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• git clone fails with "index-pack" failed?

  - by gct

  So I created a remote repo that's not bare (because I need redmine to be able to read it), and it's set to be shared with the group (so git init --shared=group). I was able to push to the remote repo and now I'm trying to clone it. If I clone it over the net I get this: remote: Counting objects: 4648, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (2837/2837), done. error: git-upload-pack: git-pack-objects died with error.B/s fatal: git-upload-pack: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. remote: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. fatal: early EOF fatal: index-pack failed I'm able to clone it locally without a problem, and I ran "git fsck", which only reports some dangling trees/blobs, which I understand aren't a problem. What could be causing this? I'm still able to pull from it, just not clone. I should note the remote git version is 1.5.6.5 while local is 1.6.0.4 I tried cloning my local copy of the repo, stripping out the .git folder and pushing to a new repo, then cloning the new repo and I get the same error, which leads me to believe it may be a file in the repo that's causing git-upload-pack to fail... Edit: I have a number of windows binaries in the repo, because I just built the python modules and then stuck them in there so everyone else didn't have to build them as well. If I remove the windows binaries and push to a new repo, I can clone again, perhaps that gives a clue. Trying to narrow down exactly what file is causing the problem now.

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• windows beneath not being painted when using a layered window

  - by Nuno

  Hi, I will try to explain my problem the best i can, I'm creating a layered window in c++ (using windowsXP), all works fine until i drag my created window near the windows start button, and then when i press the star button of windows taskbar and close it again all the windows beneath of my layered window aren't being painted (only in the area of the start window that pops over my window). My create window is like this: CWnd::CreateEx( WS_EX_TOOLWINDOW | WS_EX_LAYERED, AfxRegisterWndClass(0), lpstr_name, WS_POPUP, 0,0,0,0, pc_parent-GetSafeHwnd(), 0); ... When i create the window with this styles the problem ocurrs, but if i create with the extended style WS_EX_TRANSPARENT and all the others the problem does not occur any more. And if instead of a WS_POPUP window is a WS_CHILD or WS_OVERLAPPED then this also doesn't occur... Can anyone please explain why when i create a WS_POPUP window with the WS_EX_LAYERED style all the beneath windows aren't updated, and if i add the style WS_EX_TRANSPARENT this works fine. Note: why i do not use the WS_EX_TRANSPARENT style if it works right? if i use it then my window can not be dragged and i need it to do it :) Thanks

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• jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

  - by neezer

  I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

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• How to access and run field events from extension js?

  - by Dan Roberts

  I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

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• How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

  - by räph

  I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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• Routing in Php and decorator pattern

  - by Joey Salac Hipolito

  I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

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• Classic ASP on IIS 7

  - by jagr

  Hi, I am having problems with my app running on IIS 7. The application is a mixture of classic ASP and ASP.NET MVC (don't ask how and why). Anyway, the application is up and running except for some problems that I am experiencing. For example, I have a button on my page and when I click it, javascript is opening a popup which needs to contain .asp page. But that doesn't happen. I get the blank popup with my cursor on busy as it still loads. This is happening almost always to me in IE. In Firefox it is much better but sometimes the app jams there too. If I close the opened, blank popup, and I want to move around the application, my buttons in menu (which are also .asp) doesn't load properly. For example, I have different buttons for different sections and when I move around they should change. When I restart the browser, only then everything works normal for some time, but the problem occurs again after a while. I am very sure that it is not the problem in application itself, because it works properly on the machines of my colleagues without those problems. They have the same OS (Vista Professional) and we compared the settings in IIS and they match. So I am very confused, and I really don't know how to solve the problem. I found a bunch of articles and blog posts about classic ASP and IIS7 but most of them are about enabling asp, which I already did. So I am suspecting that something wrong with IIS, but I don't know what, tried to reinstall it, hoping for some improvement, but I had no luck. If you need more details please ask. Does anyone have any idea what should I try or do?

