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  • How to remove invalid UTF-8 characters from a JavaScript string?

    - by msielski
    I'd like to remove all invalid UTF-8 characters from a string in JavaScript. I've tried using the approach described here (link removed) and came up with the JavaScript: strTest = strTest.replace(/([\x00-\x7F]|[\xC0-\xDF][\x80-\xBF]|[\xE0-\xEF][\x80-\xBF]{2}|[\xF0-\xF7][\x80-\xBF]{3})|./, "$1"); It seems that the UTF-8 validation regex described here (link removed) is more complete and I adapted it in the same way like: strTest = strTest.replace(/([\x09\x0A\x0D\x20-\x7E]|[\xC2-\xDF][\x80-\xBF]|\xE0[\xA0-\xBF][\x80-\xBF]|[\xE1-\xEC\xEE\xEF][\x80-\xBF]{2}|\xED[\x80-\x9F][\x80-\xBF]|\xF0[\x90-\xBF][\x80-\xBF]{2}|[\xF1-\xF3][\x80-\xBF]{3}|\xF4[\x80-\x8F][\x80-\xBF]{2})|./, "$1"); Both of these pieces of code seem to be allowing valid UTF-8 through, but aren't filtering out hardly any of the bad UTF-8 characters from my test data: UTF-8 decoder capability and stress test. Either the bad characters come through unchanged or seem to have some of their bytes removed creating a new, invalid character. I'm not very familiar with the UTF-8 standard or with multibyte in JavaScript so I'm not sure if I'm failing to represent proper UTF-8 in the regex or if I'm applying that regex improperly in JavaScript. Any help appreciated. Thanks!

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  • With lots of help, I have gotten this android class activity down to only one error. Eclipse aks for me to add ")" ,"}", and ";" why though?

    - by AndroidNewb
    package com.android.drinksonme; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.TextView; public class Screen2 extends Activity { // Declare our Views, so we can access them later private EditText etUsername; private EditText etPassword; private Button btnLogin; private Button btnSignUp; private TextView lblResult; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // Get the EditText and Button References etUsername = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.username); etPassword = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.password); btnLogin = (Button)findViewById(R.id.login_button); btnSignUp = (Button)findViewById(R.id.signup_button); lblResult = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.result); btnLogin.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener () { String username = etUsername.getText().toString(); String password = etPassword.getText().toString(); public void onClick(View v){ if(username.equals("test") && password.equals("test")){ Intent i = new Intent(Screen2.this, DrinksTwitter.class); startActivity(i);} else lblResult.setText("Invalid username or password."); } /* final Intent k = new Intent(Screen2.this, SignUp.class); btnSignUp.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { startActivity(k); }*/ } ); } }

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  • C++ universal data type

    - by Gokul
    I have a universal data type, which is passed by value, but does not maintain the type information. We store only pointers and basic data types(like int, float etc) inside this. Now for the first time, we need to store std::string inside this. So we decided to convert it into std::string* and store it. Then comes the problem of destruction. We don't like to copy the std::string every time. So i am thinking of an approach like this. Say the data type looks like this class Atom { public : enum flags { IS_STRING, IS_EMPTY, HAS_GOT_COPIED, MARKER }; private: void* m_value; std::bitset<MARKER> m_flags; public: ..... Atom( Atom& atm ) { atm.m_flags.set( HAS_GOT_COPIED ); ..... } ..... ~Atom() { if( m_flags.test(IS_STRING) && !m_flags.test(HAS_GOT_COPIED) ) { std::string* val = static_cast<std::string*>(m_value); delete val; } } }; Is this a good approach to find out whether there is no more reference to std::string*? Any comments.. Thanks, Gokul.

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  • Passing values for method

    - by Kasun
    I beginner for programming. So can you please show me how to pass values for your compile() method. class CL { private const string clexe = @"cl.exe"; private const string exe = "Test.exe", file = "test.cpp"; private string args; public CL(String[] args) { this.args = String.Join(" ", args); this.args += (args.Length > 0 ? " " : "") + "/Fe" + exe + " " + file; } public Boolean Compile(String content, ref string errors) { //remove any old copies if (File.Exists(exe)) File.Delete(exe); if (File.Exists(file)) File.Delete(file); File.WriteAllText(file, content); Process proc = new Process(); proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; proc.StartInfo.FileName = clexe; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = this.args; proc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; proc.Start(); //errors += proc.StandardError.ReadToEnd(); errors += proc.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd(); proc.WaitForExit(); bool success = File.Exists(exe); return success; } }

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  • do functions in sql server have different permissions rules?

