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• Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

  - by luckyluke

  I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

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• Scrolling screen upward to expose TextView above keyboard

  - by Matt Winters

  I think I'm missing something obvious and would appreciate an answer. I have a view with a 2-section grouped tableView, each section having one row and a textView, the heights of the rows 335 and 140. This allows for a box with nicely rounded corners to type text into when the keyboard appears (140 height section) and when the keyboard is dismissed, a nice box to read more text (notes); most of the time, use is without the keyboard. I also added a toolbar at the bottom of the screen to scroll up above the keyboard. A button on the toolbar dismisses the keyboard. This last part works fine with the keyboard going up and down using a notification and the following code in a keyboardWillShow method: [UIView beginAnimations:@"showKeyboardAnimation" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.50]; self.view.frame = CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y, self.view.frame.size.width, self.view.frame.size.height - 216); [UIView commitAnimations]; But with the above code, the 2 sections of the tableView remain unscrolled, only the toolbar and the keyboard move. With the following code (found both in previous posts), both the toolbar and the tableView sections move. [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.50]; CGRect rect = self.view.frame; rect.origin.y -= 216; self.view.frame = rect; [UIView commitAnimations]; Now I know that I have to tweak the numbers to get the everything as I want it but my first question is what is substantively different between the 2 sets of code that the sections move in the 2nd but not in the 1st? The toolbar also moves with the 2nd code. The second question is, am I going to be able to scroll the smaller height section from off the screen to above the keyboard while at the same time moving the toolbar up just 216? Thanks

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• Slow Databinding setup time in C# .NET 4.0

  - by Svisstack

  Hello, I have got a problem. I have windows forms application with dynamic generated layout, but i have a problem in performance. In this form i use DataBinding from .NET 4.0 and databinding after setup works fine, but he binding setup time for ONE control blocking my application on approx 0.7 second. I have some controls and time of binging setuping is around 2 minutes. I trying all possible solutions, I dont have any ideas without write self binding class. Why is wrong with my code? case "Boolean": { Binding b = new Binding("Checked", __bindingsource, __ep.Name); CheckBox cb = new CheckBox(); /* * HERE is the problem */ cb.DataBindings.Add(b); /* * HERE is the end of problem */ __flp.Controls.Add(cb); __bindingcontrol.AddBinding(b); break; } Without problem code lines all works fast and without binding ;-( but i want binding turn on in normal speed. PS1. I have suspended layout in generation time. PS2. I have same problem with binding TextBox'es, PictureBoxe's, CheckBox is only example. How to do that?

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• UIActivityIndicator on UITableViewCell not displaying while calling a webService

  - by Yoyi Cheika

  Hi coders, I guess my problem is very simple to solve but I haven been able to do so. Here is my problem: I have a custom table view cell that contains a UIActivityIndicator. When a cell is selected I push another view but this second view makes a call to a web service to bring data. Here is my code // Override to support row selection in the table view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. // AnotherViewController *anotherViewController = [[AnotherViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AnotherView" bundle:nil]; // [self.navigationController pushViewController:anotherViewController animated:YES]; // [anotherViewController release]; Models *models = [[Models alloc] initWithNibName:@"Models" bundle:nil]; models.make = ((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).make.text; models.year = (int)[self.yearLabel.text doubleValue]; models.logo = [makeLogosName objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).activityIndicator startAnimating]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:models animated:YES]; [((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).activityIndicator stopAnimating]; [models release]; } Where MakeCell is my custom cell. If I comment this line [((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).activityIndicator stopAnimating]; then the indicator appears as expected when going back to the previous view. I feel like the indicator is not being visually updated until the didSelectRowAtIndexPath returns. Does is works ascyncronically. What can be my problem here. Thank you very much Cheika

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• MySql: Problem when using a temporary table

