Search Results

Search found 68828 results on 2754 pages for 'knapsack problem'.

Page 504/2754 | < Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >

  • Incorrect sizing of a JPanel in a JScrollPane In Java 1.5

    - by Coder
    Hi, I am making an image loading component which consists of a JPanel containing a JScrollPane, which in turn contains another JPanel. What this component does is allows images to be dropped on top of it, after which point the image is loaded and the inner most JPanel is set to the size of the image dropped. This in turn causes the scroll bars to show up and the user can scroll the image. This all works fine. The problem comes in when i try to auto-shrink the image to the maximum visible area in the outer JPanel. In this case i do a uniform scale of the image to be less than or equal to the width and height of the outer JPanel. What happens now is that both the horizontal and vertical scroll bars show up indicating the the inner JPanel is bigger than the visible area (which should not be the case). I verified that the image is scale to the proper dimensions(ie. the maximum width and height is respected). I also verified that if i decrease the maximum height by 3 pixels, then no scroll bars appear. What i believe the problem is, is that panel.getWidth() and panel.getHeight() don't actually return the visible area (maximum area) that sub components can take up. Ie. there is likely some more width and height taken up by the border around the JPanel or something like that. My question is, how do i get around this problem. Functionally all i want is to determine the maximum size a JPanel can be in a JScrollPane, then set the panel to that size and paint an image over top of it and be assured that the scroll bars of the scroll pane will not show up. Right now the scroll bars are set to AS_NEEDED. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Angularjs throws TypeError: Cannot read property 'indexOf' of undefined

    - by Ali
    I'm trying to debug the above code which I feel like this is very useful .< I can't even find what is wrong in my code and don't really know where to start since Angularjs still very new to me. I'm trying to localize Angularjs app. I know this is missing a lot of context in order to get a help, but I'm trying to see what information that I should give that would help on this debugging. I've gone through any indexOf in angularjs file and I can see few things is undefined but don't know if that would be helpful. So I've traced the problem here and this is what I have figured is the problem, but still counldn't figure out why... config(['$routeProvider', '$locationProvider', function ($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/:locale?/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/teaching-resources', { templateUrl: '_partials/teaching-resources.html', controller: 'teachingResources' }) .when('/:username/makes', { templateUrl: '_partials/makes.html', controller: 'makes' }) .when('/:username/likes', { templateUrl: '_partials/likes.html', controller: 'likes' }) .when('/:username/events', { templateUrl: '_partials/events.html', controller: 'events' }) .when('/:username', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/error/404' }); The URL that I'm visiting for default page is: This will fail and throw the error. http://localhost:1969/en-US/user/someUserName This will work fine http://localhost:1969/user/someUserName UPDATE I figured out! This is the problem: $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); But why!?

    Read the article

  • computes the number of possible orderings of n objects under the relations < and =

    - by hilal
    Here is the problem : Give a algorithm that takes a positive integer n as input, and computes the number of possible orderings of n objects under the relations < and =. For example, if n = 3 the 13 possible orderings are as follows: a = b = c, a = b < c, a < b = c, a < b < c, a < c < b, a = c < b, b < a = c, b < a < c, b < c < a, b = c < a, c < a = b, c < a < b, c < b < a. Your algorithm should run in time polynomial in n. I'm null to this problem. Can you find any solution to this dynamic-programming problem?

    Read the article

  • How big can I make an Android application's canvas in terms of pixels?

    - by user279112
    I've determined an estimate of the size of my Android emulator's screen in pixels, although I think its resolution can be changed to other numbers. Quite frankly though that doesn't eliminate the general problem of not knowing how many pixels on each axis I have to work with on my Android applications in general. The main problem I'm trying to solve is this: How do I make sure I don't use a faulty resolution on Android applications if I want to keep things' sizes constant (so that if the application screen shrinks, for instances, objects will still show up just as big - there just won't be as many of them being shown) if I wish to do this with a single universal resolution for each program? Failing that, how do I make sure everything's alright if I try to do everything the same way with maybe a few different pre-set resolutions? Mainly it seems like a relevant question that must be answered before I can come across a complete answer for the general problem is how big can I always make my application in pixels, NOT regarding if and when a user resizes the application's screen to something smaller than the maximum size permitted by the phone and its operating system. I really want to try to keep this simple. If I were doing this for a modern desktop, for instance, I know that if I design the application with a 800x600 canvas, the user can still shrink the application to the point they're not doing themselves any favors, but at least I can basically count on it working right and not being too big for the monitor or something. Is there such a magic resolution for Android, assuming that I'm designing for API levels 3+ (Android 1.5+)? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Rails 3) Delete, Destory, and Routing

