Search Results

Search found 68828 results on 2754 pages for 'knapsack problem'.

Page 500/2754 | < Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >

• Get a "sqlceqp35.dll" error when debugging but not when running deployed code.

  - by nj

  In our current windows mobile project a problem while debugging recently arised. When trying to debug the code it throws an exception on the open command on a connection to the local database. The message is "A SQL Server Compact DLL could not be loaded. Reinstall SQL Server Compact Edition. [ DLL Name = sqlceqp35.dll ]". Sometime it's an unknow error instead, with reference to the same file. If you execute the binary, thats deployd during the debug, on the device it runs without any problem. I've tried: Reinstall both .net and sqlce on the device. Changed the "specific version" on the reference properties in the project. The hardware I'm using is a Motorola MC70 with Windows mobile 5.0. The target platform of the project is windows mobile 5.0. Any ideas on what might cause this problem? EDIT: When I tried it on a MC75 I can debug it. The MC70 got OS Version: 05.01.0478 and the MC75 05.01.0478. My best guess now is that it's someway related to the OS version or the actual device.

  Read the article

• Java hangs when trying to close a ProcessBuilder OutputStream

  - by Jeff Bullard

  I have the following Java code to start a ProcessBuilder, open an OutputStream, have the process write a string to an OutputStream, and then close the OutputStream. The whole thing hangs indefinitely when I try to close the OutputStream. This only happens on Windows, never on Mac or Linux. Some of the related questions seem to be close to the same problem I'm having, but I haven't been able to figure out how to apply the answers to my problem, as I am a relative newbie with Java. Here is the code. You can see I have put in a lot of println statements to try to isolate the problem. System.out.println("GenMic trying to get the input file now"); System.out.flush(); OutputStream out = child.getOutputStream(); try { System.out.println("GenMic getting ready to write the input file to out"); System.out.flush(); out.write(intext.getBytes()); System.out.println("GenMic finished writing to out"); System.out.flush(); out.close(); System.out.println("GenMic closed OutputStream"); System.out.flush(); } catch (IOException iox) { System.out.println("GenMic caught IOException 2"); System.out.flush(); String detailedMessage = iox.getMessage(); System.out.println("Exception: " + detailedMessage); System.out.flush(); throw new RuntimeException(iox); } And here is the output when this chunk is executed: GenMic trying to get the input file now GenMic getting ready to write the input file to out GenMic finished writing to out

  Read the article

• git clone fails with "index-pack" failed?

  - by gct

  So I created a remote repo that's not bare (because I need redmine to be able to read it), and it's set to be shared with the group (so git init --shared=group). I was able to push to the remote repo and now I'm trying to clone it. If I clone it over the net I get this: remote: Counting objects: 4648, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (2837/2837), done. error: git-upload-pack: git-pack-objects died with error.B/s fatal: git-upload-pack: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. remote: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. fatal: early EOF fatal: index-pack failed I'm able to clone it locally without a problem, and I ran "git fsck", which only reports some dangling trees/blobs, which I understand aren't a problem. What could be causing this? I'm still able to pull from it, just not clone. I should note the remote git version is 1.5.6.5 while local is 1.6.0.4 I tried cloning my local copy of the repo, stripping out the .git folder and pushing to a new repo, then cloning the new repo and I get the same error, which leads me to believe it may be a file in the repo that's causing git-upload-pack to fail... Edit: I have a number of windows binaries in the repo, because I just built the python modules and then stuck them in there so everyone else didn't have to build them as well. If I remove the windows binaries and push to a new repo, I can clone again, perhaps that gives a clue. Trying to narrow down exactly what file is causing the problem now.

  Read the article

• Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

  - by Dan

  I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Foreign/accented characters in sql query

  - by FromCanada

  I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

  Read the article

• Routing in Php and decorator pattern

  - by Joey Salac Hipolito

  I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

  Read the article

• How can I diagnose "Cannot determine peer address" in my Perl TCP script?