    - by jcollum
    Here's the situation. I'm writing an automated test that walks the list of dependencies for a proc and determines if an acct has rights for all of the dependent objects. My code looks like this: exec sp_depends 'the_proc_name' -- run this query on the results of sp_depends: select case when exists ( select * from sys.database_permissions dp where grantee_principal_id=USER_ID('TheAccount') and major_id=object_id('dbo.theDependentObject') and minor_id=0 and state_desc = 'GRANT') then 'true' else 'false' end; It all seems to be working fine, but there's a hiccup when it encounters a function. I have one case where TheAccount doesn't have rights to a function (the query above returns false). However the proc that calls the function in question runs fine when running under TheAccount. So there's either something wrong with my test code or functions have special permission behavior in SQL-Server that I'm not aware of. Should I change the code to only search for 'DENY' instead of 'GRANT'? Do functions that are called in procs inherit the permissions of the calling proc except when the execute rights are explicitly denied? Does my code suck?

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  • How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

    - by AngeloS
    Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

    - by HDave
    I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

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  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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  • Get parameter values from method at run time

    - by Landin Martens
    I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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  • Kernel compiling with -j2+ parameter ends prematurely with no error message or output bzImage

    - by Minix
    I've noticed quite a while ago that compiling a kernel with the parameter -j set to 1 or more doesn't produce a bzImage. Instead, it ends prematurely without any advice. I have reproduced the same behavior in both my netbook and home server. As far as I'm aware, the point where the compilation stops is random - Compiling twice with the same parameters will probably stop at different files. However, when I run make with no -j* parameter the compilation ends just fine and outputs a working bzImage. Both machines run Intel Atom (N270 on the netbook and 330 on the server) and I've compiled for these processors. If I recall correctly, I've tried compiling both with Atom and with generic x86_64 options. The kernel version I'm building is 2.6.34.1 I've always compiled normally with those options in my Core2Duo and Pentium Dual Core machines. Has anyone experienced this issue? Any ideas why does this happens? Is there a fix or workaround?

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  • Pushing or serving real-time data to an excel spreadsheet

    - by evan_irl
    I am running some test automation on a networked computer resource (remote). The remote computer running the test automation generates some output, which I can customize however I wish - probably a text or excel file. I would like to create an excel spreadsheet which, from my local machine, monitors this output and provides real-time analytics. Later I would make the networked computer visible to more people, and they can use the same spreadsheet to monitor this output. My problem is that this networked computer is located on the other side of the earth, and so using any kind of polling in excel VBA to PULL the data from the networked computer results in a very long wait with the pinwheel spinning, making the sheet clumsy and less useful. The same thing happens when I use excel's built in function for linking to "external resources" Is there any way to PUSH data to the excel spreadsheet from the networked computer? Something that is easy to set up would be ideal, the latency does not have to be low, so long as there is no awkward "busy wait" while the sheet updates. If that is not possible, is there any way of using PULL from the excel sheet that avoids the same busy wait?

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  • Why does my program not react to any arguments?

    - by Electric Coffee
    I have a simple test program in C++ that prints out attributes of a circle #include <iostream> #include <stdlib.h> #include "hidden_functions.h" // contains the Circle class using namespace std; void print_circle_attributes(float r) { Circle* c = new Circle(r); cout << "radius: " << c->get_radius() << endl; cout << "diameter: " << c->get_diameter() << endl; cout << "area: " << c->get_area() << endl; cout << "circumference: " << c->get_circumference() << endl; cout << endl; delete c; } int main(int argc, const char* argv[]) { float input = atof(argv[0]); print_circle_attributes(input); return 0; } when I run my program with the parameter 2.4 it outputs: radius: 0.0 diameter: 0.0 area: 0.0 circumference: 0.0 I've previously tested the program without the parameter, but simply using static values, and it ran just fine; so I know there's nothing wrong with the class I made... So what did I do wrong here? Note: the header is called hidden_functions.h because it served to test out how it would work if I had functions not declared in the header

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  • Iterative Reduction to Null Matrix

    - by user1459032
    Here's the problem: I'm given a matrix like Input: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 At each step, I need to find a "second" matrix of 1's and 0's with no two 1's on the same row or column. Then, I'll subtract the second matrix from the original matrix. I will repeat the process until I get a matrix with all 0's. Furthermore, I need to take the least possible number of steps. I need to print all the "second" matrices in O(n) time. In the above example I can get to the null matrix in 3 steps by subtracting these three matrices in order: Expected output: 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 I have coded an attempt, in which I am finding the first maximum value and creating the second matrices based on the index of that value. But for the above input I am getting 4 output matrices, which is wrong: My output: 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 My solution works for most of the test cases but fails for the one given above. Can someone give me some pointers on how to proceed, or find an algorithm that guarantees optimality? Test case that works: Input: 0 2 1 0 0 0 3 0 0 Output 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0

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  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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  • How to disable password change for openldap user?

