Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 499/1423 | < Previous Page | 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506  | Next Page >

• ResXResourceWriter Chops off end of file

  - by Aaron Salazar

  I'm trying to create a .resx file from a dictionary of strings. Luckily the .Net framework has a ResXResourceWriter class. The only problem is that when I create the file using the code below, the last few lines of my generated resx file are missing. I checked my Dictionary and it contains all the string pairs that I expect. public void ExportToResx(Dictionary<string,string> resourceDictionary, string fileName) { var writer = new ResXResourceWriter(fileName); foreach (var resource in resourceDictionary) { writer.AddResource(resource.Key, resource.Value); } } Unfortunately, it is a little difficult to show the entire resx file since it has 2198 (should have 2222) lines but here is the last little bit: ... 2195 <data name="LangAlign_ReportIssue" xml:space="preserve"> 2196 <value>Report an Issue</value> 2197 </data> 2198 <data name="LangAlign_Return BTW, notice that the file cuts off right at the end of that "n" in "LangAlign_Return". The string should read "LangAlign_ReturnToWorkspace". The file should also end at line 2222.

  Read the article

• Casting Type array to Generic array?

  - by George R

  The short version of the question - why can't I do this? I'm restricted to .NET 3.5. T[] genericArray; // Obviously T should be float! genericArray = new T[3]{ 1.0f, 2.0f, 0.0f }; // Can't do this either, why the hell not genericArray = new float[3]{ 1.0f, 2.0f, 0.0f }; Longer version - I'm working with the Unity engine here, although that's not important. What is - I'm trying to throw conversion between its fixed Vector2 (2 floats) and Vector3 (3 floats) and my generic Vector< class. I can't cast types directly to a generic array. using UnityEngine; public struct Vector { private readonly T[] _axes; #region Constructors public Vector(int axisCount) { this._axes = new T[axisCount]; } public Vector(T x, T y) { this._axes = new T[2] { x, y }; } public Vector(T x, T y, T z) { this._axes = new T[3]{x, y, z}; } public Vector(Vector2 vector2) { // This doesn't work this._axes = new T[2] { vector2.x, vector2.y }; } public Vector(Vector3 vector3) { // Nor does this this._axes = new T[3] { vector3.x, vector3.y, vector3.z }; } #endregion #region Properties public T this[int i] { get { return _axes[i]; } set { _axes[i] = value; } } public T X { get { return _axes[0];} set { _axes[0] = value; } } public T Y { get { return _axes[1]; } set { _axes[1] = value; } } public T Z { get { return this._axes.Length (Vector2 vector2) { Vector vector = new Vector(vector2); return vector; } public static explicit operator Vector(Vector3 vector3) { Vector vector = new Vector(vector3); return vector; } #endregion }

  Read the article

• C# function called after dependency property have been set

  - by mizipzor

  My code currently looks like this: private Foo myFoo; public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return myFoo; } set { SetFoo(value); } } private void SetFoo(Foo newFoo) { // Do stuff // Here be dragons myFoo = newFoo; } To be able to bind it in XAML/WPF I need to turn Foo into a dependency property: public static DependencyProperty CurrentFooProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentFoo", typeof(Foo), typeof(FooHandler), new PropertyMetadata(false)); public Foo CurrentFoo { get { return (Foo)GetValue(CurrentFooProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentFooProperty, value); } } Ive heard that you shouldnt do magic inside the actual C# property set {}, since it might not be called but the value is written directly to the dependency property. If this is false, let me know, it seems like the most obvious and simple route to take. I know I can add a validation function to the dependency property but I assume that it shouldnt be used for this? I need to communicate the change to legacy systems that cannot yet be bound in XAML. Whats the best way to approach this problem?