  - by Alex

  Hi, I'm trying to use a temporary tables to store some values I need for a query. The reason of using a temporary table is that I don't want to store the data permanently so different users can modify it at the same time. That data is just stored for a second, so I think a temporary table is the best approach for this. The thing is that it seems that the way I'm trying to use it is not right (the query works if I use a permanent one). This is an example of query: CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE SearchMatches (PatternID int not null primary key, Matches int not null) INSERT INTO SearchMatches (PatternID, Matches) VALUES ('12605','1'),('12503','1'),('12587','2'),('12456','1'), ('12457','2'),('12486','2'),('12704','1'),(' 12686','1'), ('12531','2'),('12549','1'),('12604','1'),('12504','1'), ('12586','1'),('12548','1'),('12 530','1'),('12687','2'), ('12485','1'),('12705','1') SELECT pat.id, signatures.signature, products.product, versions.version, builds.build, pat.log_file, sig_types.sig_type, pat.notes, pat.kb FROM patterns AS pat INNER JOIN signatures ON pat.signature = signatures.id INNER JOIN products ON pat.product = products.id INNER JOIN versions ON pat.version = versions.id INNER JOIN builds ON pat.build = builds.id INNER JOIN sig_types ON pat.sig_type = sig_types.id, SearchMatches AS sm INNER JOIN patterns ON patterns.id = sm.PatternID WHERE sm.Matches <> 0 ORDER BY sm.Matches DESC, products.product, versions.version, builds.build LIMIT 0 , 50 Any suggestion? Thanks.

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• Attributes of attributevalue element in SAML 2 Attribute Statement

  - by AJ

  I am building a web service that receives a SAML attribute query and responds with an attribute statement. I know I can return one or multiple values of a SAML attribute. I have some values that are dependent on the other attribute values. I need to show that relationship. Let us say, the query is for the Subject Dave and the return values are his company and job title. Dave can work at multiple companies with job title at each company. I have two options of sending this data back: Send this as a complextype by defining an attribute organization and return xml within that attribute. <saml:Attribute name="company"> <saml:AttributeValue> <company name="company1" jobtitle="CIO"/> <company name="company2" jobtitle="VP"/> </saml:AttributeValue> Try to send multiple values of attributes somehow sending a reference in attributevalue element. <saml:Attribute name="company"> <attributeValue>company1</attributeValue> <attributeValue>company2</attributeValue> </saml:Attribute> <saml:Attribute name="jobTitle> <attributeValue company="company1">CIO</attributeValue> <attributeValue company="company2">VP</attributeValue> </saml:Attribute> Which approach will you prefer? Why? I am biased towards second approach as it does not require client to know about any schema. It does require them to know about non-standard attribute company in the attribute value.

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• How can I get a distinct list of elements in a hierarchical query?

  - by RenderIn

  I have a database table, with people identified by a name, a job and a city. I have a second table that contains a hierarchical representation of every job in the company in every city. Suppose I have 3 people in the people table: [name(PK),title,city] Jim, Salesman, Houston Jane, Associate Marketer, Chicago Bill, Cashier, New York And I have thousands of job type/location combinations in the job table, a sample of which follow. You can see the hierarchical relationship since parent_title is a foreign key to title: [title,city,pay,parent_title] Salesman, Houston, $50000, CEO Cashier, Houston, $25000 CEO, USA, $1000000 Associate Marketer, Chicago, $75000 Senior Marketer, Chicago, $125000 ..... The problem I'm having is that my Person table is a composite key, so I don't know how to structure the start with part of my query so that it starts with each of the three jobs in the cities I specified. I can execute three separate queries to get what I want, but this doesn't scale well. e.g.: select * from jobs start with city = (select city from people where name = 'Bill') and title = (select title from people where name = 'Bill') connect by prior parent_title = title UNION select * from jobs start with city = (select city from people where name = 'Jim') and title = (select title from people where name = 'Jim') connect by prior parent_title = title UNION select * from jobs start with city = (select city from people where name = 'Jane') and title = (select title from people where name = 'Jane') connect by prior parent_title = title How else can I get a distinct list (or I could wrap it with a distinct if not possible) of all the jobs which are above the three people I specified?