    - by Maximus S
    The problem is the code below <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :delete, :class => :destroy %> My Post model has many relations that are dependent on delete. However, the code above will only remove the post, leaving its relations intact. The problem is that methods delete and destroy are different in that method delete doesn't instantiate the object. So I need to use "destroy" instead of "delete" my post. <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :destroy %> gives me routing error. No route matches [POST] "/posts/2" <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, Post.destroy(@post) %> deletes the post without clicking the button. Could anyone help me with this? UPDATE: application.js //= require jquery //= require jquery-ui //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap-modal //= require bootstrap-typeahead //= require_tree . rake routes DELETE (/:locale)/posts/:id(.:format) posts#destroy Post model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :through => :tag_links Tag model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :posts, :through => :tag_links Problem: When I delete a post, all the tag_links are destroyed but tags still exist.

    Read the article

  • Disable ARC with Xcode 5

    - by user2187565
    First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

    Read the article

  • What category of combinatorial problems appear on the logic games section of the LSAT?

    - by Merjit
    There's a category of logic problem on the LSAT that goes like this: Seven consecutive time slots for a broadcast, numbered in chronological order I through 7, will be filled by six song tapes-G, H, L, O, P, S-and exactly one news tape. Each tape is to be assigned to a different time slot, and no tape is longer than any other tape. The broadcast is subject to the following restrictions: L must be played immediately before O. The news tape must be played at some time after L. There must be exactly two time slots between G and P, regardless of whether G comes before P or whether G comes after P. I'm interested in generating a list of permutations that satisfy the conditions as a way of studying for the test and as a programming challenge. However, I'm not sure what class of permutation problem this is. I've generalized the type problem as follows: Given an n-length array A: How many ways can a set of n unique items be arranged within A? Eg. How many ways are there to rearrange ABCDEFG? If the length of the set of unique items is less than the length of A, how many ways can the set be arranged within A if items in the set may occur more than once? Eg. ABCDEF = AABCDEF; ABBCDEF, etc. How many ways can a set of unique items be arranged within A if the items of the set are subject to "blocking conditions"? My thought is to encode the restrictions and then use something like Python's itertools to generate the permutations. Thoughts and suggestions are welcome.

    Read the article

  • Algorithm Question

    - by Ravi
    Hi, I am trying to find a O (n) algorithm for this problem but unable to do so even after spending 3 - 4 hours. The brute force method times out (O (n^2)). I am confused as to how to do it ? Does the solution requires dynamic programming solution ? http://acm.timus.ru/problem.aspx?space=1&num=1794 In short the problem is this: There are some students sitting in circle and each one of them has its own choice as to when he wants to be asked a question from a teacher. The teacher will ask the questions in clockwise order only. For example: 5 3 3 1 5 5 This means that there are 5 students and : 1st student wants to go third 2nd student wants to go third 3rd student wants to go first 4th student wants to go fifth 5th student wants to go fifth. The question is as to where should teacher start asking questions so that maximum number of students will get the turn as they want. For this particular example, the answer is 5 because 3 3 1 5 5 2 3 4 5 1 You can see that by starting at fifth student as 1st, 2 students (3 and 5) are getting the choices as they wanted. For this example the answer is 12th student : 12 5 1 2 3 6 3 8 4 10 3 12 7 because 5 1 2 3 6 3 8 4 10 3 12 7 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 1 four students get their choices fulfilled. Thanks Ravi