  Read the article

• Powershell: splatting after passing hashtable by reference

  - by user1815871

  Powershell newbie ... I recently learned about splatting — very useful. I ran into a snag when I passed a hash table by reference to a function for splatting purposes. (For brevity's sake — a silly example.) Function AllMyChildren { param ( [ref]$ReferenceToHash } get-childitem @ReferenceToHash.Value # etc.etc. } $MyHash = @{ 'path' = '*' 'include' = '*.ps1' 'name' = $null } AllMyChildren ([ref]$MyHash) Result: an error ("Splatted variables cannot be used as part of a property or array expression. Assign the result of the expression to a temporary variable then splat the temporary variable instead."). Tried this afterward: $newVariable = $ReferenceToHash.Value get-childitem @NewVariable That did work and seemed right per the error message. But: is it the preferred syntax in a case like this? (An oh, look, it actually worked solution isn't always a best practice. My approach here strikes me as "Perl-minded" and perhaps in Powershell passing by value is better, though I don't yet know the syntax for it w.r.t. a hash table.)

  Read the article

• how to write this query using joins?

  - by aquero

  Hi, i have a table campaign which has details of campaign mails sent. campaign_table: campaign_id campaign_name flag 1 test1 1 2 test2 1 3 test3 0 another table campaign activity which has details of campaign activities. campaign_activity: campaign_id is_clicked is_opened 1 0 1 1 1 0 2 0 1 2 1 0 I want to get all campaigns with flag value 3 and the number of is_clicked columns with value 1 and number of columns with is_opened value 1 in a single query. ie. campaign_id campaign_name numberofclicks numberofopens 1 test1 1 1 2 test2 1 1 I did this using sub-query with the query: select c.campaign_id,c.campaign_name, (SELECT count(campaign_id) from campaign_activity WHERE campaign_id=c.id AND is_clicked=1) as numberofclicks, (SELECT count(campaign_id) from campaign_activity WHERE campaign_id=c.id AND is_clicked=1) as numberofopens FROM campaign c WHERE c.flag=1 But people say that using sub-queries are not a good coding convention and you have to use join instead of sub-queries. But i don't know how to get the same result using join. I consulted with some of my colleagues and they are saying that its not possible to use join in this situation. Is it possible to get the same result using joins? if yes, please tell me how.

  Read the article

• Haskel dot (.) and dollar ($) composition: correct use.

  - by Robert Massaioli

  I have been reading Real World Haskell and I am nearing the end but a matter of style has been niggling at me to do with the (.) and ($) operators. When you write a function that is a composition of other functions you write it like: f = g . h But when you apply something to the end of those functions I write it like this: k = a $ b $ c $ value But the book would write it like this: k = a . b . c $ value Now to me they look functionally equivalent, they do the exact same thing in my eyes. However, the more I look, the more I see people writing their functions in the manner that the book does: compose with (.) first and then only at the end use ($) to append a value to evaluate the lot (nobody does it with many dollar compositions). Is there a reason for using the books way that is much better than using all ($) symbols? Or is there some best practice here that I am not getting? Or is it superfluous and I shouldn't be worrying about it at all? Thanks.

  Read the article

• php check box selection

  - by DAFFODIL

  I have a form in which data fro back end will be listed out in table.There will a chk box at beginning of each row. For eg,if there are 10 items and ,i need only two items,i ii chk in check box,when i press print it should be passed to print page. Mates thnx in advance. mysql_select_db("form1", $con); error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE); $nam=$_REQUEST['select1']; $row=mysql_query("select * from inv where name='$nam'"); while($row1=mysql_fetch_array($row)) { $Name=$row1['Name']; $Address =$row1['Address']; $City=$row1['City']; $Pincode=$row1['Pincode']; $No=$row1['No']; $Date=$row1['Date']; $DCNo=$row1['DCNo']; $DcDate=$row1['DcDate']; $YourOrderNo=$row1['YourOrderNo']; $OrderDate=$row1['OrderDate']; $VendorCode=$row1['VendorCode']; $SNo=$row1['SNo']; $descofgoods=$row1['descofgoods']; $Qty=$row1['Qty']; $Rate=$row1['Rate']; $Amount=$row1['Amount']; } ? Untitled Document function ram(id) { var q=document.getElementById('qty_'+id).value; var r=document.getElementById('rate_'+id).value; document.getElementById('amt_'+id).value=q*r; } function g() { form1.submit(); } Name select " Address City ' / Pincode ' No ' readonly="" / Date ' readonly="" / DCNo ' readonly="" / DcDate: ' / YourOrderNo ' readonly="" / OrderDate ' readonly="" / VendorCode ' readonly="" /   SNO DESCRIPTION QUANTITY RATE/UNIT AMOUNT ' readonly=""/ ' / "/ ' id="rate_" onclick="ram('')"; "/ "Print