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• How do I fetch a set of rows from data table

  - by cmrhema

  Hi, I have a dataset that has two datatables. In the first datatable I have EmpNo,EmpName and EmpAddress In the second datatable I have Empno,EmpJoindate, EmpSalary. I want a result where I should show EmpName as the label and his/her details in the gridview I populate a datalist with the first table, and have EmpNo as the datakeys. Then I populate the gridview inside the datatable which has EmpNo,EmpJoinDate and EmpAddress. My code is some what as below Datalist1.DataSource = dt; Datalist1.DataBind(); for (int i = 0; i < Datalist1.Items.Count; i++) { int EmpNo = Convert.ToInt32(Datalist1.DataKeys[i]); GridView gv = (GridView)Datalist1.FindControl("gv"); gv.DataSource = dt2; gv.DataBind(); } Now I have a problem, I have to bind the Details of the corresponding Employee to the gridview. Whereas the above code will display all the details of all employees in the gridview. If we use IEnumerable we give a condition where(a=a.eno=EmpNo), and bind that list to the gridview. How do I do this in datatable. kindly do not give me suggestions of altering the stored procedure which results the values in two tables, because that cannot be altered. I have to find a solution within the existing objects I have. Regards Hema

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• Calling end invoke on an asynchronous call when an exception has fired in WCF.

  - by james.ingham

  Hey, I currently have an asynchronous call with a callback, which fires this method on completion: private void TestConnectionToServerCallback(IAsyncResult iar) { bool result; try { result = testConnectionDelegate.EndInvoke(iar); Console.WriteLine("Connection made!"); } catch (EndpointNotFoundException e) { Console.WriteLine("Server Timeout. Are you connected?"); result = false; } ... } With the EndpointNotFoundException firing when the server is down or no connection can be made. My question is this, if I want to recall the testConnectionDelegate with some kind of re-try button, must I first call testConnectionDelegate.EndInvoke where the exception is caught? When I do call end invoke in the catch, I get another exception on result = testConnectionDelegate.EndInvoke(iar); whenever I call this method for the second time. This is "CommunicationObjectFaultedException". I'm assuming this is because I didn't end it properly, which is what I think I have to do. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks - James

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• jquery disable/remove option on select?

  - by SoulieBaby

  Hi all, I have two select lists, I would like jquery to either remove or disable a select option, depending on what is selected from the first select list: <select name="booking" id="booking"> <option value="3">Group Bookings</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">Port Phillip Bay Snapper Charters</option> <option value="6">Portland Tuna Fishing</option> <option value="1">Sport Fishing</option> </select> Here's the second list (which will only ever have two values): <select name="charterType" id="charterType"> <option value="1">Individual Booking</option> <option value="2">Group Booking</option> </select> If Group Bookings or Port Phillip Bay Snapper Charters are selected, I need only "Group Booking" to be displayed. (To basically hide "Individual Booking") but I can't seem to get it to work.. If someone could help me that'd be great!! :) I've also tried using a switch, but that doesnt work either.. /* select list */ switch (jQuery('#booking :selected').text()) { case 'Sport Fishing': alert('AA'); break; case 'Port Phillip Bay Snapper Charters': jQuery("#charterType option[value=1]").remove(); alert('BB'); break; case 'Portland Tuna Fishing': alert('CC'); break; case 'Group Bookings': alert('DD'); break; }; It alerts, but doesn't do anything else..

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• How to use bll, dal and model?

  - by bruno

  Dear all, In my company I must use a Bll, Dal and model layer for creating applications with a database. I've learned at school that every databasetable should be an object in my model. so I create the whole model of my database. Also I've learned that for every table (or model object) there should be a DAO created into the DAL. So I do this to. Now i'm stuck with the BLL classes. I can write a BLLclass for each DAO/ModelObject or I can write a BLLclass that combine some (logic) DAO's... Or i can write just one Bllclass that will manage everything. (this last one I'm sure it aint the best way..) What is the best practice to handle this Bll 'problem'? And a second question. If a bll is in need of tablecontent from an other table where it aint responsible for, whats the best way to get the content? Go ask on the responsible BLL or go directly to the DAO? I'm struggling with these questions the last 2 months, and i don't know what is the best way to handle it.