    Read the article

  • Rails paginate existing array of ActiveRecord results

    - by SaoiseK
    Hello, I generally use will_paginate for the pagination in my app, but have hit a stumbler on my search feature. I'm using Thinking Sphinx for doing my full-text search, which returns results paginated. The problem I'm having is that after I've received the results from Thinking Sphinx, I need to merge them with some other results and re-order them. Once I've finished processing them I have an Array of results that is very different from the original from TS. As there could be 1000+ results in this Array Pagination is a necessity. The problem is that I can't figure out how to get will_paginate to play with an existing array. I've done some research and it seems the only solutions to this problem are from several years ago and are based around the old built-in Paginator class. The most recent one I could find that makes use of will_paginate was from devchix from mid-2007: http://www.devchix.com/2007/07/23/will_paginate-array/comment-page-1/ - I've given this a go but it doesn't seem to do anything for me. Are there any current methods for applying pagination (preferably via will_paginate) for existing arrays of AR results?

    Read the article

  • ModRewrite weird redirect behavior on removing WWW

    - by vitto
    Hi, I'm trying to use some rule on my project to remove www from the beginning of the URL but I've some problem. my server structure is: domain.com/beta_folder domain.com/beta_folder/page+type domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/edit domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/etc. domain.com/beta_folder/.htaccess //here is where my htaccess is beta_folder is the site folder, and content+name are content vars, created to retrieve pages from the database. the site works perfect with this rules RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My intention was to remove www, so I've added this rule but it isn't effective RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain.com$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My problem starts if I digit www in front of my domain name: this works http://domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name if i write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name the rewrite rule redirect me at http://www.domain.compage+type/content+name if i remove the www rules, the problem still active unfortunately, I can't make a public test for my domain basically, if I write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder the rules sends me to http://domain.com/ where I'm wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

    Read the article

  • How are declared private ivars different from synthesized ivars?

    - by lemnar
    I know that the modern Objective-C runtime can synthesize ivars. I thought that synthesized ivars behaved exactly like declared ivars that are marked @private, but they don't. As a result, come code compiles only under the modern runtime that I expected would work on either. For example, a superclass: @interface A : NSObject { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *d; @end @implementation A @synthesize d=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and a subclass: @interface B : A { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *e; @end @implementation B @synthesize e=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end A subclass can't have a declared ivar with the same name as one of its superclass's declared ivars, even if the superclass's ivar is private. This seems to me like a violation of the meaning of @private, since the subclass is affected by the superclass's choice of something private. What I'm more concerned about, however, is how should I think about synthesized ivars. I thought they acted like declared private ivars, but without the fragile base class problem. Maybe that's right, and I just don't understand the fragile base class problem. Why does the above code compile only in the modern runtime? Does the fragile base class problem exist when all superclass instance variables are private?

    Read the article

  • How to create a generic list in this wierd case in c#

    - by Marc Bettex
    Hello, In my program, I have a class A which is extended by B, C and many more classes. I have a method GetInstance() which returns a instance of B or C (or of one of the other child), but I don't know which one, so the return type of the method is A. In the method CreateGenericList(), I have a variable v of type A, which is in fact either a B, a C or another child type and I want to create a generic list of the proper type, i.e. List<B> if v is a B or List<C> if v is a C, ... Currently I do it by using reflection, which works, but this is extremely slow. I wanted to know if there is another way to to it, which doesn't use reflection. Here is an example of the code of my problem: class A { } class B : A { } class C : A { } // More childs of A. class Program { static A GetInstance() { // returns an instance of B or C } static void CreateGenericList() { A v = Program.GetInstance(); IList genericList = // Here I want an instance of List<B> or List<C> or ... depending of the real type of v, not a List<A>. } } I tried the following hack. I call the following method, hoping the type inferencer will guess the type of model, but it doesn't work and return a List<A>. I believe that because c# is statically typed, T is resolved as A and not as the real type of model at runtime. static List<T> CreateGenericListFromModel<T>(T model) where T : A { return new List<T> (); } Does anybody have a solution to that problem that doesn't use reflection or that it is impossible to solve that problem without reflection? Thank you very much, Marc