  Read the article

• How to define default values optional fields in play framework forms?

  - by natalinobusa

  I am implementing a web api using the scala 2.0.2 play framework. I would like to extract and validate a number of get parameters. And for this I am using a play "form" which allows me to define optional fields. Problem: For those optional fields, I need to define a default value if the parameter is not passed. The code is intended to parse correctly these three use cases: /test?top=abc (error, abc is not an integer) /test?top=123 (valid, top is 123) /test (valid, top is 42 (default value)) I have come up with the following code: def test = Action { implicit request => case class CData(top:Int) val p = Form( mapping( "top" -> optional(number) )((top) => CData($top.getOrElse(42))) ((cdata:CData) => Some(Some(cdata.top))) ).bindFromRequest() Ok("all done.") } The code works, but it's definitely not elegant. There is a lot of boiler plate going on just to set up a default value for a missing request parameter. Can anyone suggest a cleaner and more coincise solution?

  Read the article

• CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

  - by theninepoundhammer

  Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

  Read the article

• Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

  - by Joe

  I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

  Read the article

• (Rails) Creating multi-dimensional hashes/arrays from a data set...?

  - by humble_coder

  Hi All, I'm having a bit of an issue wrapping my head around something. I'm currently using a hacked version of Gruff in order to accommodate "Scatter Plots". That said, the data is entered in the form of: g.data("Person1",[12,32,34,55,23],[323,43,23,43,22]) ...where the first item is the ENTITY, the second item is X-COORDs, and the third item is Y-COORDs. I currently have a recordset of items from a table with the columns: POINT, VALUE, TIMESTAMP. Due to the "complex" calculations involved I must grab everything using a single query or risk way too much DB activity. That said, I have a list of items for which I need to dynamically collect all data from the recordset into a hash (or array of arrays) for the creation of the data items. I was thinking something like the following: @h={} e = Events.find_by_sql(my_query) e.each do |event| @h["#{event.Point}"][x] = event.timestamp @h["#{event.Point}"][y] = event.value end Obviously that's not the correct syntax, but that's where my brain is going. Could someone clean this up for me or suggest a more appropriate mechanism by which to accomplish this? Basically the main goal is to keep data for each pointname grouped (but remember the recordset has them all). Much appreciated. EDIT 1 g = Gruff::Scatter.new("600x350") g.title = self.name e = Event.find_by_sql(@sql) h ={} e.each do |event| h[event.Point.to_s] ||= {} h[event.Point.to_s].merge!({event.Timestamp.to_i,event.Value}) end h.each do |p| logger.info p[1].values.inspect g.data(p[0],p[1].keys,p[1].values) end g.write(@chart_file)

  Read the article

• In XSLT, how can you sort using an indirect key?

  - by edholder

  I am having trouble getting xsl:sort to understand the scope of the attributes I am referencing. Here is an XML sample document to illustrate: <Root> <DrinkSelections> <Drink id=1000 name="Coffee"/> <Drink id=1001 name="Water"/> <Drink id=1002 name="Tea"/> <Drink id=1003 name="Almost But Not Quite Entirely Unlike Tea"/> </DrinkSelections> <CustomerOrder> <Drinks> <Drink oid="1001"/> <Drink oid="1002"/> <Drink oid="1003"/> </Drinks> </CustomerOrder </Root> I want to produce a list of drinks (sorted by name) contained in the CustomerOrder. Here is the XSLT code I am fiddling with: <xsl:for-each select="/Root/CustomerOrder/Drinks/Drink"> <xsl:sort select="/Root/DrinkSelections/Drink[@id = @oid]/@name"/> <xsl:variable name=var_oid select="@oid"/> <xsl:value-of select="/Root/DrinkSelections/Drink[@id = $var_oid]/@name"/> </xsl:for-each> Apparently, the xsl:sort command is trying to apply the "oid" attribute to the Drink elements in DrinkSelections, rather than local Drink element. I can get around this using a variable, as in the xsl:value-of statement. But since xsl:sort must be the first statement after the xsl:for-each statement, I can't insert the xsl:variable statement before xsl:sort. Is there a way to explicitly state that the attribute value should be taken from the "local" element?