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• Embedding two slideshows

  - by Jennifer Heidelberg

  Hello, I am trying to embedd two slideshows into my flash file. I already managed to integrate one, but I can't integrate another since my knowledge of actionscript is very limited. For people that know Flash well it is a really easy question. What do I have to rename in this script so that I can create a second slideshow, without always calling on the first one. Here is the script for the first slideshow: (I got it from the website where I bought the template for the slideshow from) var loader:Loader = new Loader(); var monoslideshow:Object; loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.CO MPLETE, onLoadComplete); addChild(loader); loader.load(new URLRequest("monoslideshow.swf")); function onLoadComplete(event:Event):void { monoslideshow = event.target.content; monoslideshow.showLogo = false; monoslideshow.setViewport(new Rectangle(730, 20, 700, 660)); var xml:XML = monoslideshow.loadXML(xml); } Thank you very much in advance!! Aylin

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• iPhone and Core Data: how to retain user-entered data between updates?

  - by Shaggy Frog

  Consider an iPhone application that is a catalogue of animals. The application should allow the user to add custom information for each animal -- let's say a rating (on a scale of 1 to 5), as well as some notes they can enter in about the animal. However, the user won't be able to modify the animal data itself. Assume that when the application gets updated, it should be easy for the (static) catalogue part to change, but we'd like the (dynamic) custom user information part to be retained between updates, so the user doesn't lose any of their custom information. We'd probably want to use Core Data to build this app. Let's also say that we have a previous process already in place to read in animal data to pre-populate the backing (SQLite) store that Core Data uses. We can embed this database file into the application bundle itself, since it doesn't get modified. When a user downloads an update to the application, the new version will include the latest (static) animal catalogue database, so we don't ever have to worry about it being out of date. But, now the tricky part: how do we store the (dynamic) user custom data in a sound manner? My first thought is that the (dynamic) database should be stored in the Documents directory for the app, so application updates don't clobber the existing data. Am I correct? My second thought is that since the (dynamic) user custom data database is not in the same store as the (static) animal catalogue, we can't naively make a relationship between the Rating and the Notes entities (in one database) and the Animal entity (in the other database). In this case, I would imagine one solution would be to have an "animalName" string property in the Rating/Notes entity, and match it up at runtime. Is this the best way to do it, or is there a way to "sync" two different databases in Core Data?

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• Maintain one to one mapping between objects

  - by Rohan West

  Hi there, i have the following two classes that provide a one to one mapping between each other. How do i handle null values, when i run the second test i get a stackoverflow exception. How can i stop this recursive cycle? Thanks [TestMethod] public void SetY() { var x = new X(); var y = new Y(); x.Y = y; Assert.AreSame(x.Y, y); Assert.AreSame(y.X, x); } [TestMethod] public void SetYToNull() { var x = new X(); var y = new Y(); x.Y = y; y.X = null; Assert.IsNull(x.Y); Assert.IsNull(y.X); } public class X { private Y _y; public Y Y { get { return _y; } set { if(_y != value) { if(_y != null) { _y.X = null; } _y = value; if(_y != null) { _y.X = this; } } } } } public class Y { private X _x; public X X { get { return _x; } set { if (_x != value) { if (_x != null) { _x.Y = null; } _x = value; if (_x != null) { _x.Y = this; } } } } }

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• Generate exe in .Net

  - by rwallace

  In .Net, you can generate byte code in memory, and presumably save the resulting program to a .exe file. To do the first step, I have the following test code adapted from http://www.code-magazine.com/Article.aspx?quickid=0301051 var name = new AssemblyName(); name.Name = "MyAssembly"; var ad = Thread.GetDomain(); var ab = ad.DefineDynamicAssembly(name, AssemblyBuilderAccess.Run); var mb = ab.DefineDynamicModule("MyModule"); var theClass = mb.DefineType("MathOps", TypeAttributes.Public); var retType = typeof(System.Int32); var parms = new Type[2]; parms[0] = typeof(System.Int32); parms[1] = typeof(System.Int32); var meb = theClass.DefineMethod("ReturnSum", MethodAttributes.Public, retType, parms); var gen = meb.GetILGenerator(); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_1); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_2); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Add_Ovf); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Stloc_0); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Br_S); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ldloc_0); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); theClass.CreateType(); How do you do the second step, and save the result to a .exe?