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• 3 tier application pattern suggestion

  - by Maxim Gershkovich

  I have attempted to make my first 3 tier application. In the process I have run into one problem I am yet to find an optimal solution for. Basically all my objects use an IFillable interface which forces the implementation of a sub as follows Public Sub Fill(ByVal Datareader As Data.IDataReader) Implements IFillable.Fill This sub then expects the Ids from the datareader will be identical to the properties of the object as such. Me.m_StockID = Datareader.GetGuid(Datareader.GetOrdinal("StockID")) In the end I end up with a datalayer that looks something like this. Public Shared Function GetStockByID(ByVal ConnectionString As String, ByVal StockID As Guid) As Stock Dim res As New Stock Using sqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnectionString) sqlConn.Open() res.Fill(StockDataLayer.GetStockByIDQuery(sqlConn, StockID)) End Using Return res End Function Mostly this pattern seems to make sense. However my problem is, lets say I want to implement a property for Stock called StockBarcodeList. Under the above mentioned pattern any way I implement this property I will need to pass a connectionstring to it which obviously breaks my attempt at layer separation. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might be able to solve this problem or am I going about this the completely wrong way? Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might improve my implementation? Please note however I am deliberately trying to avoid using the dataset in any form.

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• int.Parse of "8" fails. int.Parse always requires CultureInfo.InvariantCulture?

  - by Henrik Carlsson

  We develop an established software which works fine on all known computers except one. The problem is to parse strings that begin with "8". It seems like "8" in the beginning of a string is a reserved character. Parsing: int.Parse("8") -> Exception message: Input string was not in a correct format. int.Parse("80") -> 0 int.Parse("88") -> 8 int.Parse("8100") -> 100 CurrentCulture: sv-SE CurrentUICulture: en-US The problem is solved using int.Parse("8", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture). However, it would be nice to know the source of the problem. Question: Why do we get this behaviour of "8" if we don't specify invariant culture? Additional information: I did send a small program to my client achieve the result above: private int ParseInt(string s) { int parsedInt = -1000; try { parsedInt = int.Parse(s); textBoxMessage.Text = "Success: " + parsedInt; } catch (Exception ex) { textBoxMessage.Text = string.Format("Error parsing string: '{0}'", s) + Environment.NewLine + "Exception message: " + ex.Message; } textBoxMessage.Text += Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine + "CurrentCulture: " + Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.Name + "\r\n" + "CurrentUICulture: " + Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name + "\r\n"; return parsedInt; }

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• Get a "sqlceqp35.dll" error when debugging but not when running deployed code.

  - by nj

  In our current windows mobile project a problem while debugging recently arised. When trying to debug the code it throws an exception on the open command on a connection to the local database. The message is "A SQL Server Compact DLL could not be loaded. Reinstall SQL Server Compact Edition. [ DLL Name = sqlceqp35.dll ]". Sometime it's an unknow error instead, with reference to the same file. If you execute the binary, thats deployd during the debug, on the device it runs without any problem. I've tried: Reinstall both .net and sqlce on the device. Changed the "specific version" on the reference properties in the project. The hardware I'm using is a Motorola MC70 with Windows mobile 5.0. The target platform of the project is windows mobile 5.0. Any ideas on what might cause this problem? EDIT: When I tried it on a MC75 I can debug it. The MC70 got OS Version: 05.01.0478 and the MC75 05.01.0478. My best guess now is that it's someway related to the OS version or the actual device.

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• Stopping and Play button for Audio (Android)

  - by James Rattray

  I have this problem, I have some audio I wish to play... And I have two buttons for it, 'Play' and 'Stop'... Problem is, after I press the stop button, and then press the Play button, nothing happens. -The stop button stops the song, but I want the Play button to play the song again (from the start) Here is my code: final MediaPlayer mp = MediaPlayer.create(this, R.raw.megadeth); And then the two public onclicks: (For playing...) button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // Perform action on click button.setText("Playing!"); try { mp.prepare(); } catch (IllegalStateException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } mp.start(); // } }); And for stopping the track... final Button button2 = (Button) findViewById(R.id.cancel); button2.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { mp.stop(); mp.reset(); } }); Can anyone see the problem with this? If so could you please fix it... (For suggest) Thanks alot... James