    - by Keve
    Considering possible solutions for some improvements I run into this theoretical question and I couldn't find a satisfying answer. Some of you may have first-hand experience with this in practice, so here the question goes: How can I disable password changing for an OpenLDAP user? The account must stay enabled, allowed to log on to workstations and work as usual, but should not be able to change its own password. Can this be done? If so, how difficult is it to implement it? All suggestions are appreciated! For reference: Servers and workstations are to run a mixture of FreeBSD and OpenBSD. Accounts to get password disabled are student or generic workstation accounts. Environment is a school.

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  • Third monitor randomly defaults to 640 x 480 on startup

    - by ajbdev
    I purchased a PowerColor HD 5770 video card so I could get a third monitor working. I have two widescreen monitors, one attached via HDMI and the other attached via DVI. My third monitor is attached from DisplayPort to VGA (using a passive connector like this one) The third monitor is a 19" Hyundai L90D. I was unable to find any Windows 7 (or Vista for that matter) drivers for the monitor, so it's stuck with "Generic Non-PNP Monitor". It's native resolution is 1280 x 1024. Randomly Windows will boot up in the correct native res, but sometimes it boots up in 640 x 480 res. When it does boot up into 640 x 480 res, the screen resolution slider is stuck and I cannot slide it back to 1280 x 1024. I cannot find a pattern for when or why it will do this, I've tried rebooting five or six times in a row at times to get it to boot into native res, but this doesn't always work.

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  • Application got shut down in WinXP if I close the 2nd window of that application.

    - by kinopyo
    I'm using WinXP and here is my question: I run an application, such as Chrome, there would be one app in the task bar, and it's fine. Suppose a new window of Chrome opened(so there would be 2 window and 2 in the task bar), and when I close that,the 2nd one, the whole application just shutdown. And so does chrome, firefox, evernote, Becky!(the email client), even TortoiseSVN. So I think there should be a generic problem cause these applications shutdown, such as the platform - WinXP. Please give me some advice or hint, anything comes to your mind would be helpful!

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  • Getting the keyboard working on a MacBook under Windows XP x64

    - by Theran
    Despite Windows XP Professional x64's unsupported status on MacBooks (model A1181), I've managed to get most of the hardware working by manually installing either the drivers on the OS X Snow Leopard CD, or finding the appropriate drivers online. However, even after installing the Apple keyboard driver from the CD, I can't get Windows to actually use the special driver. Instead, the keyboard just shows up as a generic USB keyboard, with non-functioning Fn and other special keys. Being unable to generate a right-click or Ctrl-Alt-Del makes Windows a bit of a challenge to use. I've tried: uninstalling and reinstalling the keyboard driver removing the keyboard under device manager and letting Windows re-detect it using device manager to manually update the driver How do I get the special functions of the MacBook keyboard working under XP x64?

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  • NullPointerException on Activity Testint Tutorial

    - by Bendik
    Hello, I am currently trying the activity testing tutorial (Found here), and have a problem. It seems that whenever I try to call something inside the UIThread, I get a java.lang.NullPointerException. public void testSpinnerUI() { mActivity.runOnUiThread( new Runnable() { public void run() { mSpinner.requestFocus(); } }); } This gives me: Incomplete: java.lang.NullPointerException and nothing else. I have tried this on two different samples now, with the same result. I tried with a try/catch clause around the mSpinner.requestFocus() call, and it seems that mSpinner is null inside the thread. I have set it properly up with the setUp() function found in the same sample, and a quick assertNotNull( mSpinner ) shows me that mSpinner is in fact not null after the setUp() function. What can be the cause of this? EDIT; ok, some more testing has been done. It seems that the application that is being tested resets between each test. This essentially makes me have to reinstantiate all variables between each test. Is this normal?

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  • Multi-user job/task tracking/queue software

    - by Bmsgaffer86
    Background: I test and repair electronic products with a team. There are many 'jobs' going through my lab at any point in time. It is getting difficult to track whats coming in and going out because I don't do every test or repair myself. Target: User can enter a job when they drop it off in my lab, and it will appear on the master list or queue. Needs to have priorities and due dates that can be adjusted by users. Ideally this would be web based and open-source, but I am flexible. Dream: A large monitor displaying a list of jobs in the master queue with details. This is very optional though, and would be in the best case scenario. I have done MANY hours of Google-ing and I am not sure if I have been using the right terminology, but I have not found anything that is simple enough to stand alone yet complex enough to be multi-user based. I am mildly proficient in VB, and have the drive to piece anything together that I have to. I am open to ANY help or suggestions.

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  • jquery simplemodal close wont work in firefox

    - by junkqwe
    I am using jquery.simplemodal 1.3.5 (i tried older versions) the close button doesnt close the modal in firefox (i tried IE and it work fine) this is the test page i am using: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Page</title> <style> #simplemodal-overlay { background-color:#000; cursor:wait; } #simplemodal-container a.modalCloseImg { background: url(../images/modal_close.png) no-repeat; width:25px; height:29px; display:inline; z-index:3200; position:absolute; top:15px; right:18px; cursor:pointer; } .modala { width: 372px; height: 206px; background: url(../images/modal.png) no-repeat; } </style> </head> <body> test page <script language="javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" src="/include/jquery.simplemodal-1.3.5.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $("body").click(function() { $.modal("<div class=\"modala\"><h1>SimpleModal</h1></div>", {overlayClose: true} ); }); </script> </body> </html> what can be the problem? is it a known problem with simplemodal and FF?

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  • Accessing items at deeper levels using children() in jQuery

    - by favo
    Hi, I want to access a simple button in an unknown nested level of a container. Using container.children('button') allows me to access buttons in the first level, i.e.: <div> <button>test</button> </div> Trying to use the same with the following construct: <div> <div> <button>test</button> </div> </div> .. fails, because the button is not a direct children. I could use element.children().children('button') but the depth of the button can change and this feels too strange. I can also write my own function to iterate thru all children to find what I need, but I guess jQuery does already have selectors for this. So the question is: How can I access children in an unknown depth using jQuery selectors? Thank you all in advance for your feedback!

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  • jquery select one class from many

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm trying to achieve the following functionality. Within a form I have multiple fields with the class name .inputField if one of these fields is selected then the div associated with that element should be shown on focus and hidden on blur. However, when I implement the code below on selecting the second element the class is applied to both. Not sure where I'm going wrong?!?!? html markup: <form class="friendlyForm" name="friendlyForm" id="friendlyForm"> <ul> <li> <label for="testField">Test field</label> <input name="testField" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> <li> <label for="testField">Test field2</label> <input name="testField2" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField2" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> </ul> </form> jQuery markup: $('.friendlyForm').find('.inputField').each(function(i) { $(this).blur(); $(this).focus(function() { //Add the focus class and fadeIn the helper div $(this).parent().addClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeIn(); }); $(this).blur(function () { //Remove the focus class and fadeOut helper div $(this).parent().removeClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeOut(); }); }); Any pointers here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Trying to make a reusable function and display the result in a div

    - by user3709033
    I have this function that I am trying to work with. All I am trying to do is to get the values of days, hours, min and sec into the .overTime div. I want to use the same function over and over again because i have more divs in which I want to display the same values but in a diff manner. You guys are awesome Thank You. NowTime = new Date(); //Time Now StartTime = new Date($('#StartTime').val()); StopTime = new Date($('#StopTime').val()); function fixIntegers(integer){ if (integer < 0) integer = 0; if (integer < 10) return '0' + integer; return '' + integer; } function Test( difference ) { var toReturn = { days: 0, hours: 0, minutes: 0, seconds: 0 }; toReturn.seconds = fixIntegers(difference % 60); difference = Math.floor(difference / 60); toReturn.minutes = fixIntegers(difference % 60); difference = Math.floor(difference / 60); toReturn.hours = fixIntegers(difference % 24); difference = Math.floor(difference / 24); toReturn.days = fixIntegers(difference); return toReturn; } function run() { var output = Test( Math.floor( ( NowTime - StopTime ) / 1000 ) ); $('.OverTime').html( output.days + ':' + output.hours + ':' + output.minutes + ':' + seconds); } setInterval(run, 1000) FIDDLE: http://jsfiddle.net/8943U/47/

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  • Remotely initiate windows updates

    - by TetraFlash
    I have a network with countless workstations on it and the windows updates are done through WSUS in push cycles to allow us to use a generic image and configuration and avoid network congestion. I have a number of workstations in storage that are connected once a month for a few days to recieve updates, however not all of them fall within their push cycle. I want to avoid going to each machine and clicking "check updates" as that would require me to connect a monitor, mouse and keyboard. Is there a way (preferably through powershell but im open minded) to initiate a check and install of updates on a remote system? Lets say for 1 system at a time right now, I can add a file reader and a look later. NOTE: the configuration of the WSUS server is above my pay grade, im simply being asked to ensure these machines are updated. Thanks for any help or hints

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