    Read the article

  • How to use form_tag to update params

    - by Tryskele
    I have been struggling with a problem in Rails for a couple of days and still could not find the solution. Could you help me with that? Problem: I have a search box that puts a :search_string entry in the params structure. I use a form_tag for that and it works fine. <% form_tag :controller=> 'items', :action => 'find' do %> <%= text_field_tag :search_string, params[:search_string] %> <% end %> The problem is when I want to add and update other params key-value (in another view), for instance :start_date, to filter the search_string result. Here is the code snipped that I use in the view: <% form_tag :controller=> "items", :action => "find", :params => params do %> <%= hidden_field_tag :date_start, '2010-04-01' %> <%= submit_tag 'April' %> <% end %> <% form_tag :controller=> "items", :action => "find", :params => params do %> <%= hidden_field_tag :date_start, '2010-03-01' %> <%= submit_tag 'March' %> <% end %> When I first click on "April" submit button, then the params is correctly passed to the controller (i.e. there is a params[:start_date]='April'). However when I try to click "March" button afterwards, the params[:start_date] is not updated. I definitely think this is a stupid newbie mistake, but I cannot figure out how to properly use the form_tag. Could you tell me if I am doing something work? Otherwise, could you advise me which is the best way to update the params using form_tag's ? Thank you very much in advance. Miquel

    Read the article

  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

    Read the article

  • Word forms with too many ActiveX checkboxes load slowly.

    - by Luke
    Hi there, my company's software product has a feature that allows users to generate forms from Word templates. The program auto fills some fields from the SQL database and the user can fill in other data that they desire. So we have a .dotx template that holds the design of the form, and then the user gets the .docx file to fill out when they call it from our program. The problem we're having is that some of our users have been finding that the forms take an exceptionally long time to open up and then, once open, are so slow to respond (scroll around, etc) that they're unusable. So in my investigations so far, I've found out that the problem systems are one with lower powered CPUs (unfortunately it happens for systems above our system requirements) and the Word forms that cause the problems are ones with large amount of ActiveX style checkboxes on them. I verified that reducing the ActiveX checkboxes fixes the form loading problems. So I have the following questions about solutions (we're using Word 2007): 1) Is there any way to configure Word, or some other settings, so that there won't be such a strain opening a Word form with lots of ActiveX checkboxes? Any way of speeding up Word's opening? 2) Using Legacy style checkboxes instead of the ActiveX ones makes the forms load fine, but it looks like the user has to double-click the checkbox and change Default Value-Checked. Is there a way to configure it so that they can simply click on the checkbox to tick it? "Legacy Forms" checkbox as a name kind of worries me (Legacy…), does that mean a future version of word at some point wouldn't load the checkboxes because they're "legacy"? 3) Yes, it became clear to me after a little bit of research into solutions that Word is not the tool for the job for forms like I'm describing. InfoPath seems to be exactly what we should have been using all along but unfortunately I wasn't involved in the decision making or development of these forms, just tasked with coming up with a solution. I'd appreciate answers to any of these, or if anyone has any other ideas for solutions to this problem. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails user login form in main layout

    - by Jimmy
    Hey guys I have a simple ror application for some demo stuff. I am running into a problem with trying to move my login form from the users controller and just have it displayed in the main navigation so that a user can easily log in from anywhere. The problem is the form doesn't generate the correct action for the html form. Ruby code: <% form_for(url_for(:action => 'login'), :method => 'post') do |f| %> <li><%= f.text_field("username") %></li> <li><%= f.password_field("password") %></li> <li><%= submit_tag("Login")%></li> <% end %> The problem is depending on the controller I am currently in this generates HTML actions like <form action="/home" method="post">...</form> when it should be generating HTML like so <form action="/login" method="post">...</form> I know I could simply do an HTML form here but I want to keep things as easy to maintain as possible. Any help?

    Read the article

  • Why is Grails Searchable Plugin causing errors on Hibernate AutoFlush?