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• imagegrabwindow + https = black screen

  - by earls

  I'm doing something stupid and trying to capture thumbnails, snapshots, images of a html webpages. I'm doing something along the lines of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/443837/how-might-i-obtain-a-snapshot-or-thumbnail-of-a-web-page-using-php DCOM + IE + PHP (imagegrabwindow; example from manual) Everything works PERFECT until I try to capture a HTTPS website... https://mail.google.com for example. imagegrabwindow produces a png, but it only shows the browser. the contents of the browser are black. If I log out of Google, I can capture the browser window and the contents thereof - the second I log in, the contents (not the browser frame) are black screen. Yes, I've increased the timeout (before closing the browser window). IE has clearly loaded the page, it just refuses to render for imagegrabwindow. I've been fighting this long enough I know it's either a permissions problem or a service needs to interact with the desktop. Does anyone have any clue what permissions need to be set or which service needs access? I assumed cryptographic services, but that's run as a network service and trying to change it to interact makes it shout and carry on. This is the last piece of the puzzle, I'd really like to get it working. Thank you!

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• Why does my Workflow Service (4.0) variable go null in a DoWhile Activity?

  - by jlafay

  I have a WF service that I'm trying to setup receive activities to "Subscribe" and "Unsubscribe". I'm using This WF Durable Duplex Tutorial as a basis because my service performs callbacks to clients. Basically, think of it as a chat service. I can make client calls to the two receive activities just fine. What happens is the callback address of the client is passed in to Subscribe() on the service. The address is stored as a variable in the WF service and everything looks like it would work as to be expected. When a client calls Unsubscribe(), my watch I have set on the address var during debugging shows it as null. So what gives? Here's the basic setup of my WF service layout... Everything is enveloped in a DoWhile activity. Inside of that is a Pick activity and two Pick branches. The first branch is for subscribing activities. It has a receive-sendreply activity that assigns the string passed by the client to the WF address var. The second branch handles unsubscribing. The trigger is the Request activity and the client address is again passed in. From there it goes into a sequence, starting with an If. It checks to see if the unsubscribeAddress equals the address already subscribed. If it does, then it sets the address to String.Empty and sends a success message back to the client. Why would a variable that's scoped to the enveloping DoWhile activity be implicitly assigned to null? I'm trying to get this to work so I can implement multiple client subscribers from there and work on triggers that invoke callbacks to multiple clients. CONCAT EDIT: I set a breakpoint at the DoWhile level and my var is null once Unsubscribe() is called. When Subscribe() is invoked, the watch shows a value in the var all the way through. Until I Unsubscribe() with a client. Should I be using a While Activity instead?

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• HOWTO - Compare a date string to datetime in SQL Server?

  - by Guy

  In SQL Server I have a DATETIME column which includes a time element. Example: '14 AUG 2008 14:23:019' What is the best method to only select the records for a particular day, ignoring the time part? Example: (Not safe, as it does not match the time part and returns no rows) DECLARE @p_date DATETIME SET @p_date = CONVERT( DATETIME, '14 AUG 2008', 106 ) SELECT * FROM table1 WHERE column_datetime = @p_date Note: Given this site is also about jotting down notes and techniques you pick up and then forget, I'm going to post my own answer to this question as DATETIME stuff in MSSQL is probably the topic I lookup most in SQLBOL. Update Clarified example to be more specific. Edit Sorry, But I've had to down-mod WRONG answers (answers that return wrong results). @Jorrit: WHERE (date>'20080813' AND date<'20080815') will return the 13th and the 14th. @wearejimbo: Close, but no cigar! badge awarded to you. You missed out records written at 14/08/2008 23:59:001 to 23:59:999 (i.e. Less than 1 second before midnight.)