  - by MadBoy

  I've this little script which does it's job pretty well but sometimes it tends to fail. It fails in 2 cases: with error send: Cannot determine peer address at ./tcp-new.pl line 52 with no output or anything, it just fails to deliver what it got to connected Tcp Client. Usually it happens after I disconnect from server, go home and connect it again. To fix this restart is required and it starts working. Sometimes this problem is followed by problem mentioned in point 1. Note: it's not problem when I disconnect and reconnect to it again within short amount of time (unless error nr 1 happens). So can anyone help me make this code be a bit more stable so I don't have to restart it every day? #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use IO::Socket; use IO::Select; my $tcp_port = "10008"; my $udp_port = "2099"; my $tcp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( Listen => SOMAXCONN, LocalPort => $tcp_port, Proto => 'tcp', ReuseAddr => 1, ); my $udp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( LocalPort => $udp_port, Proto => 'udp', ); my $read_select = IO::Select->new(); my $write_select = IO::Select->new(); $read_select->add($tcp_socket); $read_select->add($udp_socket); while (1) { my @read = $read_select->can_read(); foreach my $read (@read) { if ($read == $tcp_socket) { my $new_tcp = $read->accept(); $write_select->add($new_tcp); } elsif ($read == $udp_socket) { my $recv_buffer; $udp_socket->recv($recv_buffer, 1024, undef); my @write = $write_select->can_write(); foreach my $write (@write) { $write->send($recv_buffer); } } } }

  Read the article

• Best practice PHP Form Action

  - by Rob

  Hi there i've built a new script (from scratch not a CMS) and i've done alot of work on reducing memory usage and the time it takes for the page to be displayed (caching HTML etc) There's one thing that i'm not sure about though. Take a simple example of an article with a comments section. If the comment form posts to another page that then redirects back to the article page I won't have the problem of people clicking refresh and resending the information. However if I do it that way, I have to load up my script twice use twice as much memory and it takes twice as long whilst i'm still only displaying the page once. Here's an example from my load log. The first load of the article is from the cache, the second rebuilds the page after the comment is posted. Example 1 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.018667 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1325723 bytes of memory in 0.075825 - domain.com/article/1/my_article/newcomment.html 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.029449 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Example 2 0 queries using 650856 bytes of memory in 0.023526 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html 9 queries using 1659096 bytes of memory in 0.060032 - domain.com/article/1/my_article.html Obviously the time fluctuates so you can't really compare that. But as you can see with the first method I use more memory and it takes longer to load. BUT the first method avoides the refresh problem. Does anyone have any suggestions for the best approach or for alternative ways to avoid the extra load (admittadely minimal but i'd still like to avoid it) whilst also avoiding the refresh problem?

  Read the article

• Python: circular imports needed for type checking

  - by phild

  First of all: I do know that there are already many questions and answers to the topic of the circular imports. The answer is more or less: "Design your Module/Class structure properly and you will not need circular imports". That is true. I tried very hard to make a proper design for my current project, I in my opinion I was successful with this. But my specific problem is the following: I need a type check in a module that is already imported by the module containing the class to check against. But this throws an import error. Like so: foo.py: from bar import Bar class Foo(object): def __init__(self): self.__bar = Bar(self) bar.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not isinstance(arg_instance_of_foo, Foo): raise TypeError() Solution 1: If I modified it to check the type by a string comparison, it will work. But I dont really like this solution (string comparsion is rather expensive for a simple type check, and could get a problem when it comes to refactoring). bar_modified.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not arg_instance_of_foo.__class__.__name__ == "Foo": raise TypeError() Solution 2: I could also pack the two classes into one module. But my project has lots of different classes like the "Bar" example, and I want to seperate them into different module files. After my own 2 solutions are no option for me: Has anyone a nicer solution for this problem?