    - by Mark Rogers
    In the Grails 1.2.5 project that I am trying to troubleshoot, we use the Grails Searchable plugin .5.5.1. The problem is that whenever we attempt to index large sets domain classes, Grails keeps throwing: ERROR hibernate.AssertionFailure - an assertion failure occured (this may indicate a bug in Hibernate, but is more likely due to unsafe use of the session) org.hibernate.AssertionFailure: collection [domain-class] was not processed by flush() But the domain classes involved have been mapped and used by hibernate without issues outside of the calls to searchable plugin. The use of the searchable plugin goes as follows: Create a compass session with compass.openSession() Begin compass transaction: compassSession.beginTransaction() Then compassSession.create(result.get(0)) is called on an important unindexed domain class Finally compassTransaction.commit() is called to commit the transaction. Goto 2 and process next domain class Between the 3 and 4th Domain class, an autoflush is triggered that throws the error. Can anyone give me any hints about how to solve this problem? Has anyone encountered this problem before? I know that they had a systemic issue with this back in pre .5 versions of the searchable-plugin. Is it possible those issues weren't totally fixed?

    Read the article

  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

    Read the article

  • odp.net SQL query retrieve set of rows from two input arrays.

    - by Karl Trumstedt
    I have a table with a primary key consisting of two columns. I want to retrieve a set of rows based on two input arrays, each corresponding to one primary key column. select pkt1.id, pkt1.id2, ... from PrimaryKeyTable pkt1, table(:1) t1, table(:2) t2 where pkt1.id = t1.column_value and pkt1.id2 = t2.column_value I then bind the values with two int[] in odp.net. This returns all different combinations of my resulting rows. So if I am expecting 13 rows I receive 169 rows (13*13). The problem is that each value in t1 and t2 should be linked. Value t1[4] should be used with t2[4] and not all the different values in t2. Using distinct solves my problem, but I'm wondering if my approach is wrong. Anyone have any pointers on how to solve this the best way? One way might be to use a for-loop accessing each index in t1 and t2 sequentially, but I wonder what will be more efficient. Edit: actually distinct won't solve my problem, it just did it based on my input-values (all values in t2 = 0)

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • Plist data OK in iPhone simulator but disappears after installation onto device

    - by user183804
    I am testing an application on a first-generation iPod running OS 3.1.3 with a tableview populated from a plist. The application works well on the simulator. Initially after installation onto the iPod for testing, the tableview was blank (scrollable lines present, but empty rows). After searching this site, I found one issue to be a case-sensitive problem in the name of the plist file ("Data.plist in resources; "data.plist" in code). When the problem persisted, I again found on this site the advice to "Clean all Targets" prior to installation. I now have found that after performing a "Clean all Targets" operation twice, quitting XCode in between operations, the problem resolves, and the tableview appears properly populated after installation. I am wondering whether this issue signifies a corrupted plist file, prior to making the application available on the App store. Re-creating the plist file from scratch and then testing it likely would take several hours of work, so I do not want to do so unless absolutely necessary. Thanks in advance for any help.

    Read the article

  • CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

    - by Stephen Kellett
    Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Syntax Error - Trying to detect viewport size and select background image to use w/CSS

    - by CuppyCakes
    Hi all. Please be gentle, I'm still learning. I imagine that the solution to my problem is simple and that perhaps I have just been in front of the computer too long. I am trying to detect the size of the viewport, and then use a different sized image for a background on an element depending on the size of the viewport. Here is what I have so far: $(document).ready(function(){ var pageWidth = $(window).width(); if ( pageWidth <= 1280 ) { $('#contact').css('background-image', 'url(../images/contact_us_low.jpg)'); } elseif ( pageWidth > 1280 ) { $('#contact').css('background-image', 'url(../images/contact_us_high.jpg)'); } }); Error: missing ; before statement [Break on this error] elseif ( pageWidth 1280 ) {\n (Line 7) To me it seems like all of my semi-colons are in the right place. Two questions: Am I going about solving the problem in a sensible way? To me a simple conditional should solve this background problem, as the code is merely selecting between two images based on what size it detects the viewport to be. Can you please help point out my n00b syntax error? Sometimes it really does help to have an extra pair of eyes look at something like this, even if small. Thank you kindly for your advice, I will continue poking and perusing the docs I have available to me.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511  | Next Page >