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• Is Structuremap singleton thread safe?

  - by Ben

  Hi, Currently I have the following class: public class PluginManager { private static bool s_initialized; private static object s_lock = new object(); public static void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { lock (s_lock) { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } } } The important thing here is that Initialize() should only be executed once whilst the application is running. I thought that I would refactor this into a singleton class since this would be more thread safe?: public sealed class PluginService { static PluginService() { } private static PluginService _instance = new PluginService(); public static PluginService Instance { get { return _instance; } } private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } Question one, is it still necessary to have the lock here (I have removed it) since we will only ever be working on the same instance? Finally, I want to use DI and structure map to initialize my servcices so I have refactored as below: public interface IPluginService { void Initialize(); } public class NewPluginService : IPluginService { private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } And in my registry: ForRequestedType<IPluginService>() .TheDefaultIsConcreteType<NewPluginService>().AsSingletons(); This works as expected (singleton returning true in the following code): var instance1 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); var instance2 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); bool singleton = (instance1 == instance2); So my next question, is the structure map solution as thread safe as the singleton class (second example). The only downside is that this would still allow NewPluginService to be instantiated directly (if not using structure map). Many thanks, Ben

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• Firefox drags div like it was an image, javascript event handlers possibly to blame

  - by user281434

  Hi, I'm using this HTML,CSS and Javascript code (in one document together if you want to test it out): <style type="text/css"> #slider_container { width: 200px; height: 30px; background-color: red; display:block; } #slider { width: 20px; height: 30px; background-color: blue; display:block; position:absolute; left:0; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../js/libs/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#slider").mousedown(function() { $(document).mousemove(function(evnt) { $("#test").html("sliding"); }).mouseup(function() { $("#test").html("not sliding"); $(document).unbind("mousemove mouseup"); });}); }); </script> <div id="test">a</div> <div id="slider_container"> <div id="slider"></div> </div> Everything (surprisingly) works fine in IE, but firefox seems to totally clusterf*ck when this javascript is used. The first "slide" is okay, you drag, it says "sliding", you drop, it says "not sliding". On the second "slide" (or mousedown if you will), firefox suddenly thinks the div is an image or link and wants to drag it around. Screenshot of the dragging: http://i.imgur.com/nPJxZ.jpg Obviously the blue div half-positioned in the red div is the one being dragged. Windows does not capture the cursor when you take a screenshot, but it's a stop sign. Is there someway to prevent this default behaviour?

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• What is the behavior of a WPF 4 ControlStoryboardAction trigger?

  - by jonathan_ou

  Hi all! I have a question that's been bugging me for a while: I have a lengthy IO operation which I invoke asynchronously, and I want my UI to show a blinking text to tell the users that the data is loading. I have an IsLoading boolean property in my ViewModel, and I used a ControlStoryboardAction to kickoff the blinking animation, which is set to repeat forever. For my ControlStoryboardAction trigger, I configured a data trigger to see if IsLoading is true, and start my storyboard if true. My problem is, when my IO operation returns, and I set IsLoading back to false, the animation continues to play. I thought once the trigger condition evaluated to false, it would stop the animation? I then added a second ControlStoryboardAction to stop the animation if IsLoading evaluted to false, but this didn't have any effect. The animation continued to play after IsLoading was false. Can anyone explain to me how trigger works in ControlStoryboardAction? In normal data triggers in WPF, once the condition evaluated to false, the property would be set back to its original state. It seems triggers in WPF actions don't work the same way? Thanks in advance for your help!