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• Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

  - by Dan

  I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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• SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

  - by pcampbell

  Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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• Best way to store and deliver files on a CMS

  - by Tio

  Hi all.. First of all, this isn't another question about storing images on DB vs file system. I'm already storing the images on the file system. I'm just struggling to find a better way to show them to all my users. I' currently using this system. I generate a random filename using md5(uniqueid()), the problem that I'm facing, is that the image is then presented with a link like this: <img src="/_Media/0027a0af636c57b75472b224d432c09c.jpg" /> As you can see this isn't the prettiest way to show a image ( or a file ), and the name doesn't say anything about the image. I've been working with a CMS system at work, that stores all uploaded files on a single table, to access that image it uses something like this: <img src="../getattachment/94173104-e03c-499b-b41c-b25ae05a8ee1/Menu-1/Escritorios.aspx?width=175&height=175" /> As you can see the path to the image, now has a meaning compared to the other one, the problem is that this put's a big strain in the DB, for example, in the last site I made, I have an area that has around 60 images, to show the 60 images, I would have to do at least 60 individual query's to the database, besides the other query's to retrieve the various content on the page. I think you understand my dilemma, has anyone gone trough this problem, that can give me some pointers on how to solve this? Thanks..

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• Best practice PHP Form Action

  - by Rob

  Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

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• Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

  - by dreftymac

  BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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• Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

  - by figus

  VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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• How would you code a washing machine?

  - by Dan

  Imagine I have a class that represents a simple washing machine. It can perform following operations in the following order: turn on - wash - centrifuge - turn off. I see two basic alternatives: A) I can have a class WashingMachine with methods turnOn(), wash(int minutes), centrifuge(int revs), turnOff(). The problem with this is that the interface says nothing about the correct order of operations. I can at best throw InvalidOprationException if the client tries to centrifuge before machine was turned on. B) I can let the class itself take care of correct transitions and have the single method nextOperation(). The problem with this on the other hand, is that the semantics is poor. Client will not know what will happen when he calls the nextOperation(). Imagine you implement the centrifuge button’s click event so it calls nextOperation(). User presses the centrifuge button after machine was turned on and ups! machine starts to wash. I will probably need a few properties on my class to parameterize operations, or maybe a separate Program class with washLength and centrifugeRevs fields, but that is not really the problem. Which alternative is better? Or maybe there are some other, better alternatives that I missed to describe?

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• Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

  - by TandemAdam

  I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

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• Foreign/accented characters in sql query

  - by FromCanada

  I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

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• How can I diagnose "Cannot determine peer address" in my Perl TCP script?

  - by MadBoy

  I've this little script which does it's job pretty well but sometimes it tends to fail. It fails in 2 cases: with error send: Cannot determine peer address at ./tcp-new.pl line 52 with no output or anything, it just fails to deliver what it got to connected Tcp Client. Usually it happens after I disconnect from server, go home and connect it again. To fix this restart is required and it starts working. Sometimes this problem is followed by problem mentioned in point 1. Note: it's not problem when I disconnect and reconnect to it again within short amount of time (unless error nr 1 happens). So can anyone help me make this code be a bit more stable so I don't have to restart it every day? #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use IO::Socket; use IO::Select; my $tcp_port = "10008"; my $udp_port = "2099"; my $tcp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( Listen => SOMAXCONN, LocalPort => $tcp_port, Proto => 'tcp', ReuseAddr => 1, ); my $udp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( LocalPort => $udp_port, Proto => 'udp', ); my $read_select = IO::Select->new(); my $write_select = IO::Select->new(); $read_select->add($tcp_socket); $read_select->add($udp_socket); while (1) { my @read = $read_select->can_read(); foreach my $read (@read) { if ($read == $tcp_socket) { my $new_tcp = $read->accept(); $write_select->add($new_tcp); } elsif ($read == $udp_socket) { my $recv_buffer; $udp_socket->recv($recv_buffer, 1024, undef); my @write = $write_select->can_write(); foreach my $write (@write) { $write->send($recv_buffer); } } } }

