTION #2: If the answer to question 1 is yes, there should be a single central repository for each project, then how have people managed many multiple repositories? Finally, I haven’t looked into moving all history and changes from one SVN repository to a bunch of separate Mercurial repositories, but would appreciate any comments from someone who has done this (or if it is even possible).

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  • Why qry.post executed with asynchronous mode?

    - by Ryan
    Recently I met a strange problem, see code snips as below: var sqlCommand: string; connection: TADOConnection; qry: TADOQuery; begin connection := TADOConnection.Create(nil); try connection.ConnectionString := 'Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Test.MDB;Persist Security Info=False'; connection.Open(); qry := TADOQuery.Create(nil); try qry.Connection := connection; qry.SQL.Text := 'Select * from aaa'; qry.Open; qry.Append; qry.FieldByName('TestField1').AsString := 'test'; qry.Post; beep; finally qry.Free; end; finally connection.Free; end; end; First, Create a new access database named test.mdb and put it under the directory of this test project, we can create a new table named aaa in it which has only one text type field named TestField1. We set a breakpoint at line of "beep", then lunch the test application under ide debug mode, when ide stops at the breakpoint line (qry.post has been executed), at this time we use microsoft access to open test.mdb and open table aaa you will find there are no any changes in table aaa, if you let the ide continue running after pressing f9 you can find a new record is inserted in to table aaa, but if you press ctrl+f2 to terminate the application at the breakpoint, you will find the table aaa has no record been inserted, but in normal circumstance, a new record should be inserted in to the table aaa after qry.post executed. who can explain this problem , it troubles me so long time. thanks !!! BTW, the ide is delphi 2010, and the access mdb file is created by microsoft access 2007 under windows 7

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  • why won't Eclipse use the compiler I specify for my project?

    - by codeman73
    I'm using Eclipse 3.3. In my project, I've set the compiler compliance level to 5.0 In the build path for the project. I've added the Java 1.5 JDK in the Installed JREs section and am referencing that System Library in my project build path. However, I'm getting compile errors for a class that implements PreparedStatement for not implementing abstract methods that only exist in Java 1.6 PreparedStatement. Specifically, the methods setAsciiStream(int, InputStream, long) and setAsciiStream(int, InputStream) Strangely enough, it worked when we were compiling it against Java 1.4, which it was originally written for. We added the JREs for Java 1.4 and referenced that system library in the project, and set the project's compiler level to 1.4, and it works fine. But when I do the same changes to try to point to Java 5.0, it instead uses Java 6. Any ideas why? I wrote a similar question earlier, here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2540548/how-do-i-get-eclipse-to-use-a-different-compiler-version-for-java I know how you're supposed to choose a different compiler but it seems Eclipse isn't taking it. It seems to be defaulting to Java 6, even though I have deleted all Java 6 JDKs and JREs that I could find. I've also updated the -vm option in my eclipse.ini to point to the Java5 JDK.

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  • How to use SendMessage to another form in same app

    - by Robert Frank
    I've been trying to get this to work for some time now and can't figure it out. Probably obvious once you know it. I simply want a non-modal form (or perhaps an instantiated non-TForm class) to send a message to the application's main form. I can make the main form send a message to itself and receive (announcing with a beep) But, I can't seem to have other objects send messages to the main form. I'm using WM_MY_MESSAGE = WM_APP + 200; What should the first argument of the SendMessage be to send a message to the main form? Even sending it to Application.MainForm.Handle doesn't seem to work. The reason I need to do this is that the modal form has a slider that another form (#2) needs to know when it changes. Notifying the other form via a callback procedure was making it sluggish as form #2 did some work before returning from the call. Is having a modal form send a windows message to the main form a reasonable way to avoid this?

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  • Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

    - by abemonkey
    I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

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  • SVN supports historical merges so how is Mercurial better?

    - by radman
    Hi, I'm a long time SVN user and have been hearing a lot of brou ha ha with regard to mercurial and decentralised version control systems in general. The main touted feature that I am aware of is that merging in Mercurial is much easier because it records information for each merge so each successive merge is aware of the previous ones. Now as stated in the red book, in the section to do with merging, SVN already supports this with mergeinfo. Now I have not actually used this feature (although I wanted to, our repo version wasn't recent enough) but is this SVN feature particularly different to what Mercurial offers? For anyone who is not aware the suggested work flow for historical merging in svn is this: branch from the development trunk to do your own thing. Regularly merge changes from trunk into your branch to stay up to date. Merge back when your done with the mergeinfo to smooth the process. Without historical data merging this is a nightmare because the comparison is strictly on the differences in the files and does not take into account the steps taken on the way. So each change in the development trunk puts you further into possible conflict when you merge back. Now what I would like to know is: Does merging using Mercurial provide a significant advantage when compared with mergeinfo in SVN or is this just a lot of hot air about nothing? Has anyone used the mergeinfo feature in SVN and how good is it actually in practice?