  Read the article

• How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

  - by räph

  I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

  Read the article

• Best way to handle Many-to-Many relationships in PHP MySQL

  - by Jayrox

  I am looking for the best way to handle a database of many-to-many relationships in PHP and MySQL. Right now I have 2 tables: Users (id, user_name, first_name, last_name) Connections (id_1, id_2) In the User table id is auto incremented on add and user_name is unique, but can be changed. Unfortunately, I don't have control over the user_name and its ability to be changed, but I must account for it. The Connections table is obviously, user1 and user2's id. The connection table needs to account for these possible relations: user1 --> user2 (user 1 friends with user 2 but not user2 friends with user1) user2 --> user1 (user 2 friends with user 1 but not user1 friends with user2) user1 <--> user2 (user 1 and user 2 mutually friends) user1 <-!-> user2 (user 1 and user 2 not friends) That part is not the problem, The problem I am having with is keeping these relations unique when and if they change in batches. Possible solution 1: delete all of user 1's relations and readd them with the updated list. I think this might be too slow for my needs. Solution 2? Anyone else encounter this problem? How should I best handle this? update: distinguishing relationships: i handle relationships like this: user1, user2 user1, user3 user2, user1 in that example the following is true: user1 follows user2 and user3 user2 only follows user1 but doesn't follow user3 user3 doesn't follow either user1 or user2

  Read the article

• WebClient Lost my Session

  - by kamiar3001

  Hi folks I have a problem first of all look at my web service method : [WebMethod(), ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetPageContent(string VirtualPath) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); string content=string.Empty; client.Encoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; try { if (VirtualPath.IndexOf("______") > 0) content = client.DownloadString(HttpContext.Current.Request.UrlReferrer.AbsoluteUri.Replace("Main.aspx", VirtualPath.Replace("__", "."))); else content = client.DownloadString(HttpContext.Current.Request.UrlReferrer.AbsoluteUri.Replace("Main.aspx", VirtualPath)); } catch { content = "Not Found"; } return content; } As you can see my web service method read and buffer page from it's localhost it works and I use it to add some ajax functionality to my web site it works fine but my problem is Client.DownloadString(..) lost all session because my sessions are all null which are related to this page for more description. at page-load in the page which I want to load from my web service I set session : HttpContext.Current.Session[E_ShopData.Constants.SessionKey_ItemList] = result; but when I click a button in the page this session is null I mean it can't transfer session. How I can solve this problem ? my web service is handled by some jquery code like following : $.ajax({ type: "Post", url: "Services/NewE_ShopServices.asmx" + "/" + "GetPageContent", data: "{" + "VirtualPath" + ":" + mp + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", complete: hideBlocker, success: LoadAjaxSucceeded, async: true, cache: false, error: AjaxFailed });

  Read the article

• ASP.Net MVC, JS injection and System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path

  - by Mose

  Hi, In my ASP.Net MVC application, I use custom error handling. I want to perform custom actions for each error case I meet in my application. So I override Application_Error, get the Server.GetLastError(); and do my business depending on the exception, the current user, the current URL (the application runs on many domains), the user IP, and many others. Obviousely, the application is often the target of hackers. In almost all the case it's not a problem to detect and manage it, but for some JS URL attacks, my error handling does not perform what I want it to do. Ex (from logs) : http://localhost:1809/Scripts/]||!o.support.htmlSerialize&&[1 When I got such an URL, an exception is raised when accessing the ConnectionStrings section in the web.config, and I can't even redirect to another URL. It leads to a "System.ArgumentException - Illegal Characters in path, etc." The screenshot below shows the problem : http://screencast.com/t/Y2I1YWU4 An obvious solution is to write a HTTP module to filter the urls before they reach my application, but I'd like to avoid it because : I like having the whole security being managed in one place (in the Application_Error() method) In the module I cannot access the whole data I have in the application itself (application specific data I don't want to debate here) Questions : Did you meet this problem ? How did you manage it ? Thanks for you suggestions, Mose

  Read the article

• Generic Singleton Façade design pattern

  - by Paul

  Hi I try write singleton façade pattern with generics. I have one problem, how can I call method from generic variable. Something like this: T1 t1 = new T1(); //call method from t1 t1.Method(); In method SingletonFasadeMethod I have compile error: Error 1 'T1' does not contain a definition for 'Method' and no extension method 'Method' accepting a first argument of type 'T1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Any advace? Thank, I am beginner in C#. All code is here: namespace GenericSingletonFasade { public interface IMyInterface { string Method(); } internal class ClassA : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodA "; } } internal class ClassB : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodB "; } } internal class ClassC : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodC"; } } internal class ClassD : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodD"; } } public class SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> where T1 : class,new() where T2 : class,new() where T3 : class,new() { private static T1 t1; private static T2 t2; private static T3 t3; private SingletonFasade() { t1 = new T1(); t2 = new T2(); t3 = new T3(); } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> uniqueInstace = new SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3>(); } public static SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> UniqueInstace { get { return SingletonCreator.uniqueInstace; } } public string SingletonFasadeMethod() { //Problem is here return t1.Method() + t2.Method() + t3.Method(); } } } I use this for my problem. public class SingletonFasade<T1, T2, T3> where T1 : class, IMyInterface, new() where T2 : class, IMyInterface, new() where T3 : class, IMyInterface, new() {//...} Is any solution without Interfaces ??