  Read the article

• How to face observable object containing an observable field

  - by iseek

  Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

  Read the article

• what exactly is this.id ?

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, I was doing some dynamic effect on DIV using JQuery when I found that the returned value of this.id varied from function to function. I got two sets of simple parent-child DIV tags like this: <DIV ID="row"> <DIV ID="c1"> <Input type="radio" name="testing" id="testing" VALUE="1">testing1 </DIV> </DIV> <DIV ID="row"> <DIV ID="c2"> <Input type="radio" name="testing" id="testing" VALUE="2">testing2 </DIV> </DIV> Code 1. $('#row DIV').mouseover(function(){ radio_btns.each(function() { $('#row DIV).addClass('testing'); // worked }); }); Code 2. $('#row DIV').mouseover(function(){ var childDivID = this.id; radio_btns.each(function() { $('#'+childDivID).parent('DIV').addClass('testing'); // didn't work }); }); I don't understand why only the first code couldn work and highlighted all the "row" DIV, but the first code failed to do so?

  Read the article

• Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

  - by Saurabh Bhandari

  I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

  Read the article

• GridView ObjectDataSource LINQ Paging and Sorting using multiple table query.

  - by user367426

  I am trying to create a pageing and sorting object data source that before execution returns all results, then sorts on these results before filtering and then using the take and skip methods with the aim of retrieving just a subset of results from the database (saving on database traffic). this is based on the following article: http://www.singingeels.com/Blogs/Nullable/2008/03/26/Dynamic_LINQ_OrderBy_using_String_Names.aspx Now I have managed to get this working even creating lambda expressions to reflect the sort expression returned from the grid even finding out the data type to sort for DateTime and Decimal. public static string GetReturnType<TInput>(string value) { var param = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TInput), "o"); Expression a = Expression.Property(param, "DisplayPriceType"); Expression b = Expression.Property(a, "Name"); Expression converted = Expression.Convert(Expression.Property(param, value), typeof(object)); Expression<Func<TInput, object>> mySortExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<TInput, object>>(converted, param); UnaryExpression member = (UnaryExpression)mySortExpression.Body; return member.Operand.Type.FullName; } Now the problem I have is that many of the Queries return joined tables and I would like to sort on fields from the other tables. So when executing a query you can create a function that will assign the properties from other tables to properties created in the partial class. public static Account InitAccount(Account account) { account.CurrencyName = account.Currency.Name; account.PriceTypeName = account.DisplayPriceType.Name; return account; } So my question is, is there a way to assign the value from the joined table to the property of the current table partial class? i have tried using. from a in dc.Accounts where a.CompanyID == companyID && a.Archived == null select new { PriceTypeName = a.DisplayPriceType.Name}) but this seems to mess up my SortExpression. Any help on this would be much appreciated, I do understand that this is complex stuff.

  Read the article

• Need a refresher course on property access...

  - by Code Sherpa

  Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

  Read the article

• using respond_to format.js to replace the content of a textarea on rails

  - by Stacia

  I have some saved text in my create controller. If it's not stressful, I'd like it to populate a textarea on the page with the saved text along with displaying the error message fields (which is what's already happening). I've used things like replace_html before, but I don't know if there's an easy way to get to textarea or text field IDs and just replace the value of the text. For now I'm just going to do some javascript but it would be nice to know the rails shortcut. edit: I wasn't in the right mindset because this app uses extjs and was trying to figure out how to do it this way. The text box is actually an ext status bar (same as here : http://www.extjs.com/deploy/dev/examples/statusbar/statusbar-demo.html ) which doesn't get created until the page is finished loading. When I try to enter commnands like the first poster suggested, I get "setvalue is not a function". Playing with firebug on the page I can get it to set the value after loading by using (whatever method to get it through ext or scriptaculous).value = "lol" but none of the page update things work with this.

  Read the article

• Passing a variable from beggining to end - Paypal

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hi all, I'be been at this for days and i cant seem to figure it out. All i want to do is when subscribe button is pushed, a variable is send ( post get i dont care ) payment is completed and landed on the success page, with my variable! From what i can gather this should be able to do it: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_s-xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="hosted_button_id" value="0000000"> <Input type="hidden" name="custom" value="<?php md5($code.microtime()); ?>"/> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_US/i/btn/btn_subscribeCC_LG.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online!"> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_US/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </form> Any help much appreciated ( and yes I've read paypal and sandbox documentation, just not that good at reading. )

  Read the article

• Contrary to Python 3.1 Docs, hash(obj) != id(obj). So which is correct?

  - by Don O'Donnell

  The following is from the Python v3.1.2 documentation: From The Python Language Reference Section 3.3.1 Basic Customization: object.__hash__(self) ... User-defined classes have __eq__() and __hash__() methods by default; with them, all objects compare unequal (except with themselves) and x.__hash__() returns id(x). From The Glossary: hashable ... Objects which are instances of user-defined classes are hashable by default; they all compare unequal, and their hash value is their id(). This is true up through version 2.6.5: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79096, Mar 19 2010 21:48:26) ... ... >>> class C(object): pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11335856 >>> hash(c) 11335856 But in version 3.1.2: Python 3.1.2 (r312:79149, Mar 21 2010, 00:41:52) ... ... >>> class C: pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11893680 >>> hash(c) 743355 So which is it? Should I report a documentation bug or a program bug? And if it's a documentation bug, and the default hash() value for a user class instance is no longer the same as the id() value, then it would be interesting to know what it is or how it is calculated, and why it was changed in version 3.

  Read the article

• JavaScript: why `null == 0` is false?

  - by lemonedo

  I had to write a routine that increments the value of a variable by 1 if it is a number, or assigns 0 to the variable if it is not a number. The variable can be incremented by the expression, or be assigned null. No other write access to the variable is allowed. So, the variable can be in three states: it is 0, a positive integer, or null. My first implementation was: v >= 0 ? v += 1 : v = 0 (Yes, I admit that v === null ? v = 0 : v += 1 is the exact solution, but I wanted to be concise then.) It failed since null >= 0 is true. I was confused, since if a value is not a number, an numeric expression involving it must be false always. Then I found that null is like 0, since null + 1 == 1, 1 / null == Infinity, Math.pow(2.718281828, null) == 1, ... Strangely enough, however, null == 0 is evaluated to false. I guess null is the only value that makes the following expression false: (v == 0) === (v >= 0 && v <= 0) So why null is so special in JavaScript?

  Read the article

• Why doesn't this PHP execute?

  - by cam

  I copied the code from this site exactly: http://davidwalsh.name/web-service-php-mysql-xml-json as follows, /* require the user as the parameter */ if(isset($_GET['user']) && intval($_GET['user'])) { /* soak in the passed variable or set our own */ $number_of_posts = isset($_GET['num']) ? intval($_GET['num']) : 10; //10 is the default $format = strtolower($_GET['format']) == 'json' ? 'json' : 'xml'; //xml is the default $user_id = intval($_GET['user']); //no default /* connect to the db */ $link = mysql_connect('localhost','username','password') or die('Cannot connect to the DB'); mysql_select_db('db_name',$link) or die('Cannot select the DB'); /* grab the posts from the db */ $query = "SELECT post_title, guid FROM wp_posts WHERE post_author = $user_id AND post_status = 'publish' ORDER BY ID DESC LIMIT $number_of_posts"; $result = mysql_query($query,$link) or die('Errant query: '.$query); /* create one master array of the records */ $posts = array(); if(mysql_num_rows($result)) { while($post = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $posts[] = array('post'=>$post); } } /* output in necessary format */ if($format == 'json') { header('Content-type: application/json'); echo json_encode(array('posts'=>$posts)); } else { header('Content-type: text/xml'); echo '<posts>'; foreach($posts as $index => $post) { if(is_array($post)) { foreach($post as $key => $value) { echo '<',$key,'>'; if(is_array($value)) { foreach($value as $tag => $val) { echo '<',$tag,'>',htmlentities($val),'</',$tag,'>'; } } echo '</',$key,'>'; } } } echo '</posts>'; } /* disconnect from the db */ @mysql_close($link); } And the php doesn't execute, it just displays as plain text. What's the dealio? The host supports PHP, I use it to run a Wordpress blog and other things.

  Read the article

• Create a variable which is named depending on an ID number?

  - by gray

  Is there any way to create a variable, and add an ID to the end of the actual variable name? I have a variable called 'gauge', used to create a new Gauge object: var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); I want to add an ID to the variable, so something like: var gauge+id = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); It's because I'm creating a number of these objects, and have a specific ID already for each one, which I want to attach to the gauge object if possible? All my code for this function is below, if it gives you a better idea of what i need to do: function go(id, votes) { var val = $('#votes_'+id).text(); var target = document.getElementById('foo_'+id); // your canvas element var gauge = new Gauge(target).setOptions(opts); // create sexy gauge! gauge.maxValue = 100; // set max gauge value gauge.animationSpeed = 20; // set animation speed (32 is default value) var a=votes+0.5; gauge.set(val); // set actual value } My main problem arises on the last line. It says gauge.set(val), and it only sets the last object, ignoring all the other ones...

  Read the article

• Why are these lines being skipped? (java)

  - by David

  Here's the relevant bit of the source code: class Dice { String name ; int x ; int[] sum ; ... public Dice (String name) { this.name = name ; this.x = 0 ; this.sum = new int[7] ; } ... public static void main (String[] arg) { Dice a1 = new Dice ("a1") ; printValues (a1) ; } public static void printDice (Dice Dice) { System.out.println (Dice.name) ; System.out.println ("value: "+Dice.x) ; printValues (Dice) ; } public static void printValues (Dice Dice) { for (int i = 0; i<Dice.sum.length; i++) System.out.println ("#of "+i+"'s: "+Dice.sum[i]) ; } } Here is the output: #of 0's: 0 #of 1's: 0 #of 2's: 0 #of 3's: 0 #of 4's: 0 #of 5's: 0 #of 6's: 0 Why didn't these two lines execute inside printDice: System.out.println (Dice.name) ; System.out.println ("value: "+Dice.x) ; if they had then i would expect to see "a1" and "Value: 0" printed at the top of the rows of #of's

  Read the article

• Stop animation on last element

  - by littleMan

  I have a sliding panel and on the last element I want the animation to stop i've tried using the .is(':last') and it doesn't stop. here is my code. the current var is set to the first element when the form loads. It animates to the left and keeps animating when you click the next button i just want to stop it on the last element jQuery('.wikiform .navigation input[name^=Next]').click(function () { if (current.is(':last')) return; jQuery('.wikiform .wizard').animate({ marginLeft: '-=' + current.width() + "px" }, 750); current = current.next();}); <div id="formView1" class="wikiform"> <div class="wizard"> <div id="view1" class="view"> <div class="form"> Content 1 </div> </div> <div id="view2" class="view"> <div class="form"> Content 2 </div> </div> </div> <div class="navigation"> <input type="button" name="Back" value=" Back " /> <input type="button" name="Next " class="Next" value=" Next " /> <input type="button" name="Cancel" value="Cancel" /> </div> </div>

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506  | Next Page >