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• Mac OS X and static boost libs -> std::string fail

  - by Ionic

  Hi all, I'm experiencing some very weird problems with static boost libraries under Mac OS X 10.6.6. The error message is main(78485) malloc: *** error for object 0x1000e0b20: pointer being freed was not allocated *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug [1] 78485 abort (core dumped) and a tiny bit of example code which will trigger this problem: #define BOOST_FILESYSTEM_VERSION 3 #include <boost/filesystem.hpp> #include <iostream> int main (int argc, char **argv) { std::cout << boost::filesystem::current_path ().string () << '\n'; } This problem always occurs when linking the static boost libraries into the binary. Linking dynamically will work fine, though. I've seen various reports for quite a similar OS X bug with GCC 4.2 and the _GLIBCXX_DEBUG macro set, but this one seems even more generic, as I'm neither using XCode, nor setting the macro (even undefining it does not help. I tried it just to make sure it's really not related to this problem.) Does anybody have any pointers to why this is happening or even maybe a solution (rather than using the dynamic library workaround)? Best regards, Mihai

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• Summation loop program in Pascal

  - by user2526598

  I am having a bit of an issue with this problem. I am taking a Pascal programming class and this problem was in my logic book. I am required to have the user enter a series of (+) numbers and once he/she enters a (-) number, the program should find the sum of all the (+) numbers. I accomplished this, but now I am attempting part two of this problem, which requires me to utilize a nested loop to run the program x amount of times based on the user's input. The following code is what I have so far and honestly I am stumped: program summation; //Define main program's variables var num, sum, numRun : integer; //Design procedure that will promt user for number of runs procedure numRunLoop ( var numRun : integer ); begin writeln('How many times shall I run this program?'); readln(numRun); end; //Design procedure that will sum a series of numbers //based on user input procedure numPromptLoop( numRun : integer; var num : integer ); var count : integer; begin //Utilize for to establish run limit for count := 1 to numRun do begin //Use repeat to prompt user for numbers repeat writeln('Enter a number: '); readln(num); //Tells program when to sum if num >= 0 then sum := sum + num; until num < 0; end; end; //Design procedure that will display procedure addItion( sum : integer ); begin writeln('The sum is; ', sum); end; begin numRunLoop(numRun); numPromptloop(numRun, num); addItion(sum); readln(); end.

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• In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

  - by Thorsten S.

  Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

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• Trying to convert existing production database table columns from enum to VARCHAR (Rails)

  - by dchua

  Hi everyone, I have a problem that needs me to convert my existing live production (I've duplicated the schema on my local development box, don't worry :)) table column types from enums to a string. Background: Basically, a previous developer left my codebase in absolute shit, migration versions are extremely out of date, and apparently he never used it after a certain point of time in development and now that I'm tasked with migrating a rails 1.2.6 app to 2.3.5, I can't get the tests to run properly on 2.3.5 because my table columns have ENUM column types and they convert to :string, :limit = 0 on my schema.rb which creates the problem of an invalid default value when doing a rake db:test:prepare, like in the case of: Mysql::Error: Invalid default value for 'own_vehicle': CREATE TABLE `lifestyles` (`id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL auto_increment PRIMARY KEY, `member_id` int(11) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL, `own_vehicle` varchar(0) DEFAULT 'Y' NOT NULL, `hobbies` text, `sports` text, `AStar_activities` text, `how_know_IRC` varchar(100), `IRC_referral` varchar(200), `IRC_others` varchar(100), `IRC_rdrive` varchar(30)) ENGINE=InnoDB I'm thinking of writing a migration task that looks through all the database tables for columns with enum and replace it with VARCHAR and I'm wondering if this is the right way to approach this problem. I'm also not very sure how to write it such that it would loop through my database tables and replace all ENUM colum_types with a VARCHAR. References [1] https://rails.lighthouseapp.com/projects/8994/tickets/997-dbschemadump-saves-enum-columns-as-varchar0-on-mysql [2] http://dev.rubyonrails.org/ticket/2832

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