  Read the article

• Shortest acyclic path on directed cyclic graph with negative weights/cycles

  - by Janathan

  I have a directed graph which has cycles. All edges are weighted, and the weights can be negative. There can be negative cycles. I want to find a path from s to t, which minimizes the total weight on the path. Sure, it can go to negative infinity when negative cycles exist. But what if I disallow cycles in the path (not in the original graph)? That is, once the path leaves a node, it can not enter the node again. This surely avoids the negative infinity problem, but surprisingly no known algorithm is found by a search on Google. The closest is Floyd–Warshall algorithm, but it does not allow negative cycles. Thanks a lot in advance. Edit: I may have generalized my original problem too much. Indeed, I am given a cyclic directed graph with nonnegative edge weights. But in addition, each node has a positive reward too. I want to find a simple path which minimizes (sum of edge weights on the path) - (sum of node rewards covered by the path). This can be surely converted to the question that I posted, but some structure is lost. And some hint from submodular analysis suggests this motivating problem is not NP-hard. Thanks a lot

  Read the article

• Host Primary Domain from a subfolder

  - by TandemAdam

  I am having a problem making a sub directory act as the public_html for my main domain, and getting a solution that works with that domains sub directories too. My hosting allows me to host multiple sites, which are all working great. I have set up a subfolder under my ~/public_html/ directory called /domains/, where I create a folder for each separate website. e.g. public_html domains websiteone websitetwo websitethree ... This keeps my sites nice and tidy. The only issue was getting my "main domain" to fit into this system. It seems my main domain, is somehow tied to my account (or to Apache, or something), so I can't change the "document root" of this domain. I can define the document roots for any other domains ("Addon Domains") that I add in cPanel no problem. But the main domain is different. I was told to edit the .htaccess file, to redirect the main domain to a subdirectory. This seemed to work great, and my site works fine on it's home/index page. The problem I'm having is that if I try to navigate my browser to say the images folder (just for example) of my main site, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/images/ then it seems to ignore the redirect and shows the entire server directory in the url, like this: www.yourmaindomain.com/domains/yourmaindomain/images/ It still actually shows the correct "Index of /images" page, and show the list of all my images. Here is an example of my .htaccess file that I am using: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domains/yourmaindomain/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /domains/yourmaindomain/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?yourmaindomain.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ domains/yourmaindomain/index.html [L] Does this htaccess file look correct? I just need to make it so my main domain behaves like an addon domain, and it's subdirectories adhere to the redirect rules.

  Read the article

• Best way to store and deliver files on a CMS

  - by Tio

  Hi all.. First of all, this isn't another question about storing images on DB vs file system. I'm already storing the images on the file system. I'm just struggling to find a better way to show them to all my users. I' currently using this system. I generate a random filename using md5(uniqueid()), the problem that I'm facing, is that the image is then presented with a link like this: <img src="/_Media/0027a0af636c57b75472b224d432c09c.jpg" /> As you can see this isn't the prettiest way to show a image ( or a file ), and the name doesn't say anything about the image. I've been working with a CMS system at work, that stores all uploaded files on a single table, to access that image it uses something like this: <img src="../getattachment/94173104-e03c-499b-b41c-b25ae05a8ee1/Menu-1/Escritorios.aspx?width=175&height=175" /> As you can see the path to the image, now has a meaning compared to the other one, the problem is that this put's a big strain in the DB, for example, in the last site I made, I have an area that has around 60 images, to show the 60 images, I would have to do at least 60 individual query's to the database, besides the other query's to retrieve the various content on the page. I think you understand my dilemma, has anyone gone trough this problem, that can give me some pointers on how to solve this? Thanks..