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  • Stale connection with Pheanstalk

    - by token47
    I'm using beanstalkd to offload some work to other machines. The setup is a bit unusual, the server is on the internet (public ip) but the consumers are behind adsl lines on some peoples homes. So there is a linux server as client going out through a dynamic ip and connecting to the server to get a job. It's all PHP and I'm using pheanstalk library. Everything runs smoothly for some time, but then the adsl changes the IP (every 24h hours the provider forces a disconnect-reconnect) the client just hangs, never to go out of "reserve". I thought that putting a timeout on the reserve would help it, but it didn't. As it seems, the client issues a command and blocks, it never checks the timeout. It just issues a reserve-with-timeout (instead of a simple reserve) and it is the servers responsibility to return a TIME_OUT as the timeout occurs. The problem is, the connection is broken (but the TCP/IP doesn't know about that yet until any of the sides try to talk to the other side) and if the client blocked reading, it will never return. The library seems to have support for some kind of timeouts locally (for example when trying to connect to server), but it does not seem to contemplate this scenario. How could I detect the stale connection and force a reconnect? Is there some kind of keepalive on the protocol (and on the pheanstalk itself)? Thanks!

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  • eclipse, one classpath for compiling, another for launching

    - by DragonFax
    example: For logging, my code uses log4j. but other jars my code is dependent upon, uses slf4j instead. So both jars must be in the build path. Unfortunately, its possible for my code to directly use (depend on) slf4j now, either by context-assist, or some other developers changes. I would like any use of slf4j to show up as an error, but my application (and tests) will still need it in the classpath when running. explanation: I'd like to find out if this is possible in eclipse. This scenario happens often for me. I'll have a large project, that uses alot of 3rd party libraries. And of course those 3rd party jars have their own dependencies as well. So I have to include all dependencies in the classpath ("build path" in eclipse) for the application and its tests to compile and run (from within eclipse). But I don't want my code to use all of those jars, just the few direct dependencies I've decided upon myself. So if my code accidentally uses a dependency of a dependency, I want it to show up as a compilation error. Ideally, as class not found, but any error would do. I know I can manually configure the classpath when running outside of eclipse, and even within eclipse I can modify the classpath for a specific class I'm running (in the run configurations), but thats not manageable if you run alot of individual test cases, or have alot of main() classes.

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  • Traceroute comparison and statistics

    - by ben-casey
    I have a number of traceroutes that i need to compare against each other but i dont know the best way to do it, ive been told that hash maps are a good technique but i dont know how to implement them on my code. so far i have: FileInputStream fstream = new FileInputStream("traceroute.log"); // Get the object of DataInputStream DataInputStream in = new DataInputStream(fstream); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String strLine; // reads lines in while ((strLine = br.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println(strLine); } and the output looks like this: Wed Mar 31 01:00:03 BST 2010 traceroute to www.bbc.co.uk (212.58.251.195), 30 hops max, 40 byte packets 1 139.222.0.1 (139.222.0.1) 0.873 ms 1.074 ms 1.162 ms 2 core-from-cmp.uea.ac.uk (10.0.0.1) 0.312 ms 0.350 ms 0.463 ms 3 ueaha1btm-from-uea1 (172.16.0.34) 0.791 ms 0.772 ms 1.238 ms 4 bound-from-ueahatop.uea.ac.uk (193.62.92.71) 5.094 ms 4.451 ms 4.441 ms 5 gi0-3.norw-rbr1.eastnet.ja.net (193.60.0.21) 4.426 ms 5.014 ms 4.389 ms 6 gi3-0-2.chel-rbr1.eastnet.ja.net (193.63.107.114) 6.055 ms 6.039 ms * 7 lond-sbr1.ja.net (146.97.40.45) 6.994 ms 7.493 ms 7.457 ms 8 so-6-0-0.lond-sbr4.ja.net (146.97.33.154) 8.206 ms 8.187 ms 8.234 ms 9 po1.lond-ban4.ja.net (146.97.35.110) 8.673 ms 6.294 ms 7.668 ms 10 bbc.lond-sbr4.ja.net (193.62.157.178) 6.303 ms 8.118 ms 8.107 ms 11 212.58.238.153 (212.58.238.153) 6.245 ms 8.066 ms 6.541 ms 12 212.58.239.62 (212.58.239.62) 7.023 ms 8.419 ms 7.068 ms what i need to do is compare this trace against another one just like it and look for the changes and time differences etc, then print a stats page.

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