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• How to know if a graphics card provides hardware rendering for wpf

  - by happyclicker

  I have to run a wpf-app in an environment that has all the same dell-pc's with an intel gma 3000 graphics chip (onbard, Q963/Q965). The app renders only with software rendering (Stated so by the RenderCapability.Tier-property (it says the rendering tier is 0!) and I also see this with Perforator). On all of this machines, DirectX 9c is installed and DXDiag states on many but not on all of this machines, that Direct-3d and Direct-Draw-acceleration is activated. I checked also the registry if the setup of these machines disabled wpf-hw rendering but that's also not the case. On one machine I also updated the video-driver and dx with no success. I found a lot of ressources that say, that directX must be installed and active, so that wpf does not use its own software renderer but uses the DirectX HW-Rendering. But on the above machines, DX9c is installed but there is no hw rendering. May it be that wpf uses dx-graphicscards but does the communication with the graphics card direct and not over dx? How can I find out if a specific graphics-chip has to support hardware rendering for wpf or not. The statement that the graphics card must support dx 9c seems not to be the only condition. The second question is, if wpf renders through dx, is this done through direct-3d or is direct-draw used. Is there any good documentation on this topic?

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• Draw an Inset NSShadow and Inset Stroke

  - by Alexsander Akers

  I have an NSBezierPath and I want to draw in inset shadow (similar to Photoshop) inside the path. Is there anyway to do this? Also, I know you can -stroke paths, but can you stroke inside a path (similar to Stroke Inside in Photoshop)? Update This is the code I'm using. The first part makes a white shadow downwards. The second part draws the gray gradient. The third part draws the black inset shadow. Assume path is an NSBezierPath instance and that clr(...) returns an NSColor from a hex string. NSShadow * shadow = [NSShadow new]; [shadow setShadowColor: [NSColor colorWithDeviceWhite: 1.0f alpha: 0.5f]]; [shadow setShadowBlurRadius: 0.0f]; [shadow setShadowOffset: NSMakeSize(0, 1)]; [shadow set]; [shadow release]; NSGradient * gradient = [[NSGradient alloc] initWithColorsAndLocations: clr(@"#262729"), 0.0f, clr(@"#37383a"), 0.43f, clr(@"#37383a"), 1.0f, nil]; [gradient drawInBezierPath: path angle: 90.0f]; [gradient release]; [NSGraphicsContext saveGraphicsState]; [path setClip]; shadow = [NSShadow new]; [shadow setShadowColor: [NSColor redColor]]; [shadow setShadowBlurRadius: 0.0f]; [shadow setShadowOffset: NSMakeSize(0, -1)]; [shadow set]; [shadow release]; [path stroke]; [NSGraphicsContext restoreGraphicsState]; Here you can see a gradient fill, a white drop shadow downwards, and a black inner shadow downwards.

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• Navigation view system with webview problem with touches!

  - by Gonçalo Falcão

  Hello i have search everything and i didn't figure this out! I have a tab bar controller with 5 navigation controlls, in one of the navigation control, i have a view, with a table view inside, and when i click that item i push a new view, that view have view -webview -view i create that second view(is transperant) because i need to handle a single tap to hide my toolbar and navigation bar, and the webview was eating all the touches! I put that view and implement on the view controller -(void) touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 2){ [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 1){ [self performSelector:@selector(hideBars) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.3]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } wv is my UIWebView IBOutlet now i can get the the touches in my controller and send them to my webview. So i thought everything was working, i'm able to scroll, but now when i have links i'm not able to click them. And the webview is detecting the links i have made that test. So any other way to implements this to get the touches in the links, or i should change this workaround to hide the toolbars so i can have the full functionability of the webview? Thks for the help in advance.

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• Unicode strings in my C# App are shown with question marks

  - by mrbamboo

  Hi, I have a header file in C++/CLR project, which contains some strings in different languages. arabic, english, german, chinese, french, japanese etc... I have a second project written in C#. Here I access the strings stored in the header file of the C++/CLR project. The encoding of the header file is Unicode - Codepage 1200 or UTF-8. the visual studio editor is able to display the strings correctly. At runtime I access these strings and assign them into a local String variable. Here I recognized that many strings are not shown correctly. Doesn't matter if I assign them or not. Accessing the original place (while debugging) shows me all the foreign strings with question marks. Especially chinese, just question marks. Example : "So?e St?ange ?ext in Ch?n?se" (This is not the best example, I know) What is the problem? I read that C# is by default UTF-16, My header file containing the strings is UTF-16 or UTF-8. I must be able to handle strings in different languages. What am I doing wrong?

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