  Read the article

• 3 tier application pattern suggestion

  - by Maxim Gershkovich

  I have attempted to make my first 3 tier application. In the process I have run into one problem I am yet to find an optimal solution for. Basically all my objects use an IFillable interface which forces the implementation of a sub as follows Public Sub Fill(ByVal Datareader As Data.IDataReader) Implements IFillable.Fill This sub then expects the Ids from the datareader will be identical to the properties of the object as such. Me.m_StockID = Datareader.GetGuid(Datareader.GetOrdinal("StockID")) In the end I end up with a datalayer that looks something like this. Public Shared Function GetStockByID(ByVal ConnectionString As String, ByVal StockID As Guid) As Stock Dim res As New Stock Using sqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnectionString) sqlConn.Open() res.Fill(StockDataLayer.GetStockByIDQuery(sqlConn, StockID)) End Using Return res End Function Mostly this pattern seems to make sense. However my problem is, lets say I want to implement a property for Stock called StockBarcodeList. Under the above mentioned pattern any way I implement this property I will need to pass a connectionstring to it which obviously breaks my attempt at layer separation. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might be able to solve this problem or am I going about this the completely wrong way? Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might improve my implementation? Please note however I am deliberately trying to avoid using the dataset in any form.

  Read the article

• Trying to convert existing production database table columns from enum to VARCHAR (Rails)

  - by dchua

  Hi everyone, I have a problem that needs me to convert my existing live production (I've duplicated the schema on my local development box, don't worry :)) table column types from enums to a string. Background: Basically, a previous developer left my codebase in absolute shit, migration versions are extremely out of date, and apparently he never used it after a certain point of time in development and now that I'm tasked with migrating a rails 1.2.6 app to 2.3.5, I can't get the tests to run properly on 2.3.5 because my table columns have ENUM column types and they convert to :string, :limit = 0 on my schema.rb which creates the problem of an invalid default value when doing a rake db:test:prepare, like in the case of: Mysql::Error: Invalid default value for 'own_vehicle': CREATE TABLE `lifestyles` (`id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL auto_increment PRIMARY KEY, `member_id` int(11) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL, `own_vehicle` varchar(0) DEFAULT 'Y' NOT NULL, `hobbies` text, `sports` text, `AStar_activities` text, `how_know_IRC` varchar(100), `IRC_referral` varchar(200), `IRC_others` varchar(100), `IRC_rdrive` varchar(30)) ENGINE=InnoDB I'm thinking of writing a migration task that looks through all the database tables for columns with enum and replace it with VARCHAR and I'm wondering if this is the right way to approach this problem. I'm also not very sure how to write it such that it would loop through my database tables and replace all ENUM colum_types with a VARCHAR. References [1] https://rails.lighthouseapp.com/projects/8994/tickets/997-dbschemadump-saves-enum-columns-as-varchar0-on-mysql [2] http://dev.rubyonrails.org/ticket/2832

  Read the article

• Database schemas WAY out of sync - need to get up to date without losing data

  - by Zind

  The problem: we have one application that has a portion which is used by a very small subset of the total users, and that part of the application is running off of a separate database as well. In a perfect world, the schemas of the two databases would be synced up, but such is not the case. Some migrations have been run on the smaller database, most haven't; and furthermore, there is nothing such as revision number to be able to easily identify which have and which haven't. We would like to solve this quandary for future projects. During a discussion we've come up with the following possible plan of action, and I am wondering if anyone knows of any project which has already solved this problem: What we would like to do is create an empty database from the schema of the large fully-migrated database, and then move all of the data from the smaller non-migrated database into that empty one. If it makes things easier, it can probably be assumed for the sake of this problem specifically that no migrations have ever removed anything, only added. Else, if there are other known solutions, I'd like to hear them as well.

  Read the article

• setting default value of superglobal

  - by Prasoon Saurav

  I have been working on a Timesheet Management website. I have my home page as index.php //index.php <?php session_start(); if($_SESSION['logged']=='set') { $x=$_SESSION['username']; echo '<div align="right">'; echo 'Welcome ' .$x.'<br/>'; echo'<a href="logout.php" class="links">&nbsp;<b><u>Logout</u></b></a>' ; } else if($_SESSION['logged']='unset') { echo'<form id="searchform" method="post" action="processing.php"> <div> <div align="right"> Username&nbsp;<input type="text" name="username" id="s" size="15" value="" /> &nbsp;Password&nbsp;<input type="password" name="pass" id="s" size="15" value="" /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="submit" /> </div> <br /> </div> </form> '; } ?> The problem I am facing is that during the first run of this script I get an error Notice: Undefined index: logged in C:\wamp\www\ps\index.php but after refreshing the page the error vanishes. How can I correct this problem? logged is a variable which helps determine whether the user is logged in or not. When the user is logged in $_SESSION['logged'] is set, otherwise unset. I want the default value of $_SESSION['logged'] to be unset prior to the execution of the script. How can I solve this problem?

  Read the article

• Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

  - by Jaco Pretorius

  For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

  Read the article

• Working with complex objects in Prevayler commands

  - by alexantd

  The demos included in the Prevayler distribution show how to pass in a couple strings (or something simple like that) into a command constructor in order to create or update an object. The problem is that I have an object called MyObject that has a lot of fields. If I had to pass all of them into the CreateMyObject command manually, it would be a pain. So an alternative I thought of is to pass my business object itself into the command, but to hang onto a clone of it (keeping in mind that I can't store the BO directly in the command). Of course after executing this command, I would need to make sure to dispose of the original copy that I passed in. public class CreateMyObject implements TransactionWithQuery { private MyObject object; public CreateMyObject(MyObject business_obj) { this.object = (MyObject) business_obj.clone(); } public Object executeAndQuery(...) throws Exception { ... } } The Prevayler wiki says: Transactions can't carry direct object references (pointers) to business objects. This has become known as the baptism problem because it's a common beginner pitfall. Direct object references don't work because once a transaction has been serialized to the journal and then deserialized for execution its object references no longer refer to the intended objects - - any objects they may have referred to at first will have been copied by the serialization process! Therefore, a transaction must carry some kind of string or numeric identifiers for any objects it wants to refer to, and it must look up the objects when it is executed. I think by cloning the passed-in object I will be getting around the "direct object pointer" problem, but I still don't know whether or not this is a good idea...

  Read the article

• IE7 is clipping my text. How do I adjust its attitude?

  - by Emiel

  Hi All, A few days ago I re-skinned my website, http://emle.nl. Development of this skin was primarily done using safari, and as expected, it all renders fine using firefox and opera. I've had to make a few small tweaks for IE7, but nothing much, except for one problem... The date indicators for a post are cut off in IE. This problem seems to occur only on nested span tags inside a left floating div. I think I need the floating div's in order to layout text on the left and the right side of the screen. Anyhow, I've summarized it into a small test case, located at http://emle.nl/test.html. In the different browsers, it looks like this. Of course safari and firefox get this right: Do any of you know how to stop IE7 from clipping my text? Edit: I have sort of given up on this problem. My scripts now check for IE7 and feed it somewhat simplified HTML that its limited engine can handle. It works in IE8, so, for now, just the special case for IE7 will have to do...

  Read the article

• Unable to create a breakpoint in Eclipse and Tomcat

  - by Traroth

  Since yesterday, I get a strange error message when I start my Tomcat (6.0.35) under Eclipse Juno (build 20120614-1722): Among the things I tried in order to get rid of the error: Check in Preferences - Java - Compiler if all "Classfile Generation" checkboxes where checked. I did that for both general preferences and project preference Uncheck them, build, check them build again (found on another question) Add org.eclipse.jdt.core.compiler.debug.lineNumber=generate to my .settings/org.eclipse.jdt.core.prefs file Use a new CVS checkout (same symptoms) And now, I don't know what to do anymore. The problem is really stopping me from get anything done. I can't work anymore. Crazy is: the problem doesn't happen on every class, only on some of them. Neither does it happen on my other Eclipse projects. And it didn't happen before yesterday, even if I can't remeber having done anything weird. Actually, I have never seen a problem like this in almost 10 years I'm using Eclipse... If you have any idea, I would be really grateful... Edit: I also tried to ignore the message and go on with my tests: If I create another breakpoint upstream from my problematic class, when I enter this problematic class, it tries to open a $Proxy132 class, which means it actually opens an empty page, with a source not found message

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >